QRI MQF Study Questions Flashcards by Carolyn Mickelson

The AP has 2 modes of operation: _____ and _____.

normal, AP degraded

Dash-1: 1-1247

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

AP DEGRADED mode will not engage below Vmma airspeeds with invalid aircraft weights (both MCs inop, etc.).

False

AP DEGRADED mode will not engage below Vmma airspeeds with invalid aircraft weights (both MCs inop, etc.). Dash-1: 1-1275 (W)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

During MC degraded Modes, _____ use(s) the last valid altitude and heading data they received prior to the Degraded Mode. Advise ATC as necessary.

IFF & TCAS

Dash-1: 1-2240 (N)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

There are normally _____ first-aid kits installed on the aircraft with provisions for _____ total.

6, 26

Dash-1: 1-2652

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

There are _____ fire extinguishers onboard the aircraft with _____ in the cockpit and ______ in the crew rest area.

(9) total
- (2) in cockpit,
- (1) in crew rest
- (6) in cargo compartment

Dash-1: 1-2654

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Bank angles greater than _____ degrees are not recommended. The maximum bank angle is _____ degrees.

60 degrees not recommended
70 degrees max

Dash-1: 5-38

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

On Extended Range aircraft with more than _____ pounds total fuel, delay braking until nose gear touchdown unless there is less than _____ pounds of fuel in the four extended range compartments combined.

165,000 pounds total fuel
4,000 pounds

Dash-1: 2-385

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The maximum allowable crosswind component is _____ knots.

30 knots

Dash-1: 5-14

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The maximum allowable component is _____ knots for tailwinds (except for crews certified by command guidance) and _____ knots for headwinds.

10 knots max tailwind
40 knots max headwind

Dash-1: 5-15, 5-16

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Instrument approach RVR/visibility and, if required, ceiling minimums will be as published for a category _____ aircraft. If maneuvering speed exceeds 165 knots, the minimums for category _____ will be used.

Bonus: The C-17 is a category _____ aircraft.

category D, category E

C-17 is a category D aircraft

2C17v3: 6.16.1

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The maximum landing touchdown sink rate (502,100 lbs) is _____ fpm.

660 fpm

Dash-1: Table 5-6

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

If full flight instrumentation is not available and operational, aircraft are limited to a DH/MDA based on _____.

HAT of 300’ and RVR 4,000
OR
3/4 mile (1200m) visibility with no RVR

2C-17v3: 6.16.5

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The APU AUTO SHT DN ORIDE switchlight will override all automatic shutdown protection except _____.

indicated fire and overspeed

Dash-1: Figure 1-45

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The cargo compartment APU warning horns can be inhibited during ground operations by the _____ switch on the Entrance Light Panel.

INTL HORN INHIBIT

Dash-1: 1-212 (N)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

If the APU is inoperative, ensure either a _____ is in place or a _____ connected before shutting down the last engine.

fire guard/fire extinguisher
air cart

Dash-1: 2-498 (N)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The APU starter operating limit is _____ minute(s) and any APU starter engagement is considered a start attempt.
_____ starts may be attempted per one hour rolling cycle with a minimum delay of _____ minutes between attempts.

1 minute
3 starts/cycle
5 minutes between attempts

Dash-1: 5-34

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The visual signals for a BREAKAWAY are _____.

tanker flashing Pilot Director Lights and/or turning lower rotating beacon ON

Dash-1: Table 8-4

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

If the receiver overruns the tanker, the receiver will reduce airspeed to _____, and maintain track and altitude.

255 KCAS or minimum maneuvering airspeed, whichever is higher

Dash-1: 8-55

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

When the receiver pilot is closing and approaching the pre-contact position, _____.

the receiver will stabilize in the pre-contact position and attain a zero rate of closure

Dash-1: 8-125 (W)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Monitor designated A/R frequency at least _____ minutes prior to ARCT.

30 minutes

Dash-1: 8-130 (Step 3)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A controlled tension brute force disconnect will be accomplished _____.

only as a last resort

Dash-1: 3-89

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

(Emergency Boom Latching Procedures): It is possible to cause structural damage to the air refueling boom and slipway by severe relative movement between the 2 aircraft when operating override since the _____ are deactivated.
The _____ must initiate all disconnects before exceeding any of the limits.

limit switches

receiver pilot

Dash-1: 3-92 (C)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

During the RV Delta (Point Parallel) procedure, the receiver(s) will _____.

All the above:
- be established at 1000’ below the assigned AAR altitude when deaprting the ARIP
- enter the track via the ARIP and be at the ARCP at ARCT
- aid the RV, by remaining in electronic contact on radar, A/A TACAN, TCAS or other means as soon as possible, but no later than 50 NM range or ARIP (whichever is first)

3-3: 2.16 (4)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

[Double AAR Planning] Determine a combination that keeps both of the _____ fuel values and the _____ greater than zero. That amount is the minimum onload required.

