Qbank and Pretest Flashcards
(206 cards)
1
Q
What is indicated for circumferential full thickness burns of an extremity causing edema and decreased peripheral pulses?
A
Escharotomy
If this fails then fasciotomy
2
Q
What are some signs of pulmonary contusion? What can make it worse?
A
Hypoxemia and patchy alveolar infiltrate
Made worse by IVF
3
Q
When and why is surgery indicated in a newborn hydrocele?
A
If it lasts longer than 12 months (normally regresses on its own)
Indicated because of increased risk of indirect inguinal hernia
4
Q
A patient has intense pain at the wound site, cloudy-gray discharge, decreased sensitivity at wound edges, fever, hypotension, and tachycardia- diagnosis?
A
Necrotizing surgical infection
5
Q
What is the pathogenesis behind a varicocele? Presentation?
A
Swelling of the pampiniform plexus of veins
Dull, aching pain of testes
More common of L side
6
Q
A patient who was pulled out of burning building appears normal on exam. Treatment?
A
Suspect acute CO poisoning–> treat with 100% O2
7
Q
What triad consists of impotence, hip and thigh claudication, and symmetric atrophy of lower extremities?
A
Aortoiliac occlusion
8
Q
What is the work up fo a suspected intraabdominal injury in a hemodynamically unstable patient?
A
FAST sonogram or diagnostic peritoneal lavage
9
Q
What is the diagnosis of a patient who presents like a pneumothorax but DULLNESS to percurssion?
A
Hemothorax
10
Q
A patient has paradoxical thoracic movements that correct with positive pressure mechanical ventilation- diagnosis and cause?
A
Flail chest caused by broken ribs
11
Q
What part of tetanus vaccine causes passive immediate immunity?
A
TIG
12
Q
What part of tetanus vaccine causes active delayed immunity
A
Td
13
Q
What is associated with a burst fracture of the vertebrae and how does it present?
A
Anterior cord syndrome
Presents with total loss of motor function and bilateral loss of pain and temperature sensation below the lesion
14
Q
First line treatment for stress fracture?
A
Rest and analgesics
15
Q
What is the primary objective in management of rib fracture and why?
A
Pain relief–> allows proper ventilation to prevent pneumonia and atelectasis
16
Q
A patient on coumadin needs emergent ex lap- what needs to be done?
A
FFP to reverse coumadin
17
Q
A patient is recovering from AAA surgery and has thickening of bowel wall on CT- diagnosis? What will colonoscopy show?
A
Colonic ischemia due to interference of blood flow
Scope shows sharp transition zone from affected to unaffected area
18
Q
A patient presents with delayed onset of hypotension, abdominal pain, and left shoulder pain following blunt abdominal trauma- diagnosis and work up?
A
Splenic injury
Get CT scan with IV contrast
19
Q
What is the first sign of hypovolemia?
A
Tachycardia
20
Q
A patient presents with JVD, decreased breath sounds, hypotension, and tracheal shift- diagnosis and treatment?
A
Tension pneumothorax
Tx: needle thoracostomy
21
Q
After placing NG tube, X-ray shows NG tube coiled up in thoracic cavity- diagnosis?
A
Diaphragmatic hernia
More common on left side
22
Q
What is the work up of penile fracture?
A
Urethral imaging to assess injury then surgery
23
Q
What is the work up of a patient with massive hemoptysis?
A
First hemodynamically stabilize–> intubate to protect airway–> bronchoscopy to visualize and stabilize bleed
24
Q
What should be suspected if a post-op patient has hypotension, hypoglycemia, abdominal pain, and N/V?
A
Pre-op steroid dependence
25
What is the course of care for a patient with a spinal cord injury?
Stabilize hemodynamically--> proper airway management--> urinary catheter placement
26
A trauma patient has symptoms of cholecystitis but NO stones- diagnosis? Risk factors
Acalculous cholecystitis
| Risk factors- prolonged TPN, multiorgan failure, burns, sepsis, severe trauma
27
How to differentiate between Borhaave and Mallory-Weiss on physical exam?
Pneumomediastinum occurs in Borhaave- crepitus and retrosternal pain
28
A patient has numerous minute punctate hemorrhages with blurring of gray-white interface on CT scan of the head and physical exam findings are out of proportion- diagnosis?
Diffuse axonal injury
29
How to tell the difference between embolic occlusion and arterial thrombosis? DVT?
