Q&Aa Flashcards
(161 cards)
1
Q
What is the wing span of the aircraft?
A
38.3 feet
2
Q
How much clearance is between the tip of the propeller and the ground?
A
7 inches
3
Q
What is your engine model?
A
Teledyne Continental IO-550-N
4
Q
What is the horsepower rating?
A
310 hp@2700 rpm
5
Q
Fuel capacity?
A
Total: 94.5 gallons. Useable: 92.0 gallons, 60 gallons when at the tabs
6
Q
Oil sump capacity?
A
8 U.S. Quarts
7
Q
Oil grade?
A
Above 40?F: SAE 50. Below 40?F SAE 30
8
Q
What is the certified maximum takeoff weight of the aircraft?
A
3400 lbs
9
Q
Maximum baggage compartment loading?
A
130 lbs
10
Q
Standard empty weight?
A
2397 lbs
11
Q
Maximum useful load?
A
1150 lbs. Note: Gross weight, 3400 lbs., minus the maximum useful load 1150 lbs., equals 2250 lbs., which is below the airplane?s empty weight. Consequently, it would be impossible to exceed this restriction
12
Q
Payload with full fuel?
A
451 lbs
13
Q
What is the significance of VNO?
A
Should not be exceeded unless in smooth air and then only with caution
14
Q
What is VO?
A
Maneuvering speed (called VA for other airplanes)
15
Q
What is VPD?
A
Cirrus Airframe Parachute System (CAPS) deployment speed
16
Q
What is the power rating?
A
310 hp @ 2700 rpm
17
Q
What is the maximum rpm?
A
2700 rpm
18
Q
What is the maximum takeoff weight?
A
3400 lbs
19
Q
What is the maximum weight in the baggage compartment?
A
130 lbs
20
Q
Are aerobatic manoeuvres and spins allowed?
A
Never
21
Q
Are Alternator 2 and Battery 2 required for day and night VFR flights?
A
No
22
Q
What three annunciator lights are always required?
A
Low Volts, Alternator 1, and Alternator 2. Note: Alt 2 is not required for VFR, but annunciator is. Go figure!
23
Q
Can you fly VFR with one of the strobe lights out?
A
Yes, 2 are required
24
Q
What flights requires a magnetic compass?
A
All VFR, IFR, day, and night flights
25
Can the airplane be flown into known icing conditions?
Absolutely not
26
Maximum demonstrated crosswind velocity?
Takeoff or landing: 20 knots
27
What power setting should be used for taxiing?
Minimum power to maintain taxi speed.
28
Approved fuel?
100LL (blue) or 100 (Green)
29
Maximum fuel imbalance between fuel tanks?
10 U.S. Gallons
30
Must the Avidyne PFD and MFD be available in flight?
Yes
31
Autopilot operation is prohibited above what speed?
185 KIAS
32
When must the autopilot be disengaged?
Takeoff, missed approach, go-around, baulked landing, landing, and when flaps are extended more than 50%
33
Is there a limitation regarding the use of autopilot and flaps?
Yes, if the autopilot and altitude hold are on, minimum speed is 95 KIAS. If 50% flaps are extended, speed can be reduced further
34
Must the autopilot be disengaged in turbulence?
Yes, if moderate or severe
35
What is the minimum altitude for autopilot engagement?
400 ft. agl
36
When must the autopilot be disengaged during non-precision and precision instrument approaches?
Non-precision: 100 ft. below MDA. Precision: at DA
37
What is the maximum crosswind allowed for autopilot operation between the outer marker and the missed approach point?
12 knots
38
What is the minimum distance for an autopilot intercept of a localizer?
At least 5 miles outside the outer marker
39
Can the flap configuration be changed during an autopilot-coupled approach?
No
40
Is the use of a child safety seat permitted?
No, it is prohibited with the inflatable restraint system
41
Flap limitations?
Takeoff: Up (0%) or 50%. Landing: 0%, 50%, or 100%
42
What color can you have the airplane painted?