STORED
UNID EXTRA

3-3: 6.2.2.5.3

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In the event of loss of visual contact with the tanker in either the contact or astern position (or following a breakaway), _____.

All of the above: - immediately disconnect, transition to instruments, make radio call "loss of visual contact", and slow 10 knots - hold tanker heading & descend 1000'; resume normal speed after 30 sec - roll wings level & descend 1000'; turn on tanker's heading; resume normal speed after 30 sec 3-3: 2.46

During a breakaway, the receiver will drop aft of the tanker until _____.

the entire tanker is in sight ATP-3.3.4.2: 2.45

(RNAV) Activating a missed approach procedure prior to using TOGA (DIR-TO) _____, while activating the missed approach procedure using TOGA does not.

deletes intervening waypoints Dash-1: 2-402

The SC/EFC includes a fixed gains mode that is automatically enabled in the event of air data loss. When the SCEFC FIXED GAIN mode is enabled, asymmetric outboard spoiler deflections are locked out and only symmetric spoiler deflections are commanded.

True Dash-1: 1-1133

Pressing the SPD NAV pushbutton engages/disengages Speed Intervention if selected while in _____ with the NAV SEL Switch not in SKE.

MSN VNAV Dash-1: Fig 1-158 (sheet 6)

The value in the AFCS Altitude Window is displayed in both feet and _____ on the MCD's CONVERT FEET/_____ page.

meters FEET / METERS page Dash-1: Fig 1-158 (sheet 8)

Select engine anti-ice on when temperature is _____°C or below (OAT on ground, TAT inflight) and icing conditions exist.

10°C Dash-1: 7-171

If excessive ice formations remain on the aircraft after climbing through an icing layer, level off and increase airspeed to obtain at least _____ or higher.

+10°C TAT Dash-1: 7-208

(Icing Conditions) Use of the autothrottles for takeoff is required unless using them puts the aircraft at a greater risk as determined by the aircraft commander. If an EPR probe icing condition should occur, the autothrottles will ignore the erroneous EPR and maintain the correct power setting via computed throttle lever angle.

True Dash-1: 7-205

(IRCM) The laser is invisible and can injure eyes or skin within _____ feet for a single aft turret or _____ if the 2 forward turrets are installed.

187 feet (1) 200 feet (2) Dash-1: 1-1735 (W)

With no source of electrical power to the aircraft and the battery switch OFF, only the _____ bus is powered since it is connected directly to the batteries.

Battery Direct bus Dash-1: 1-404

The electrical system is normally operated in the _____ mode with generators No. 1 and No. 2 supplying left side power and generators No. 3 and No. 4 supplying the right side power.

split parallel Dash-1: 1-378

The battery switch must be ON to provide battery power to the _____.

AC & DC Emergency buses Dash-1: 1-391 (N)

As a minimum, the batteries are designed to provide emergency power for up to _____ of operation.

one half-hour (30 minutes) Dash-1: 1-404

The aircraft batteries provide power to the _____ which provides power to the AC Emergency Bus.

static inverter Dash-1: 1-374

When the APU alert start feature is used, there will be no _____ until the Battery Bus is powered.

fire detection or protection Dash-1: 1-198 (C)

(OBIGGS II) A total loss of electrical power during high pressure pneumatic air supply operation may lead to a(n) _____. Immediately shut down the pneumatic cart.

OBIGGS filter fire Dash-1: 1-675 (W)

During engine start, ensure engine oil pressure rises greater than _____ psi before turning the ENG SHUT OFF switch to ON.

5 psi Dash-1: 2-826, Step 5

If ENG OIL PRESS X asserts on the WAP during engine start and the pressure is greater than 5 psi, you should _____.

monitor the oil pressure for 10 minutes and shut down the engine if the message does not extinguish Dash-1: 2-826, Step 8 (C)

Once an engine is stabilized at idle following a start, the typical fuel flow range is _____ depending on ambient conditions.

800 - 1200 pph Dash-1: 2-826, Step 8

Low EGT margin engines are more susceptible to ENG EGT X events when OAT is at or above _____ and takeoff thrust is within 0.05 EPR of maximum thrust.

24°C (75°F) Dash-1: 1-93

THRUST LOSS annunciator lights (amber) will illuminate in flight when thrust of a single engine is _____ less than the average EPR of the remaining engines.

0.15 EPR Dash-1: 1-114

In the event of boost pump failure, fuel can be suction fed by the engine-driven fuel pump at _____ thrust rating up to an altitude of _____ feet and at a pitch angle no greater than 21.5°.