Embolic occlusion- pulseness and sudden severe pain
Arterial thrombosis- diminished pulses with progressive onset
DVT- does not affect pulse
30
Diagnosis of a congenital benign bony growth in the midline of hard palate
Torsus palatinus
31
An elderly patient has a fall and presents afterwards and is stable- what is the first part of the work up?
Cardiac tests to find etiology of the fall
32
Patient with suspected peripheral artery disease has normal ABI- next step?
Redo ABI after exercise
33
A patient post-op from cardiac surgery has acute mediastinitis- treatment?
Drain and debride then antibiotics- NOT antibiotics alone
34
A patient with blunt head trauma has worsening neurologic signs including CN III paralysis, ipsilateral hemiparesis- diagnosis?
uncal hernia due to epidural hematoma
35
After a blunt trauma, CXR shows deviated mediastinum with mass in lower left chest- work up and diagnosis?
Visceral perforation into diaphragm
| Work up with barium swallow
36
What is the treat for a slipped capital femoral epiphysis in an obese adolescent? Why
Prompt surgery via pinning of slipped epiphysis
| Without surgery, major risk of avascular necrosis of femoral head
37
What is the most common source of infection of submandibular and sublingual glands? What is the worried complication?
Teeth
| Asphyxiation
38
Patient has hypotension and back pain following cardiac cath- diagnosis and work up?
get CT scan of abdomen
| Probably retroperitoneal bleeding
39
What drugs can induce pancreatitis?
Furosemide, thiazide, sulfasalazine, azathioprine, valproic acid, AIDS, metronidazole, tetracycline
40
What is the most common cause of adrenal insufficiency in a patient from USA? Foreigner?
USA- autoimmune
| World- TB
41
What causes ruptured submucosal veins @ GE junction?
Esophageal varices
42
What causes ruptured submucosal arteries in distal esophagus?
Mallory-Weiss tears
43
What are dyspepsia's alarm symptoms?
Weight loss, dysphagia, persistent vomiting
Use upper endoscopy if alarm symptoms are present
If absent, use H. pylori serologic testing
44
What is the gold standard for acromegaly?
GH levels following glucose load
45
Patient presents in shock that WORSENS with fluid?
Myocardial contusion or other cause of myocardial shock
46
What should always follow central line placement?
CXR to confirm placement
47
How to manage non-bleeding varices?
Medically manage
| Only use sclerotherapy if bleeding occurs
48
What is the intubation of choice with patients with cervical spine injury?
Orotracheal intubation
49
A patient has a widened mediastinum with a left sided hemothorax- diagnosis?
Aortic rupture
50
Abdominal pain radiating to the shoulder is caused by what?
Irritation to the diaphragm
51
A patient presents after trauma but is hemodynamically stable. He has abdominal bruises and a normal CT scan. A week later he is acutely worse- diagnosis?
Pancreatic abscess
| Spleen injury would show up on CT scan
52
What is the management of an asymptomatic patient with head trauma?
Can be sent home if CT scan is normal
53
A patient has acute pain and swelling of midline coccyx- diagnosis and pathogenesis?
Pilonidal cyst due to hair follicle abscess
54
An elderly patient with hyperextension injuries has pronounced weakness in the upper extremities compared to the lower extremities- diagnosis?
Central cord syndrome
55
A burn victim has low oxygen- treatment?
Intubation
56
What is a marjolin ulcer?
Non-healing lesion after burn or trauma that increases in size- squamous cell cancer
57
A patient presents with a clavicle fracture- what is the first step in treatment?
Neurovascular workup
58
What is a common contributor to post-op ileus?
Morphine
59
What is the treatment for duodenal hematoma?
NG tube and TPN
| If it does not resolve then surgery is indicated
60
In a patient with high bone turnover, what can prolonged immobIlization cause?
Hypercalcemia from activation of osteoclasts
61
How to differentiate follicular adenoma from carcinoma?
Invasion of tumor capsule and blood vessels
62
What is the best way to reduce decline in GFR in patient with diabetic nephropathy
Intensive blood pressure control
63
What agents can treat hyperkalemia?
Insulin, glucose, NaHCO3, beta-2 agonists
64
What is the first sign of hypocalcemia?
Hyperactive DTR
65
What effect does hypermagnesemia have on DTR?
