Q bank,Progress tests, Notes Flashcards

1
Q

AG2. What is the minimum width of runway to perform a 180˚ turn?

A
  • (w) 24.3m
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2
Q

AG5. On which panel in the flight deck would you find the leading edge devices indications?

A
  • Aft Overhead
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3
Q

AG6. How many external door exist on the right hand side of the aircraft from fwd to aft, name them and is there an indication light in the cockpit when they are not closed and locked?

A
  • 6
  • Aft and Fwd service door
  • Right aft and fwd over wing
  • Fwd and aft cargo
  • Yes on the fwd overhead
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4
Q

AG7. There are two sets of landing lights, where are they located and what is the difference between how the two sets can be controlled?

A
  • FWD Overhead, Retractable and fixed, Retract shine along the water line of the aircraft, Fixed leading edge, shined forward at a selected angel.
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5
Q

AG8. Where are the runway turns off lights located?

A
  • Wing root.
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6
Q

AG9. How many emergency passenger exits are there and how many slides?

A
  • 8 and 4.
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7
Q

AG11. Where is the portable water tank located?

A
  • Below Aft entry door and to the left.
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8
Q

AG12. Where is the water quantity indicator?

A
  • Aft attendant panel
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9
Q

AG15. When do the master caution lights illuminate?

A
  • When any caution occurs outside the normal field of vision of the flight crew.
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10
Q

WS9. When is the altitude alerting system inhibited?

A
  • Flap 25 or greater or at G/S capture.
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11
Q

WS10. In the EGPWS system, what will trigger an aural warning DON’T SINK?

A
  • Excessive altitude loss after TO/GO
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12
Q

FI2. When is the rising runway displayed? When does it begin to move?

A
  • LOC signal usable and RAD ALT is less than 2500ft, Begin to move at 200ft
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13
Q

FI4. On the PDF altitude strips, where does the amber cross-hatched area landing altitude get its data.

A
  • FMC alt or dest. Till 400nm from departure or half way to destination, which ever first
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14
Q

FI8. What is the source of data for the 6 common display units? Assuming that the display source selector is in auto.

A
  • DEU 1 - powers cpt PFD ND UDU
  • DEU 2 - powers fo PFD ND LWDU
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15
Q

FI14. On the ND, how are VOR and ADF pointers distinguished from one another?

A
  • VOR 1 – 1 line and green
  • VOR 2 – 2 line and green
  • Same for NDB but in blue
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16
Q

FI15. Draw the VNAV path pointer and deviation scale; assuming the aircraft’s deviation is 200ft high

A

I
I__
I
<>
I

17
Q

NA2. On the aft overhead panel, what would an illuminated GPS light (amber) Indicate?

A
  • In flight with a MC = failure of both GPS recievers
  • On pressing recall = single GPS reciever failure
18
Q

NA3. What is the purpose of the NAV transfer key?

A
  • Changes the source of the nav data to the DEUs. Norm = Capt on 1/ FO on 2. Both L/R will put both DEUs to a single nav reciever
19
Q

EN7. Name and describe the diff modes of operation of the EEC?

A
  • Normal: 2 white
  • Soft/Hard: mixture of white and alt
  • Hard: 2 Alternate
20
Q

SO4. Describe how thrust is set during the TO and what must be checked and announced.

A
  • PF select 40% N1, monitor N1 stabilises at 40, press TOGA,
FO hand off throttles, captain hand on throttles, PM checks and states ‘Thrust set’ by 60kts,
PM calls ‘80kts’, PF responds ‘Check’, if no response PM calls ‘90kts’
21
Q

System annunciator panel cover what?

A
  • Aft, Fwd, fire control
22
Q

What is and what happens with a T/O Config?

A

Horn take off config in red no master

23
Q

Min with green pointer?

A

BARO (RTFQ)

24
Q

Message light on right of CDU?

A

Message for both crew

25
Q

Single GPS Fault?

A

RECALL on annunciator

26
Q

Alt flap cool?

A

5min

27
Q

Speed brake in flight not beyond?

A

Flight detent

28
Q

Where is the Air starter located?

A

IGD N2 shaft

29
Q

Cross bus tie in normal?

A

Closed and in auto

30
Q

STBY off light?

A

AC & Dc standby off, Batt unpowered

31
Q

GEN OFF BUS?

A

IDG not supplying to RELATED transfer bus

32
Q

Q. If the seat belt is in auto, how will the light ext on depature?

A

light to extinguish the gear and flaps must be up

33
Q

Auto brake RTO undertaken speed?

A

Allowed to be undertaken at 90