MAX thrust 10,000' Dash-1: 1-135

The starter is designed to start the engine with normal starting loads. Excessive loads are applied when the engine-driven hydraulic pumps are on. A _____ may result if the pumps are on during engine start.

hung start Dash-1: 1-143 (N)

(Engine Start Buttons) The button will stay in until engine N2 RPM reaches approximately _____ %.

51% Dash-1: 1-145

If FIREX AGENT DISCHARGE 1 POWER CB on the _____ is open, the _____ will be inoperative.

overhead panel APU Fire Agent DISCH switch Dash-1: 2-37, Step 28 (C)

Engine anti-ice provides icing protection to the engine fan blades.

False Dash -1: 1-813

Do not change the ENGINE IGNITION source during engine start. Switching sources may result in a _____.

tailpipe fire Dash-1: 2-52, Step 2 (C)

To prevent damage to the reverse interlock solenoids, do not move the throttle beyond the reverse idle detent until _____.

either the REV indication is illuminated on the MFDs or until the solenoids are heard to release Dash-1: 2-101, Step 2 (C)

If the starter valve will not close after engine start (light remains illuminated more than 30 seconds after the button pops out), ________ could result in a starter failure.

shutting down the engine before removing the bleed air supply pressure Dash-1: 2-826, Step 7b (C)

Delay the engine starter re-engagement for _____ once N2 RPM indication is lost from the MFD engine display to ensure that engine rotation has come to a stop.

40 seconds Dash-1: 2-830, Step 5 (C)

In addition to an engine fire and disintegration, the Emergency Engine Shutdown procedure will be run for a(n) _____.

All of the above: seizure engine sparking (continuous) engine/ pylon fuel leak (on the ground) Dash-1: 3-208

If an engine reverts to the N2 mode, all engine and throttle responses are normal except _____.

All of the above: reverse thrust is not recommended, autothrottle operation is inhibited, no overspeed protection is provided Dash-1: 3-238

If the N1 RPM indication drops to zero or all engine displays are blank, _____.

this could indicate catastrophic engine failure Dash-1: 3-206 (W)

A Four Engine Flameout is most likely to occur when flying through _____.

All of the above: heavy rain volcanic ash hail & icing Dash-1: 3-245

[Four Engine Flameout] Wings level C-17 average glide ratio is _____.

2.6 NM/1000' (260 KIAS glide) Dash-1: 3-247, Step 8 (N)

[Engine Failure During Takeoff] If the throttles are advanced to MAX, exercise caution to ensure directional controllability. True or false?

True Dash-1: 3-215 (C)

If experiencing severe engine vibration, _____.

immediately shut down the engine using the Emergency Engine Shutdown procedure Dash-1: 3-266

There is a maximum of _____ engine start attempts in 1 hour, followed by a _____ minimum cooling period.

5 start attempts 1 hour cooling period Dash-1: 5-29

Engine rotation will be completely stopped before the starter is re-engaged. Exception: In an emergency, the starter may be engaged when below _____ N2.

20% N2 Dash-1: 5-31 (N)

The maximum time limit at MAX/DRT thrust is _____ minutes when no needed for engine failure on takeoff or engine out go-around for obstacle clearance.

5 minutes at MAX/DRT Dash-1: Table 5-2

Minimum EGT for engine start is ______ ° (ground) and _____° (air).

495° (ground) 655° (air) Dash-1: Table 5-2

The recommended minimum airspeed for in-flight reverse thrust is _____ KCAS or Vmma, whichever is higher.

250 KCAS Dash-1: Table 5-11 (Note 3)

If flight through contaminated air is experienced with the air conditioning pack(s) operating, the conditioned airflow used for the cooling avionics will be _____.

contaminated Dash-1: 1-736 (W)

If the ambient temperatures are above _____, avionics cooling airflow must be supplied from conditioned air augmentation (APU or air conditioner ground unit).

90° F Dash-1: 1-753 (N)

Pitch Reference Trim is available _____.

[B & C] - with the FCS ACTR Panel PITCH TRIM switch in EFCS - with the FCS ACTR Panel PITCH TRIM switch in MECH Dash-1: 1-1078 - 1080 (N)

If the _____ fails, automatic ground spoilers may not deploy during a rejected takeoff or subsequent landing.

GND SPLR/LAPES switch Dash-1: 1-1149 (W)

In frontside configuration, the basic mode for the AFCS pitch axis is the _____ mode.

Vertical Speed / Altitude Hold Dash-1: 1-1336

T or F: The Alpha Speed function provides flight guidance and/or control to limit minimum airspeed to configuration Alpha Speed, which provides safe buffet or stall margin for the existing aircraft configuration (flaps, slats, thrust level, weight & altitude).