DECREASED DTR
66
What are the ADH, renin and aldosterone levels in hypovolemic hyponatremia?
All decreased
67
What is the respiratory quotient- for carbs, protein, fatty acids?
Rate of CO2/O2 consumed
1. 0 for carbs
0. 8 for protein
0. 7 for FA
68
What causes Trendelenburg sign?
Weakness in gluteus minimus and medius
69
A breast mass is fluctuant on physical exam- treatment?
Most likely an abscess so drainage
70
Needle crystals in urine indicate what?
Uric acid stones
| Diagnose via CT of abdomen
71
What is Morton's neuroma?
Mechanically induced degenerative neuropathy seen in runners
| Presents with pain between 3rd and 4th toes reproducible by palpation
72
What is the leading diagnosis for a pulsatile mass below the inguinal ligament?
Femoral artery aneurysm
73
A patient with a small bowel obstruction has lactic acidosis- why?
Ischemia due to strangulated portion of bowel
74
What will a biopsy of IBD show?
Neutrophilic cryptitis
75
An patient with IBD is acutely ill- work up?
Abdominal X-ray
| Do not give sigmoidoscopy if acutely ill
76
Suspected ZE syndrome should receive what work up?
Fasting serum gastrin levels
77
Why would a patient with a GI bleed have an elevated BUN/Cr ratio?
Mild volume depletion
78
What is the treatment for an acute anal fissure?
Local anesthesia and stool softeners
79
What is the treatment for chronic anal fissue?
Lateral sphincterotomy
80
What occurs following acute overdose of aspirin?
Acute erosive gastritis with upper GI bleed
81
What is the presentation of thyrotoxicosis? What causes hypertension in these patients?
Present with weight loss, irritability, tachycardia, and lid retraction
HTN caused by hyperdynamic circulation--> increased T3/T4 increases sensitivity to catecholamines
82
An older patient with unexplained constipation and elevated ESR could possibly have what?
Hypercalcemia due to multiple myeloma
83
What is the differential diagnosis for normotensive patient with hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis?
Diuretic use
Surreptitious vomiting
Bartter syndrome- defective Na and Cl reabsorption in thick ascending limb
Gitelamn syndrome is defect in distal convoluted tubule
84
Most common cause of thyrotoxicosis with reduced iodine uptake is?
Subacute thyroiditis
85
How is metabolic alkalosis characterized?
Urine chloride levels
>20 is chloride resistant and has ECF volume expansion
<20 is chloride sensitive and has ECF volume contraction
86
What are some causes of Cl resistant metabolic alkalosis? Does saline infusion correct it?
Hyperaldosteronism, Bartter syndrome
| Na infusion does NOT help
87
What are some causes of Cl sensitive metabolic alkalosis? Does saline infusion correct it?
Vomiting or diuretics abuse
| Na infusion helps
88
A patient has unexplained elevated CK and myopathy- what is the first test to be ordered?
Serum TSH- hypothyroidism can cause these symptoms
89
When is succinylcholine contraindicated?
In hyperkalemia- causes life threatening arrhythmias
90
What is the treatment for hypercalcemia?
Fluid resuscitation
91
What is the presenting symptom in hypocalcemia caused by hypoalbuminemia?
NO SYMPTOMS- no change in ionized calcium levels
92
An alcohol patient has refractory hypokalemia- why?
Hypomagnesemia can cause refractory hypokalemia as Mg is a cofactor for K uptake into cells
93
Why would a patient with metabolic acidosis have a PaCO2 of 40?
Mixed acidosis
94
A patient has hyponatremia and maximally diluted urine- diagnosis?
Primary polydipsia
95
What is the best screening test for virulizing neoplasm?
Serum testosterone and DHEAS levels
Increased T and normal DHEAS indicate ovarian source
Increased DHEAS and normal T indicated adrenal source
96
How does acidosis cause hypocalcemia?
Increased pH--> increased affinity of serum albumin to bind calcium--> decreased ionized calcium
97
What is the treatment for acne?
Oral retinoids-->oral antibiotics-->topical retinoids
98
A patient presents with vertigo, postural instability, vomiting, and nystagmus- diagnosis and treatment?
Meniere's disease
| Low salt diet, avoid alcohol and nicotine
99
What is the most common thyroid nodule?
Colloid nodule
100
What is the fastest way to correct for hyperkalemia?