Only as specified by Cirrus in order to ensure that the composite structure does not exceed 150
43
Is smoking permitted in the airplane?
Never
44
Best glide speeds?
88 KIAS at 3400 lbs, 87 KIAS at 2900 lbs
45
Is it possible to gain some additional glide distance?
Yes, move the power lever to idle and increase speed 5 to 10 knots
46
Engine out emergency landing speeds?
90 KIAS flaps up, 85 KIAS flaps 50%, 80 KIAS flaps 100%
47
What is the aircraft?s glide ratio?
9.6:1
48
What is your best glide distance if you were at 6,000? AGL?
9.5 nm
49
Engine induction-system fire during start procedure?
Mixture cutoff, fuel pump off, fuel selector off, power lever full forward, engage starter.
50
What procedure do you follow after engine failure?
The glide attitude that will generate the best glide speed, mixture as required, switch fuel tanks, fuel pump on BOOST, alternate induction air on, and ignition switch on BOTH
51
If an engine failure occurred over water, should you use the CAPS?
Yes, according to the AFM. Note: One pilot did that and broke his back on the landing due to the impact force. The landing gear will not help dissipate the deceleration force during a water landing like it does when over land
52
How can you tell if the power lever linkage failed, and what should you do?
The engine will not respond to power lever control movements. Use power available and flaps to safely land the airplane; use mixture control to stop the engine when required in order to make a power-off approach and landing
53
What are the three checklists for propeller system emergencies?
Propeller Governor Failure? rpm will not increase, Propeller Governor Failure?propeller overspeeds or will not decrease, and Power Lever Linkage Failure
54
What is the basic rule regarding CAPS deployment?
CAPS should only be activated when any other means of handling the emergency would not protect the occupants from serious injury
55
What would a fully stabilized CAPS landing feel like?
Jumping off a 13 foot wall
56
What is the activation procedure for a CAPS deployment?
Maximum airspeed 133 KIAS. Pull the activation T-handle from its holder. Clasp both hands around the handle and pull straight down in a strong, steady, and continuous motion. Maintain maximum pull force until the rocket activates. Pull forces up to, or exceeding, 45 pounds may be required. Bending of the handle-housing mount is to be expected
57
What is the emergency landing body position during a CAPS deployment?
Place both hands on your lap, clasping one wrist with the opposite hand, and hold your upper torso erect and against the seat back
58
What do you do if a brake failure occurs during taxi?
Gradually apply the rudder pedal with bad brake and as the airplane starts to turn in that direction pump the working brake to keep the airplane straight
59
What procedure do you follow for an aborted takeoff?
Power lever to idle, brakes as required, retract flaps, and hold the control yoke full aft
60
If icing conditions are encountered inadvertently, you should?
Pitot heat on, exit icing conditions, cabin heat maximum, windshield defrost full open, and alternate induction air on
61
If a door opens in flight, what should you do and what will the door do?
Reduce to 80 to 90 KIAS and land as soon as practical. The door will remain 1 to 3 inches open during flight if opened
62
How would you land with one brake inoperative?
Land on the side of the runway corresponding to the inoperative brake, and maintain directional control with rudder and the working brake
63
An alternator malfunctions. What indication would occur?
The ALT caution light would illuminate in the annunciator panel, and the ammeter would probably indicate an excessive charge or discharge rate
64
What does the term ?self-exciting? alternator mean?
The alternator requires battery voltage only for starting. Once started, it provides self-generated field power to continue operation in case of battery failure
65
If electrical loads must be reduced due to alternator failure, should you switch off electrical components that are not essential to flight or pull circuit breakers?
Switch off electrical components in order to prevent accidental circuit breaker disconnection and loss of power to flight-critical systems
66
Electric trim/autopilot failure?
Maintain airplane control manually (override the autopilot or trim) and disengage the autopilot if it was engaged. Pull the PITCH TRIM, ROLL TRIM, or AUTOPILOT CB as required. Land as soon as practical.
67
Are there drains for the pitot and static air lines?