True Dash-1: 1-1359

When the FPV drift angle exceeds the limit of the HUD or PFD field of view, pitch information from the flashing FPV is _____ and only the _____ FPV symbol will provide correct vertical path information.

flashing FPV - *unusable* *caged* FPV - correct vertical path information Dash-1: 1-1506 (W)

The Stall Warning System provides stick shaker and aural "STALL" alerts to pilots when flight conditions (airspeed) approach what range?

1.05 - 1.15 Vs Dash-1: 1-1211

_____ will not re-arm spoilers for RTO mode during touch-and-go landings.

Moving all four throttles to the idle reverse detent Dash-1: 1-1166

Ground operations longer than _____ minutes with the OAT above 38° C (100° F) may result in IRCM TX x FAIL and degraded IRCM performance.

25 minutes Dash-1: 2-55, Step 2 (C)

[Block 21 only] If takeoff roll or initial climbout is accompanied by unusual aircraft yaw motion or abnormal rudder movement, the EFCS may have reverted to FORZEN GAINS. _____.

All of the above: - Prior to Vgo, a reject is recommended. - If takeoff is continued, repeatedly press EFCS RESET, allowing 1 sec between button presses. - Transition to FCC FIXED GAIN is not available until 2 criteria are met: weight-off-wheels & A/R Mode not engaged Dash-1: 3-348-349

[FCC FIXED GAIN] Large abrupt rudder inputs at speeds over _____ KCAS can overstress the vertical stabilizer and rudders.

200 KCAS Dash-1: 3-236 (C)

The maximum airspeed for extending the slats is _____ KCAS; for retracting is _____ KCAS.

280 KCAS - extending 270 KCAS - retracting Dash-1: Table 5-11

Recover from a stall by simultaneously accomplish the following:

All of the above: - smoothly apply down stick for adequate nose down pitch rate - advance throttles to MAX and retract speedbrakes - level wings while maintaining nose down attitude Dash-1: 6-17

[Block 21 only] T or F: Operations at airfields with the OAT 43° C or above may result in EFCS reversion to FROZEN GAINS.

True Dash-1: 5-8

[Block 21 only] If you encounter FROZEN GAINS, maintain airspeed within +/- _____ of the airspeed when FROZEN GAINS occurred.

30 KCAS Dash-1: 3-349-351

[Block 21 only] T or F: If stabilized on approach speed and you encounter FROZEN GAINS, land in FROZEN GAINS.

True Dash-1: 3-350

What is the fuel allowance for a typical approach and landing?

3,800 lbs Dash-1-1: 11-44

Ensure and imbalance no greater than _____ lbs exists between wither wing, and between either tank on a given wing, except when fuel requirements dictate.

1,000 lbs Dash-1: 2-43, Step 20c

If an individual fuel tank indicator on the overhead panel is inoperative, the Total Fuel Indicator (totalizer) displays _____.

the correct total fuel Dash-1: Fig 1-55, sheet 2 (N)

When fuel quantities drop below approximately _____ lbs for the inboard tanks or _____ lbs for the outboard tanks, the respective transfer pumps become uncovered and ineffective.

28,000 lbs - inboard XFER pumps 12,000 lbs - outboard XFER pumps Dash-1: Fig 1-56, sheet 4 (N)

Fuel dump above _____ feet may cause engine flameout due to loss of fuel pressure.

20,000' Dash-1: 3-405 (W)

Normally fuel dump is accomplished with the center separation valve closed. Confirm that both lights illuminate or _____.

open the separation valve immediately Dash-1: 3-405, Step 10 (C)

(Block 21C - 23A w/ OBIGGS II) When the aircraft has been electrically powered for greater than _____ continuous hours with either or both OBIGGS switchlights selected OFF, both WCCs will fail. This also occurs when both OBIGGS switchlights are selected ON and either or both OBIGGS remain in STBY.

17 continuous hours Dash-1: 1-345

GPWS Mode 4C (gear down, flaps 1/2 detent or less, and below 500' RA) is inoperative when _____.

TACTICAL mode is selected Dash-1-2: 1-197 (W)

During taxi with speed greater than 20 knots with symmetric thrust (15 knots asymmetric thrust), a 20° nose wheel steering angle applies if gross weight exceeds _____ lbs or with more than _____ lbs of fuel.

490,000 lbs gross weight 165,000 lbs fuel Dash-1: Table 5-5

The maximum taxi speed for paved taxiways is _____ knots; maximum speed for semi-prepared taxiways is _____ knots with gross weight/fuel weight less than or equal to 435,000/82,000 lbs respectively.

40 knots - paved 30 knots - semi-prepared Dash-1: Table 5-5 & 5-14

Minimum runway & taxiway widths for C-17 operations are:

90 feet - runway 50 feet - taxiway 2C-17V3: 5.11.1

Do not taxi an aircraft within _____ feet of obstructions without wing walkers monitoring the clearance between aircraft and obstructions. With wing walkers, avoid taxi obstructions by at least _____ feet.