Insulin and glucose
101
A patient has symptoms of hyperthyroid but decreased uptake studies- what will be seen on biopsy?
Atrophy of follicles- this is exogenous thyroid hormone use
102
A patient with cirrhosis has signs of infection- what is the first test to order?
Diagnostic paracentesis
103
A patient with a normal colonoscopy two years ago now has a GI bleed- diagnosis?
Angiodysplasia
104
Stepwise approach to treatment of ascites?
NA and H2O restriction--> spironolactone--> loop diuretics--> abdominal paracentesis
105
How to treat hypernatremia?
Euvolemic or hypervolemic- 5% dextrose
| Hypovolemic- normal saline
106
A patient with a history of PUD surgery presents with abdominal pain, watery diarrhea and weight loss- diagnosis?
Possibly bacterial overgrowth following surgery
107
What is the best initial screening test for adrenal insufficiency?
Cosyntropin- cortisol should increase after
108
What is associated with aspirin exacerbated respiratory disease?
Nasal polyps
109
What acid-base status does aldosterone deficiency cause?
Non-anion gap metabolic acidosis
110
What is the most feared complication of retropharyngeal abscess?
Mediastinal involvement
111
What could be the reason a patient with hyperthyroidism presents 3 days later acutely worse?
Radioactive iodine therapy caused release of thyroid hormone from dying cells
112
If left untreated, what is a major concern with hyperthyroidism?
Bone loss
113
A patient has a pancreatic mass with diarrhea, leg cramps and hypokalemia- diagnosis?
VIPoma
114
What is a common cause of conductive hearing loss?
Osteosclerosis
115
What causes a respiratory alkalosis during pregnancy?
Increased progesterone
116
A patient with persistent diarrhea has biopsy showing dark brown discoloration of the colon with lymph follicles shining through as pale patches- diagnosis?
Melanosis coli with LAXATIVE ABUSE
117
A patient who grinds his teeth at night has ear pain that is worse with chewing- diagnosis?
Temporomandibular joint dysfunction
118
What is the most common neuropathy seen in diabetes?
Symmetric distal polyneuropathy
119
Otoscopic exam finds granulation tissue in the external auditory canal- diagnosis and treatment?
Malignant otitis externa due to pseudomonas infection--> treat with ciprofloxacin
120
What is the acid-base status of a patient in aspirin overdose?
Close to normal pH with decreased CO2 and decreased HCO3
121
How can you differentiate between primary and secondary hypogonadism?
Primary has increased FSH and LH
| Secondary has low FSH and LH-> check prolactin levels
122
What is presbycusis?
Sensorineural hearing loss that occurs with age
123
What is demeclocycline used to treat?
SIADH
124
What is used to treat diabetes insipidus?
Desmopressin
125
A patient has diarrhea, trouble remembering things, and a new malar rash- diagnosis?
Pellagra due to niacin deficiency
126
What is the timeline of collagen deposit in wound healing?
Fibroblasts appear on day 3 to deposit type III collagen. Collagen content is maximum at 2-3 weeks and then type I collagen dominates
127
What is the treatment for 3rd degree burns?
Excision of burns 3-7 days after injury
Topical Antibiotics
Split-thickness skin grafts at least 1 week after injury
Intubation and oxygen
128
When should a cleft lip and palate be repaired?
Lip- first 3 months
| Palate- 12-18 months w/ SPEECH therapy
129
Which cytokines/ growth factors stimulate collagen synthesis?
TGF
TNF
IL-1
130
Why cytokines/growth factors stimulate fibroblasts?
TGF, TNF, FGF, IL-1
131
What happens to insulin levels during acute injury?
Slight decrease due to catecholamines followed by increase
132
What diagnosis would show a "coiled spring" appearance of the 2nd and 3rd portion of the duodenum?
Hematoma- treat with NG tube and observation
133
Which extremity fracture or dislocation is associated with the highest risk of vascular injury?
Knee dislocation
134
Which gun shot patients are subject to ex lap?
Shot below T4
135
What is the gold standard for diagnosing myocardial contusion?
First pass radionuclide angiography and echo- assess ventricular wall motion and EF
136
What is the first part of the work up of penetrating injury to the rectum?
Flex sigmoidoscopy in the ER
137
Why is surgery still indicated in vascular injury to extremity even if pulses are palpable?