Yes, each one is located below the fuselage aft of the gascolator drain. They are drained during the annual inspection and whenever water in the system is known or suspected
68
Where is the alternate static air source valve located?
On the switch and control panel that is to the right of the pilot?s leg and forward of the circuit breaker panel
69
Where is the ELT located.?
Behind the aft cabin bulkhead. It is accessible through the avionics bay access panel along the aft portion of the right hand fuselage or the lower aft center access panel of the baggage compartment. It can be removed from the airplane and used as a personal locating device if necessary to leave the airplane after anaccident
70
What do you check when inspecting the Halon fire extinguisher before every flight?
Remove the extinguisher from its bracket, ensure that the nozzle is unobstructed, the pin has not been pulled, the canister has not been damaged, and the unit weighs approximately 1.5 lbs
71
Describe the two hour meters?
The HOBBS meter?used to record pilot time?begins recording when BAT 1 is on and either alternator switch is on. The FLIGHT meter? used by maintenance for airframe inspections?begins when the airplane reaches approximately 35 KIAS
72
What must you check after you turn BAT 1 on during the initial cockpit check?
PFD, avionics cooling fan, essential bus voltage (23-25V),flap position light out
73
What must you check after you turn BAT 2 on during the initial cockpit check?
Exterior lights, stall warning (suction device required),fuel quantity, fuel selector, flaps 100% with light on, and oil annunciator light on
74
How can you tell whether or not the brakes have been overheated?
Inspect the temperature indicator installed to the brake piston housing. If center of indicator is black, the brake assembly has been overheated
75
What two items must be in place at the outboard ends of the horizontal stabilizer?
Two pieces of clear tape that cover the forward and aft stabilizer inspection holes
76
What two items, one attached to the flaps, the other to the ailerons, must be inspected?
The flap rub strip and the aileron gap seal
77
When should the CAPS safety pin be removed?
Prior to engine start
78
Why should the alternators be left off during engine start?
To avoid high electrical loads
79
Starter motor limitation during engine start?
Limit cranking to intervals of 20 seconds with a 20 second cooling period between cranks
80
What does a START ENGAGE warning indicate and what should you do?
The starter is still engaged after engine start. On the ground, turn the ignition and battery switches off. In the air pull the STARTER circuit breaker
81
Do you switch fuel tanks after engine start?
Yes, select lowest tank or either tank if both quantities are equal for start engine and initial taxi. Switch to other tank for engine runup and takeoff. Note: Never switch tanks just prior to takeoff
82
During cold weather, what is the minimum oil temperature for takeoff?
100?F (38?C).
83
How do you check the autopilot disconnect before takeoff?
Even though it?s not a Cirrus checklist item, this action should always occur: Press the HDG button to engage the autopilot. Check control forces. Now press the yoke?s autopilot disconnect button (the coolie hat) to ensure autopilot disconnect
84
At what speed do you retract the flaps after takeoff?
80 KIAS. Climb speeds, flaps up: Best rate climb: SL, 101 KIAS. 10,000 ft, 96 KIAS Best angle climb: SL, 79 KIAS. 10.000 ft, 83 KIAS
85
Landing approach speeds?
Normal approach, flaps up: 90-95 KIAS.Normal approach, flaps 50%: 85-90 KIAS. Normal approach, flaps 100%: 80-85 KIAS. Shortfield, flaps 100%: 77 KIAS
86
Maximum recommended turbulent air penetration speeds?
3400 lbs: 133 KIAS. 2900 lbs: 123 KIAS
87
Maximum demonstrated crosswind velocity?
20 Kts
88
What is the maximum gross weight and the maximum ramp weight?
3400 lbs and 3409 lbs. Note: Cirrus allows 1.5 gallons (9 lbs.) for engine start, taxi, and runup
89
Is UNusable fuel and full engine oil included in basic empty weight?
Yes
90
What material is used for the rudder, elevator, ailerons, and wing flaps?
Aluminum
91
What are the small tabs on the elevator, rudder, and right aileron?
Ground adjustable trim tabs that are factory set and do not normally require adjustment
92
What activates the electrical trim motors?