25 feet - no wing walkers 10 feet - w/ wing walkers 2C-17V3: 5.12.1

From the left seat, an imaginary line drawn from the row of rivets inside the number _____ engine cowling at approximately the _____ o'clock position closely identifies 25-foot wingtip clearance.

1 engine 4 o'clock 3-3: 3.2.3.4.1

(Legacy HUD) While taxiing the aircraft straight ahead, the position of the nosewheel is approximately by _____.

All of the above: - the inboard screw of the HUD - the inboard leg of the pilot - the first inboard dot of the lateral deviation indicator in the HUD 3-3: 3.2.3.2

(RHUD) T or F: The legacy HUD references for nosewheel position remain valid for taxiing the aircraft straight ahead. The RHUD centerline reference is between the center and first lateral deviation dot (cross-cockpit side).

True C-17 RHUD Training & Ground References, Slides 30 & 31

On a dry surface, with symmetric engine thrust and no differential braking, the aircraft can execute a 180° turn in _____ feet.

143 feet 3-3: 3.2.3.7

T or F: Operating engines in idle reverse thrust for extended periods during high OATs may cause 1 or more engine FIREX bottles to discharge uncommanded.

True Dash-1: 2-82, Step 6 (C)

The primary purpose of the transfer pump is to _____ in the event of No. 2 or No. 3 engine loss.

Both A & B - assist in cargo door and ramp closing - assist in landing gear retraction Dash-1: 1-851

The HSC determines the demand pump operation in the following sequence of priority for hydraulic system No. 3:

(1) primary (2) secondary (3) XFER (4) AUX Dash-1: 1-873

Do not attempt to take off with any hydraulic reservoir temperature indicating less than _____° C. Low rudder temperature indicates insufficient rate of rudder deflection to correct for an engine failure on takeoff.

7° C Dash-1: 2-57, Step 14 (W)

Primary flight controls are powered by how many hydraulic systems?

2 Dash-1: 3-339, step 3 (N)

T or F: To prevent cavitation and extend the service life of hydraulic pumps in systems 1 & 4, leave the respective system PRI/SEC/AUX pumps on until LOW illuminates in both PRI-SEC pump switchlights.

True Dash-1: 2-74, Step 18 (N)

If steering commands from the tillers and rudder pedals are in disagreement, _____.

the rudder command will be overridden Dash-1: 1-912

Which hydraulic system powers the normal brakes?

No. 2 Dash-1: 1-917

If ground speed on the MFD ND appears excessive, _____.

all 4 IRUs should be realigned if on the ground Dash-1: 1-926

If a large disparity occurs between the IRU ground speed and anti-skid brake controller sensed ground speed, braking capability will be reduced. If in flight, accomplish the landing using _____.

Landing with Erroneous Ground Speed procedure Dash-1: 1-926

What is the maximum airspeed allowable for extending the landing gear?

250 KCAS Dash-1: Table 5-11

(Tire cord limits) The maximum wear limit (MWL) is defined as the exposure of the _____ cord layer plus _____ additional landings.

third cord layer 2 additional landings Dash-1: 5-69

T or F: After an MC Degraded Mode, the MC may generate extreme navigation errors, as indicated by PPOS-related depictions shifting on the MFD. Wait 10 seconds for the MCs to self recover, then perform a FLUSH ALL.

True Dash-1-2: 1-1174 (C)

(Before Taxi Checklist) If MC1/MC2 are not in proper BC/BU configuration, _____ may occur.

permanent degraded mode Dash-1: 2-55, Step 6 (C)

A personnel restraint harness or parachute is required to be worn _____.

when inspecting aircraft doors after an in-flight door/hatch warning Dash-1: 3-540, Step 24

What is the aircraft configuration for an emergency descent?

Throttles - IDLE or IDLE REV Speedbrakes - Deployed (As Req'd) Airspeed - As Required Dash-1: 3-541

If involved in a mishap or incident, pull the CVR power circuit breaker _____.

after landing and terminating the emergency 11-202V3 AMC SUP: 22.4.5

The TO 1C-17A-1 provides _____ operating instructions under _____ circumstances, but it is not a substitute for _____. Multiple emergencies, adverse weather, terrain, etc. may require modification of the procedures.

the best possible most sound judgement Dash-1: Page iii

The C-17A is a category _____ for turbulence. Air Force turbulence forecasts in TAFs and hazard charts are specified for category _____ aircraft.

III II 11-202V3/Army TC 3-04.14-2, 2.4.2.1.2 & Table 2.2

Wind component data displayed on the Map and Compass Formats of the MFDs display mission computer-filtered solutions of air data over the past _____ seconds.