Palpable pulses do not rule out arterial injury
138
Why do K levels rise in shock?
Release from tissues
Decreased renal perfusion
Anaerobic metabolism
139
What is the most common cause of death in patients with penetrating pancreatic injury?
Exsanguination from associated vascular injury
140
A patient admitted with a MI has low T3 with normal T4 and TSH- what thyroid disease is present?
Sick euthyroid syndrome- normal reaction to acute illness
141
A diabetic patient presents with a non-anion gap metabolic acidosis and hyperkalemia. Why do they have hyperkalemia?
Renal tubular acidosis
142
What causes impotence in a pelvic fracture?
Parasympathetic nerve damage
| Penile fracture is different- venogenic damage causes impotence
143
What are some diagnostic tests for lactose intolerance?
Positive hydrogen breath test
Acidic stool pH
Increased stool osmotic gap
144
What is the first test in a patient less than 50 years old who presents with minimal BRBPR and no risks for colon cancer?
Anoscopy/proctoscopy
145
What is the treatment of choice for diabetic neuropathy?
Tricyclic antidepressants such as amitriptyline
146
What is a lactotroph adenoma?
Prolactinoma
147
A patient with a history of PUD presents with hypokalemic hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis and persistent vomiting- diagnosis and treatment?
Gastric outlet obstruction
| Treat with stomach decompression, hydration with chloride and potassium replacement
148
What drugs can cause esophagitis?
Tetracyclines, Aspirin, Alendronate, KCl
149
What is an early sign of hypermagnesemia?
Loss of deep tendon reflexes
150
How to treat acute severe hyponatremia following surgery?
Water restriction first
| Hypertonic saline second
151
Why are patients who lack ileum or jejunum at increased risk for Ca oxalate stones?
Excess free fatty acids binding Ca and allowing oxalate to be reabsorbed
152
What could cause post-op tetany with normal calcium?
Hypomagnesemia
153
A patient 4 weeks post op wants colostomy closed- what is the first part of the work up?
Make sure heart problems are under control
154
What is the treatment for metabolic alkalosis with respiratory compensation when patient is hypovolemic?
Fix volume- normal saline should fix alkalosis if kidneys are normal
155
What disturbance is seen with aspirin overdose?
Anion gap metabolic acidosis with respiratory alkalosis
156
Why should a hernia repair be delayed?
Signs of heart failure
157
A patient with recent MI has abdominal pain and blood in the stool- what is the first part of the work up?
Angiography- possible acute mesenteric ischemia
158
What is the treatment for von Willebrand disease?
Cryoprecipitate
159
What is the most worrisome complication intraoperatively and postoperatively in patient with polycythemia?
Hemorrhage
160
Patient with abdominal trauma is given PRBC but develops coagulopathy- why?
Factor V and VIII deficiency
161
What is the order in which the GI system regains function following surgery?
Small intestine--> stomach--> colon
162
Patient on heparin begins to hemorrhage- how should the be treated?
Stop heparin, give protamine, insert vena cava filter
163
What is a worry for a patient on long term steroids post op? What are some presenting signs?
Adrenal insufficiency
| Look for mental status changes, hypoglycemia, hyperkalemia
164
When can FFP be given for surgery in trauma?
On way to OR- 4-6 hour half life for FFP
165
A post-op patient has serosanguinous fluid from the incision- what has happened?
Disruption of deep fascia- reclosure in the OR
166
40 year old woman with 1-2 cystic mass- what is the next step in the management?
Aspiration of the mass
167
Teenage girl has 1400g tumor in the breast with a firm lobulated whirled appearance- what is it?
Fibroadenoma
168
Can a pregnant woman get chemotherapy?
Only in 3rd trimester
169
What can Meckel's diverticulitis present like?
Appendicitis
| Cecal diverticulitis can present as appendicitis too!
170
When is splenectomy indicated in asymptomatic ITP?
When platelet counts increase drastically after corticosteroid use
171
What is the most common complication of an end colonostomy
Parastomal hernia
172
A patient presents three weeks after surgery for perforated PUD with postprandial weakness, cramps, diarrhea, and sweating- diagnosis and treatment?
Dumping syndrome
| Treatment is watchful waiting- should go away in 3 months
173
A patient with benign gastric PUD fails 6 weeks of medical treatment- what is next step?
Bilroth 1
174
An elderly patient with no PMH/PSH presents with SBO and aerobilia- diagnosis?