A conical trim button (called a ?coolie hat?) located on the flight control yoke activates the aileron and elevator trim motors when moved left or right or up or down Push it down to deactivate the autopilot
93
How do you position the elevator trim and the aileron trim to the neutral position?
Elevator: Align the yoke?s reference mark with the metal tab that?s attached to the instrument panel bolster?the rounded portion that extends across the cockpit beneath the instrument panel. Aileron: Align the fore-and-aft line that?s etched on the control yoke with the centering indication that?s marked on the bolster
94
If the elevator control system or aileron control system failed due to something other than a jammed elevator or a jammed aileron, how could you control the airplane?
Use the elevator or the aileron trim control system
95
What is the yaw trim system?
A spring cartridge attached to the rudder control system that provides a centering force whenever the rudder is deflected. It is ground adjustable only
96
Describe the power lever (throttle)?
It adjusts the engine throttle setting in addition to automatically adjusting propeller speed. Cables connect the lever to the throttle body?s fuel-metering valve and to the propeller governor. The system is set to maintain 2500 rpm throughout cruise power settings and 2700 rpm at full power
97
What backup flight instruments are available if the PFD fails?
Altimeter, airspeed, attitude indicator, and magnetic compass
98
The airplane does not have a flight-control gust lock, and you are not required to secure the control yoke with a seat belt when the airplane is tied down. Why not?
Because the rudder, aileron, and elevator trim spring cartridges have sufficient power to act as a gust damper
99
Can you stand or kneel on the seats?
No. The seat bottoms have an integral aluminium honeycomb core designed to crush under impact to absorb downward loads during a CAPS landing
100
Where is the throttle-friction control wheel located?
On the right side of the center console
101
You are required to visually inspect the fire extinguisher before each flight. What must you ensure?
The nozzle is unobstructed, the pin has not been pulled, and the canister has not been damaged
102
Describe the fuel drain valve locations and function?
Five total. Each wing has two drains, one for the fuel tank and one for the collector tank. The gascolator drain is located under the forward fuselage just aft of the lower engine cowl. The fuel must be sampled prior to each flight
103
Can you slip the SR-22?
Yes, but if the fuel tank being used is less than 1/4 full, do not allow the airplane to remain in uncoordinated flight for periods in excess of 30 seconds. The fuel tank outlets may become uncovered
104
Where are the flight time and Hobbs meters located?
Inside the armrest storage compartment
105
Where is the parking brake located and how is it activated?
Below the instrument panel to the right of the pilots right ankle. Depress brakes and pull parking brake on.
106
Describe the voltage, capacity, and location of each battery and alternator?
BAT 1 - 24V, 10 amp/hr battery located on the right firewall; BAT 2 - Two 12V, 12 amp/hr batteries connected in series to provide 24V located behind the aft cabin bulkhead below the parachute canister. ALT 1 - A gear-driven, 28.0V, 60-amp alternator mounted on the right front of the engine. ALT 2 - A gear-driven, 28.75V, 20-amp alternator mounted on the accessory case at the rear of the engine. (Note: The alternator voltage difference (28.0 and 28.75) is a critical factor for electrical system operation.)
107
Describe the electrical system?
There are two batteries and two alternators. BAT 1 and ALT 1 supply the MAIN DISTRIBUTION BUS which powers the ESSENTIAL DISTRIBUTION BUS, the NON ESSENTIAL BUS, and the MAIN BUS 1. BAT 2 supplies the ESSENTIAL BUS. ALT 2 supply the ESSENTIAL DISTRIBUTION BUS 2 which powers the ESSENTIAL DISTRIBUTION BUS which powers the ESSENTIAL BUS and the AVIONICS ESSENTIAL BUS. Note: Find the two diodes?circles that contain a black arrowhead that?s perpendicular to a straight line?between the two main distribution buses and the essential distribution bus in Figure 7-10. Diodes act like switches if power failure occurs in the SR-22. Just remember that voltage is like water pressure, and the higher voltage (pressure) always dominates over lower voltage (pressure). If ALT 2 fails, the 28.75 volts disappears and the diodes will let ALT 1?s 28.0 volt current pass through and power whatever ALT 2 had been powering. However, if ALT 1 and BAT 1 fail, the diodes block current flow and will not let ALT 2 power what BAT 1 or ALT 1 were powering
108
Why can?t BAT 1 or ALT 1 power what ALT 2 is powering during normal operation?