60 sec Dash-1: Fig 1-183, Sheet 9 (N)

When turbulence is encountered or expected, _____ ignition will be used.

A & B Dash-1: 2-63, Step 6

During a rejected takeoff, _____.

move all 4 throttles to idle reverse, then only symmetrical throttles beyond idle reverse Dash-1: 3-572

Which of the following results in an individual being declared NMR?

Any of the above - failure to maintain flying currency - failure to complete semi-annual flying continuation training requirements - failure to complete ground continuation training requirements 2C-17V1 (4.10)

Crew Duty Time (CDT) _____.

All of the above - is the period of time and aircrew may perform combined ground/flight duties - begins when an individual reports for their 1st duty period (mil or civ) - includes both military and civilian work 11-202V3_AMC SUP (3.2.5)

The maximum crew duty time (CDT) for a basic crew (including Basic + 1) is _____ hours; it is _____ hours for an augmented crew.

18 hours 24 + 45 hours 11-2C-17V3 (2.5.3)

Flight Duty Period (FDP) begins _____.

All of the above: - when an aircrew member first reports for official duty - at aircrew show time when self-alerting - for planning purposes, NLT 1 hour after alert 11-202V3_AMC SUP (3.2.1)

The maximum flight duty period (FDP) for a basic crew (including Basic + 1) is _____ hours; it is _____ hours for an augmented crew.

16 hours 24 hours 11-2C-17V3 (2.5.1.1 & 2.5.2)

T or F: Both pilots will VERIFY the intended changes prior to execution to include the correct mode is selected (e.g. ensure LNAV is selected when cleared to a point while on a heading).

TRUE 11-202V3 AMC SUP (29.4.5.2)

(Destination Requirements for Filing Purposes) File 2 alternates when:

the forecast visibility (intermittent or prevailing) is less than published for the available precision approach 11-202V3 AMC SUP (4.16.7)

For RNAV approaches, ensure that the _____ is updating the MC position for civil approaches.

selected GPS source Dash-1: 2-231, Step 5

T or F: MGPS loaded with PPS keys is authorized for sole-source navigation in civil airspace. Refer to MAJCOM guidance.

TRUE Dash-1-2: Table 1-1 (N)

To select the IRU1/MGPS1 blended solution present position (PPOS) with CGPS containment for navigation, use the following configuration:

Pilot ID switch (P) pilot side, CGPS UPDATE selected on LSK 2L of NAV SENSORS - CONTROL page 6/7 Dash-1-2 (1-1157)

The cabin pressurization SEMI mode controls cabin pressure according to _____.

the baro-corrected altitude set in the LDG ALT-FT display window Dash-1 (1-769)

When the CREW OXY LOW message illuminates on the WAP, it indicates that oxygen quantity _____.

O2 < 5 L or supply pressure < 60 ± 5 psi Dash-1 (1-2417)

(Assuming the aircraft has accelerated to 250 KCAS or Vmsr) During a Standard Departure Profile, the PM will engage the desired climb power on the SED _____. During the Alternate Departure Profile, the PM will engage the desired climb power on the SED _____.

when directed by the PF when directed by the PF Dash-1 (2-142 & 2-146)

Pressing SC ZERO whenever the IRUs are in the ON position erases encryption keys, almanac and position information, forcing the _____ to reacquire. It will take much longer than normal on the next power up for the _____ to synchronize.

(M)GPS (M)GPS Dash-1 (2-76, Step 12 C)

For RSC greater than _____ and an RCR less than _____, the actual runway required for takeoff/landing could exceed runway available.

RCR > 0.00 RCR < 12 Dash-1-1 (3-120 (W) & 9-70 (W))

Each successful FCC and SC/EFC preflight BITs (PFBIT) can be considered valid for a period of _____ hours provided FCC, SC/EFC, flight control or hydraulic system integrity have not been compromised during that time period. Reaccomplish the PFBIT if maintenance has been performed on any of these systems.

72 hours Dash-1 (2-879)

In general, address malfunctions in the following order:

(1) Aural CAWS (2) MASTER WARNING (3) MASTER CAUTION (4) EFCS/MISSION STATUS page Dash-1 (3-5)

T or F: Land as soon as possible means a landing should be accomplished at the nearest suitable airfield, whereas land as soon as practical means landing at the nearest suitable airfield may not be necessary.

TRUE Dash-1 (3-15)

The following rule(s) should be followed regarding circuit breakers:

All of the above - do not reset or cycle any fuel pump circuit breaker -never pull & reset CBs as a means to recover lost components unless directed to do so -except where prohibited, open CBs may be reset once in the event that the electrical condition was transient Dash-1 (3-28 W)

Whenever using EFCS RESET, allow _____ seconds after pressing the button for the LRU to be reset and EFCS RESET to extinguish from the WAP, unless directed otherwise in the procedures.

