Qiao Flashcards

0
Q

What does the Meselson Stahl experiment show?

A

When N15 DNA replicated in N14 broth, N15/N14 DNA found in generation 1, and N15/N14 AND N14/N14 DNA in generation 2. Showed semiconservative.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

What does actinomycin D do?

A

Cytotoxic, intercalate with narrow groove of DNA, disrupt DNA RNA synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

T or F. Both in eukaryotes and prokaryotes, DNA replication is bidirectional.

A

True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does DNA pol 1 do?

A

(prokaryotes)
1. after primer removed, replacing it with DNTPs.
2. 3’-5’ exonuclease activity
3. primer removal. 5’-3’ exonuclease activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What do the metal ions in the active site of DNA pol (palm) do?

A

Neutralizes charge, attracts DNTP to right position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does DnaA do?

A

(prokaryotes) Binds to AT rich ori, melts AT (requires ATP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does DnaB do?

A

helicase, binds ssDNA near replication fork, unzips DNA, causing supercoiling. encircles DNA, continuous processivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does SSB protein do?

A

Single strand binding protein, cooperative binding, shifts equilibrium to ssDNA, protects it from nucleases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does DNA primase do?

A

(prokaryotes) adds RNA primer for elongation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does type 1 topoisomerase do?

A

Cuts one strand of double helix, has nuclease and ligase activity. Uses energy of cut phosphodiester bond to ligate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does type II isomerase do?

A

Breaks both strands of duplex, causes other part of DNA strand to pass through break, reseals it. Also involved in daughter chromosome separation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does camptothecin do?

A

Targets Topo 1 DNA complex, cytotoxic in S phase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does DNA pol iii do?

A

alpha: polymerase activity
epsilon: 3’-5’ exonuclease activity
gamma/sigma: clamp loader
beta: sliding clamp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does DNA pol i, ii, iii, iv, and v do?

A

i: RNA primer removal, DNA repair
ii: DNA repair
iii: main DNA replication enzyme
iv: DNA repair
v: DNA repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What does cytosine arabinoside and zidovudine do?

A

Nucleoside analogs, blocks elongation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does pol a, e, s, b and y do for eukaryotes?

A

a: primase
e: lead strand elongation
s: lag strand elongation
b: gap filling in DNA repair, base excision repair
y: replicates mito DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Histones are positively charged due to which amino acids?

A

lys, arg.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What diseases are from CAG repeats?

A

Huntingtons, Kennedy’s, Spinocerebellar ataxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the “end replication problem?”

A

missing nucleotides at the extreme 5’ end of lagging strand.

19
Q

What is the Hayflick limit?

A

normal times a human cell will divide until it stops

20
Q

What is ALT?

A

Alternative lengthening of telomeres, homology to create dsDNA, rolling circle to create it

21
Q

What is a nucleotide transversion? Transition?

A

Transversion: purine to pyrimidine
Transition: purine to purine

22
Q

What is a neutral mutation?

A

A change from one aa to a similar aa.

23
Q

Deaminations of cytosine to ________.

A

Uracil. Changes CG to AT.

24
Which amino acid can't be deaminated?
Thymine.
25
UV damage can cause ________ dimers.
pyrimidine
26
What is the Ames test?
determining if a chemical is a mutagen. Grow his dependent bacteria in his negative broth. add mutagen candidate, see if any growths occur. if they do, candidate is mutagen.
27
What does photolyase do?
(not in humans) uses chromophore to excite itself, destabilizes pyrimidine dimer caused by uv light.
28
What is an example of "direct reversal of damage?"
(non humans)O6 alkylguanine DNA Alkyltransferase (AGT) repair by taking abnormal methyl group of alkylation of guanine away.
29
What is mismatch repair?
Mut protein recognizes mismatch, also recognizes newly synthesized strand vs parent strand (methylated) - endonuclease cleaves mutation with 5' and 3' around it - DNA pol 1 fills gap, ligase
30
Can mismatch repair recognize O6meG-T pair?
Yes. but it can't remove the methylated guanine. it can remove thymine. futile cycle of nucleotide removal and synthesis. leads to cell arrest and apoptosis.
31
What is base excision repair?
Cytosine spontaneously deaminates/nitrous acid deaminates to uracil. GU pair. - glycosylase recognizes uracil, cleaves it out (AP site) - AP endonuclease nicks at 5' - Deoxyribose phosphate lyase removes backbone - DNA pol, ligase.
32
What is nucleotide excision repair?
UV endonuclease recognizes dimer, cleaves strand on 5' and 3' end of pyrimidine dimers. Dimer released, DNApol, ligase
33
Xeroderma pigmentosum: deficient in __________ repair. What other syndromes?
Nucleotide excision repair. Cockayne's syndrome trichothiodystrophy.
34
What are some origins of double strand breaks?
ionizing radiation ROS followed by replication during VDJ recombination during meiosis
35
________ uses normal sister chromatid as template for DNA repair.
DSB repair using Homologous recombination
36
What happens during non homologous end joining?
Ku heterodimer and DNA activated protein kinase recruited. ends ligated or filled in with more shit and ligated.
37
What are the general steps of eukaryotic homologous recombination?
1. 5' 3' resection 2. strand invasion 3. new DNA synthesis on invading strand 4. Strand annealing
38
What enzyme makes the double strand break during homologous recombination?
spo 11
39
T or F. Meiotic recombination can occur with or without crossover.
True.
40
What is site specific recombination?
movement of mobile genetic elements (with transposase) to nonhomologous sites of a chromosome.
41
VDJ recombination in B cell formation is an example of
site specific recombination.
42
What is p53?
Genome guardian, germ line. Key in check point activation. Can block entry into S phase. Can receive many negative signals (hyperproliferation signals, dna damage, telomere shortening, hypoxia) and in response can arrest cell cycle, senescence, apoptosis.
43
What recognizes broken DNA in checkpoint activation? Where in the cell cycle does this checkpoint regulate?
ATM, ATR, slows down replication in S phase, blocks entry into M phase.
44
Name 3 disorders that affect ATM, one that affects BRCA2.
AT, ATLD, NBS. | FA.