Because ALT 2?s 28.75 volts (higher pressure) prevents ALT 1?s 28.0 volts current from crossing the diodes. In summary, if only BAT 2 or ALT 2 are functional, they will only power the ESSENTIAL DISTRIBUTION BUS, but if only BAT 1 or ALT 1 are functional, they will power all busses. The SR-22 is an all electric airplane with excellent redundancy. This knowledge is mandatory
109
Why should the batteries not be turned off in flight?
Because both alternators are self-exciting (will continue to run without battery power) but require battery voltage for field excitation in order to start should they shutdown
110
What equipment is powered by the ESSENTIAL DISTRIBUTION BUS?
Engine instruments, stall warning, roll trim, pitch trim, BAT 2, NAV 1, COM 1, ADC AHRS, standby attitude indicator, and PFD, and GPS 1 (the upper Garmin 430)
111
LOW VOLTS warning light illuminated procedure?
Cause: Voltage is 24.5 volts or less on the ESSENTIAL BUS and you are on battery power only because both alternators have failed or are off. Procedure: If both alternators have failed, land as soon as possible
112
How can you prove what the ESSENTIAL DISTRIBUTION BUS powers?
With the engine running on the ground, turn off ALT 1 and BAT 1, but leave ALT 2, BAT 2, and the avionics switch on. Now observe what works and what doesn?t work
113
How can you check to see if the distribution buses isolation diodes have failed?
Turn on only BAT 2 and the avionics switch and COM 2 or NAV 2. If either one works, one or more diodes have failed
114
When external 28VDC power has been supplied to the airplane through the ground service receptacle, what must you then do to power the electrical system?
Turn BAT 1 on
115
The ESS BUS Warning illuminates - what does that mean and what do you do?
Voltage output from either alternator is incorrect. Usually an M BUS 1 or M BUS 2 annunciation will appear for the corresponding alternator failure. Perform the ALT 1 or ALT 2 checklist or land as soon as practical
116
What occurs when you turn the landing light switch on?
You turn on the High Intensity Discharge (HID) landing light mounted in the lower engine cowl and turn on the recognition lights located on the leading edge of the wing tips
117
Where are the inlets for cabin ventilation and heating?
Air for cabin heating enters through the right hand engine cowl opening (ALT 1 is visible). Air for ventilation and cooling enters through a NACA vent on the right hand lower engine cowl
118
Where is the sensor for the stall warning horn?
Behind the small hole in the right wing?s leading edge
119
Where are the pitot tube and static ports located?
Pitot tube: under the left wing. Static ports: one on each side of the aft fuselage
120
What does the pitot heat caution light indicate?
The pitot heat switch is in the on position, but the pitot tube is not receiving electrical current
121
Describe the standby attitude indicator?
Electrically driven gyro with a red GYRO flag that indicates loss of electrical power from the essential bus. It can follow 360? of roll and 360? of pitch, and it has both a traditional knob for aligning the miniature airplane with the instrument?s horizon and a PULL TO CAGE knob for quick erection of the gyro
122
Describe the fail-safe mode for the Garmin GMA 340 audio system?
It connects the pilot?s headphone and microphone to COM 1 if power is removed or if the Mic Selector switch is turned to the OFF position
123
Where is the ELT located and where is it?s control panel located?
It is installed directly behind the aft cabin bulkhead, and the control panel is installed immediately below the circuit breaker panel next to the pilot?s right leg
124
How can you tell if the ELT is transmitting?
A flashing light on the control panel
125
Is the ELT portable?