5 seconds Dash-1 (3-35)

The warning bell signals for Crash Landings are: Immediately after takeoff _____ ring(s) Prepare for crash landing _____ ring(s) Brace of impact _____ ring(s).

TO - 1 long Crash - 6 short Impact - 1 long Dash-1 (Table 3-1)

T or F: Prior to completing a critical action, the PM shall point to the affected switch/handle/level and verbally seek confirmation from the PF.

TRUE Dash-1 (3-12)

The GROUND EVACUATION checklists are only located _____.

in the Quick Reaction Guide (QRG) Dash-1 (3-52 & 3-54)

If entering a tactical environment immediately after takeoff, TACTICAL can be selected on the GPWS/TAWS CONTROL page, but the displays will not switch to tactical until the aircraft is _____.

farther than 15 NM from the runway OR above 1500' AGL Dash-1 (Table 1-79)

[Thrust Reverser Status, 3l] When a SPAM runway is selected for EMERGENCY RETURN or LANDING, the MC adds another thrust reverser selection for 4 engine (4ENG). 4 ENG assumes _____.

all 4 engines operating and in maximum reverse thrust Dash-1-2: 1-932

T or F: Aircrews must ensure the rolling friction factor (RFF) permits a takeoff at maximum planned weight prior to landing.

TRUE 3-3 (3.4.1.6.1)

_____ terrain masking is placing terrain behind the aircraft, so it is difficult to distinguish the aircraft from the background. _____ terrain masking is placing the terrain between the aircraft and the threat.

Indirect Direct 3-3 (Figure 4.7)

[Time Control] If there are no waypoints between the top and bottom of descent, expect to be 1 minute early/late per _____ feet of descents/climbs, respectively.

10,000 3-3 (4.5.2.2.3)

[Time Control, High Altitude] Take _____% of TAS to determine how long a 360° turn will take in minutes.

1% 3-3 (4.5.2.3.2.1)

[Time Control, Low Altitude] Turn _____° off course for 1 minute, then turn back to course on a _____° intercept for 1 minute. This allows the crew to intercept the original course and lose 1 minute.

60° off course 60° intercept 3-3 (4.5.2.10.1)

For low-altitude, level slowdown, use _____ of ground speed as a general rule of thumb. Add _____ if above 280 KCAS to allow time to configure.

1% 1 NM 3-3: Table 5.1

What approximate descent gradient can be obtained flying 230 KCAS and configured with Slats and Speed Brakes?

525 ft/NM 3-3: Table 5.5

In a tactical environment, a _____ is an established reference point from which the position of an object can be referenced by bearing (magnetic) and range (NM) from this point.

BULLSEYE 3-3: A4.2 Brevity Codes

Weather minimums for NVG departures for crewmembers who are non-current and/or unqualified is _____. Current and qualified NVG aircrews may fly NVG departures weather down to _____ (OG/CC or equivalent may approve down to _____).

1500-3 600-2 300-1 2C-17v3: 5.13.1

(NVG Operations) Maximum crosswind component for takeoff or landing is _____ knots for runways 90-120 feet wide.

15 knots 2C-17v3: 5.13.2.1 & 5.18.2.1

To back the C-17 when all 4 engines overhang identically prepared or, if unavoidable, unprepared ground surface, _____.

stagger the outboard throttles 1/4 to 3/4 knob width relative to the inboard throttles, with the outboards providing greater reverse thrust (frowny face) Dash-1: Table 2-1

To back the C-17 when any outboard engine overhangs an unprepared or debris covered surface, with inboard engines completely over a prepared debris-free surface.

modulate reverse thrust on the inboard engines while holding the outboard engines at or near idle reverse (smiley face) Dash-1: Table 2-1

T or F: When adequate visual reference to the surrounding terrain is not available, GPWS/TAWS warning requires prompt and decisive action to avoid contact with the ground. Exceptions will be annotated in command guidance.

TRUE Dash-1: 2-67 (W)

The F/D Traffic Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) submode is engaged by pressing the _____ when a TCAS Resolution Advisory (RA) is present and the A/R mode is not engaged.

AP disengage switch on either control stick Dash-1: 1-1447

A target aircraft is within 6 NM and could be potentially hazardous. This is _____.

a Traffic Advisory (TA) Dash-1: 1-1658

The PPI SKE and ND Map formats depict only _____ altitudes for TCAS traffic.

relative Dash-1: Figure 1-210 (Sheet 4)

The Standard Departure Profile uses a select MC data element, _____, and aero performance data, rather than an MC calculated solution, to validate the aircraft flight path meets or exceeds a given climb gradient when flown as published.