Biliary enteric fistula with gallstone ileus
175
What is the treatment for Hirschsprung's disease?
Colostomy decompression until nutritional status is adequate and bowel has returned to normal size--> then definitive repair
176
What is the clinical course of pediatric umbilical hernia?
Should spontaneously resolve by age 4
| Exception is massive enlargement or incarceration
177
A 9 year old comes in with massive UGI bleed- diagnosis?
Bleeding esophageal varices due to infection via patent umbilical vein
178
What is the work up of anal cancer?
CT scan of abdomen for metastasis
| Transanal ultrasound to look for depth of invasion
179
Is the pancreas necessary for protein digestion?
Yes, but still 95% of protein meal can be digested by brush border enzymes in absence of pancreas
180
Where does carbohydrate absorption take place?
Almost all is absorbed by the end if the jejunum
181
How is milk digested in the duodenum?
Everything but the fat
182
What are 4 factors to assess when a patient in a trauma setting is in hypotensive shock?
HR- arrhythmias
Preload- decreased volume (hemorrhage), obstruction (tension pneumothorax, cardiac tamponade)
Contractility- CHF, myocardial contusion
SVR- massive vasodilation (sepsis, anaphylaxis, spinal trauma, anesthetics, ANS)
183
What is the major presenting difference between tension pneumothorax and pericardial tamponade
THE LUNGS: tension pneumothorax has absent breath sounds and hyperresonance
Pericardial tamponade has normal lungs
184
What is associated with hypocalcemia?
Prolonged QT interval
Hypomagnesemia
Hypoproteinemia
185
What part of the GI tract has fluid most consistent with Lactate Ringers?
Small bowel and bile
186
How can you counteract the effects of hyperkalemia on the myocardium without affecting serum levels of K?
Calcium gluconate
187
What are 3 physiologic alterations seen in ARDS?
Decreased compliance
Decreased FRC
Hypoxemia
188
What is true about metastatic potential of papillary thyroid cancer?
Commonly metastasizes to cervical lymph nodes
| Not aggressive anywhere else and not aggressive invader
189
What is the treatment for acalculous cholecystitis?
Percutaneous gallbladder drainage
190
A child presents an hour after ingesting lye drain cleaner- treatment?
Antibiotics and steroids- help lessen chance of stricture formation
191
What is the best test for establishing diagnosis and degree of myocardial dysfunction?
Radionuclide angiography- shows loss of compliance
192
What is the treatment of thoracic outlet syndrome if conservative management fails?
decompression of brachial plexus
193
What is the best test to see if TPN is providing adequate nutrition?
Albumin
194
What is gastric outlet obstruction syndrome's effect on the kidney and acid base status?
Increases Na-H exchange in distal tubule causing paradoxical aciduria
Gastric outlet obstruction is an alkalotic state due to vomiting/suction
195
What is the physiologic effect of shivering?
Increased BMR-->increased O2 consumption--> increased CO2 production
Can lead to lactic acidemia
196
What hiatal hernia needs surgery most urgently?
Type II- paraesophageal has highest risk of strangulation or obstruction
197
What is the treatment for asymptomatic carotid artery stenosis of 60% or greater
Carotid endarterectomy
198
What is subclavian steal syndrome?
Occlusion of the subclavian artery before the vertebral arter branches off causing intermittent claudication in a particular extremity (usually left)
199
During an appendectomy a 4 cm carcinoid tumor is found- is further intervention needed?
Yes- right hemicolectomy should be performed
200
What can a very high level of CEA signifiy?
Liver involvement
201
PUD surgery- type 1 ulcer (on lesser curvature)
Antrectomy alone
202
PUD surgery- elderly patient with bleeding duodenal ulcer
Vagotomy and pyloroplasty
| Not worried about high recurrence rate
203
PUD surgery- type III (pyloric) ulcer refractory to medical treatment
Antrectomy with vagotomy
204
An elderly patient presents with vomiting, pain, distention and has grossly dilated loop of intestine shaped like an upside down U- diagnosis and treatment?
Sigmoid volvulus
| Diagnose and treat with sigmoidoscopy
205
What is the most common movement that tears a meniscus?
Flexion with rotation
206
What is Volkmann's ischemic contracture?
Supracondylar fracture of the humerus leading to compromise of blood supply and compartment syndrome