Yes. You can access it at the lower aft center of the baggage compartment. Disconnect the leads attached to the unit, remove it, and attach the portable antenna to the antenna jack on the front of the unit. Set main control switch to on
126
Can you use external power to start the airplane if BAT 1 is dead?
No, you need some battery power in order to close the relay in the master control unit
127
Can you push the airplane backward without using the tow bar?
No
128
What are the tire pressures?
Nose wheel tire: 30 psi. Main wheel tires: 62 psi
129
Installation of the oil dipstick can be difficult. How should you do it?
Point the dipstick?s finger loop toward the airplane?s nose or tail, and allow the dipstick to rotate 180 degrees as you push it into the engine or pull it out
130
What is the minimum engine oil quantity and the amount recommended for extended flights?
6 qts. minimum, 7 qts. for extended flight
131
When cleaning the windshield and windows, what hand motion should you use?
Linear?straight back and forth. Circular motion causes spirals in the plexiglas which makes those scratches much more apparent when flying
132
How should you clean the electronic display screens (PFD and MFD)?
Gently wipe the display with only a lens cloth or nonabrasive cotton cloth. Moisten a clean, cotton cloth with Optiimax LCD Screen Cleaning Solution, wipe screens in one direction moving from top to bottom, and then wipe the display clean with a clean, dry, cotton cloth Paper towels, tissue, or camera lens paper may scratch the screens
133
Pressing the COM 1/2 button does what?
Activates the split com function so that the pilot can transmit/receive on COM 1 and the copilot can simultaneously transmit/receive on COM 2
134
How do you set the audio squelch?
With the engine running, slowly rotate the control knob clockwise until you no longer hear engine nose in the headset. Place the mike close to your lips and verify that normal speech levels open the channel
135
What is the function of the PILOT and CREW intercom isolation buttons?
PILOT: The pilot is isolated from the intercom system. CREW: Pilot and copilot are on one intercom channel, isolated from the passengers who are on a separate channel
136
Do you turn the transponder to STBY after engine start?
No, that occurs automatically when you turn on the avionics power
137
When do you place the transponder to the ALT position?
Never. If the transponder is in STBY, it automatically goes to ALT when airspeed reaches 35 knots, and it automatically returns to STBY when airspeed decreases below 35 knots
138
What bus powers the transponder?
Non-essential avionics bus
139
What is displayed when flight time is selected?
The time accrued while the airplane was moving faster than 35 knots.
140
How do you start the count up timer?
Press the CLR key to zero the display and press the START/STOP key
141
How do you setup and start the count down timer?
Set the time with the CRSR key and the 0 through 9 keys, then press the START/STOP key
142
Is the S-Tec System 55X POH required to be on the airplane during flight?
Yes, and it must be available to the pilot while in flight
143
How can you disconnect the autopilot?
Push in the Coolie Hat on the control yoke or pull the autopilot circuit breaker on the non-essential avionics bus
144
List and explain the autopilot pre-flight tests?
When avionics power is turned on, all autopilot annunciators except CWS and TRIM illuminate and then go off after 5 seconds. When the turn coordinator reaches operating rpm, the RDY light will illuminate. Heading mode test: Center HDG bug under lubber line on HSI. Momentarily press HDG button on autopilot and note that HDG illuminates. Rotate HDG knob and note that control yoke follows movement to the left and right. Vertical speed test: Press VS button and note that VS light illuminates VS+0. Rotate the VS control knob to 500 fpm up and the control yoke should move aft after a short delay. Rotate the VS control knob to 500 fpm down and the control yoke should move forward after a short delay. Altitude hold test: Depress the ALT button. Note that ALT annunciator comes on, VS annunciator goes out, and yoke does not move. Overpower test: Grasp control yoke and input left and right aileron and nose up and nose down to overpower autopilot Overpower action should be smooth in each direction with no noise or jerky feel. Radio check: Turn on NAV 1 radio with a valid NAV signal and select VLOC for display on the HSI. Engage NAV mode and move OBS so that VOR deviation needle moves left or right. Note that control yoke follows direction of needle movement. Autopilot disconnect test: Press the Coolie Hat switch on the control yoke. Note that autopilot disconnects. Move control yoke to confirm that pitch and roll control is free with no control restriction or binding. If a pilot is in the copilot?s seat, repeat disconnect test using the copilot?s disconnect switch.
145
From where does the autopilot receive its signals?
The turn coordinator, the HSI,and the #1 NAV/GPS radio
146
AP GS (glideslope) mode?
Autopilot will capture and track an ILS glideslope. The airplane must be 60% or more below the glideslope centerline during the approach to the intercept point, and within 50% needle deviation of the localizer centerline at the point of intercept? usually the outer marker. When these conditions have existed for 10 seconds, the GS annunciator will illuminate indicating that GS arming has occurred. The ALT light will go out when the glideslope is captured.
147
AP ALT (altitude hold) mode?
Autopilot will hold the altitude at the time the mode was selected providing a roll mode is engaged. Altitude correction can be made by rotating the VS knob in the appropriate direction. Altitude will change 20 feet for each click of the knob.
148
AP VS (vertical speed) mode?
Autopilot will synchronize to and hold the vertical speed at the time the mode was selected. Vertical speed will change by 100 fpm for each click of the VS knob
149
Can you use the MFD as your primary navigation instrument?
No
150
Which GPS does the MFD use for data input?
Whichever one has been selected in the system setup page. Normally GPS 1 is used.
151
If a TA occurs, how do you get the traffic display to appear on the map page?
Press the ?Message Ack? bezel key
152
What traditional instruments does the PFD replace?
Airspeed indicator, attitude indicator, altimeter, turn coordinator, HSI or DG, vertical speed indicator, VOR/LOC indicator, altitude alerter, and OAT/clock
153
What traditional instruments are still installed as a backup in case the PFD fails?
Altimeter, airspeed, attitude indicators, magnetic compass
154
What traditional instrument is installed just for the autopilot?
A turn coordinator
155
What primary information does the PFD supply to the MFD?
Heading. The PFD is the primary heading source for the MFD
156
What are AP limitations?
? Autopilot operation is prohibited above 185 KIAS. ? Autopilot must not be engaged for takeoff and landing. ? Autopilot must be disengaged for a missed approach and go-around. ? When in altitude hold, flaps 50% cannot be extended above 95 KIAS. ? Flap selection is limited to 50% during autopilot operation. ? Autopilot must be disconnected in moderate or severe turbulence. ? Minimum engage height for the autopilot is 400 feet agl. ? Minimum speed for autopilot engagement is 1.2VS for the configuration. ? The autopilot must be disengaged no later than 100 feet below the MDA, at the DH, and during an approach if course deviation exceeds 50 percent. ? With autopilot engaged for an approach, a 12 knot crosswind limit exists inside the final approach fix. ? A localizer intercept shall occur at least 5 miles outside the FAF, 10 miles if the crosswind component is between 12 and 17 knots. ? The intercept angle shall be no greater than 45 degrees. ? The flaps should be extended to 50% prior to the FAF and no further changes should be made during the autocoupled approach. ? Approach a glideslope in a manner that allows automatic arming of the glideslope, or if glideslope is manually armed, no more than 15% above the glideslope
157
What will happen to autopilot operation if the PFD fails, and what must you do?
You loose the ability to control the autopilot through the PFD controls. If this occurs, pull the PFD circuit breakers and fly the airplane using the backup instruments
158
Is autopilot lateral control available with the PFD circuit breakers pulled?
Only if you use the autopilot?s GPSS steering mode (push the NAV button twice) through GPS 1. (Autopilot vertical control is also available through the autopilot?s VS and ALT modes.)
159
Where is the slip/skid indicator?
The bottom edge of the bank angle pointer
160
Where is the rate of turn indicator?
The arc with a blue arrow on top of the HSI
161
The heading, altitude, and vertical speed all have selectable, magenta reference bugs. How can you tell whether or not any of these are coupled to the autopilot?
They?ll be sold magenta if coupled, but hollow if not coupled.