MC COF: ACT Dash-1: 2-141

Use the lower of the following two altitudes to determine the planned 3-engine acceleration altitude:

MC ACC ALT MIN IFR Altitude Dash-1: 3-222

T or F: During high ambient air temperatures and reverse idle conditions, primary TOLD and allowable cargo load calculations may be overly restrictive. Use secondary TOLD to compare against primary TOLD to determine if allowable cargo load is overly restrictive.

TRUE Dash-1: 2-10 (N)

T or F: The mission computer TOLD pages will accept OAT entries up to 60° C (140° F) and will display incorrect data without annunciating this condition to the aircrew. Therefore, takeoff at OAT limits above the 1C-17A-1 MAX OAT values is not allowed.

TRUE Dash-1: 5-7

If AGS does not deploy on landing, DLC spoilers are available to manually deploy _____ of AGS effectiveness.

25% Dash-1: 2-388 (N)

Intermediate Thrust Rating (INT) is the _____. This is the recommended rating for engine-out climbs.

highest thrust certified for continuous use Dash-1-1: 2-9

Maximum Continuous Thrust (MCT) rating is the _____.

highest thrust recommended for normal climb operation Dash-1-1: 2-11

Go speed (Vgo) is the lowest of _____, _____, or _____.

Vrot, Vr, Vbmax Dash-1-1: 3-26

T or F: The aircraft static air temperature shall not be used for takeoff calculation since heat radiation picked up by the sensing element can cause considerable error. Using an incorrect temperature may result in an unsafe takeoff.

True Dash-1-1: 3-115 (W)

A lineup distance penalty must be applied anytime the takeoff is not commenced from the beginning of the usable runway. Apply a standard distance of _____ feet to account for turnign the aircraft around on the runway or accessing the runway from a taxiway.

250 feet Dash-1-1: 3-86

If VBO LDG DIST exceeds _____ and LDG DIST is valid, VBO LDG DIST is highlighted and VBO LDG DIST/nnn.nGW (MSG) is generated. If VBO GND ROLL exceeds _____ and VBO GND ROLL is highlighted and VBO GD ROLL/nnn.nGW (MSG) is generated.

RWY AVAIL RWY AVAIL Dash-1-2: 1-970 & 1-971

MC ACC ALT calculations may allow level-off acceleration altitudes well below obstacle/climb gradient altitudes. Compliance with ______ is essential in achieving computed performance capability.

climb out procedures Dash-1: 3-220 (N)

For 3/4 flap precision approaches with glide path angles steeper than 3.2 degrees, increase landing distance by _____ feet and do not exceed _____ feet per minute descent rate.

300 feet 900 feet Dash-1: 2-246 & 2-247

For full-flap precision approaches (non-assault) with glide path angles between 3.8° and the MC-calculated full-flap approach angle, increase landing distance by _____ feet. This can be accomplished in the MC by reducing runway available by _____ feet.

600 feet 600 feet Dash-1: 2-247

The MC uses _____ thrust to compute ACC ALT, including when evaluating 3-engine climb gradients.

the selected takeoff Dash-1: 3-220

When taking off from an airfield with a pressure altitude over _____ feet, review Operations at High Altitude Airports procedures in Section VII.

8,000 Dash-1: 2-55

After an in-flight Degraded Mode, the MC re-enables _____, which will assert during subsequent touch-and-go landings or go-around-after-touchdowns.

takeoff warnings ""FLAPS", "STABILIZERS", etc.) Dash-1: 2-411 (N)

If ALS is flashing when the aircraft reference symbol representing aircraft pitch attitude is within _____° of the Flight Path Vector (FPV), the ALS is erroneously activating.

8° Dash-1: 3-353

T or F: During touch-and-go landings, takeoff warnings are inhibited.

TRUE Dash-1: 2-411 (N)

Flight through extremely heavy rain, particularly with low thrust settings (<45% N1), _____.

may results in flameout of 1 or more engines Dash-1: 7-82 (W)

_____ should be used for flight in known or anticipated turbulent air or icing.

Engine ignition Dash-1: 7-94 (C)

(TO & Approach) During wind shear recovery, unless a sink rate exists, do not exceed _____° of pitch below _____ feet AGL.

15° 200 feet AGL Dash-1: 7-148 (W)

If icing conditions are present, engine anti-ice must be used continuously to help prevent _____.

engine damage due to ice ingestion Dash-1: 7-97, Step 7(C)

Takeoff will not be attempted with over _____ inch of slush or water, over _____ inch(es) of wet snow, or over _____ inches of dry snow on the runway.

1/2 inch 1 inch 3 inches Dash-1: 7-202

Failure to periodically perform the Fan Blade Ice Shedding procedure can result in engine damage. If more than _____ minutes have expired since engine start and icing conditions persist, delay takeoff until the procedure is accomplished.

10 minutes Dash-1: 7-195 (C)

Under no circumstance will flights be planned through ______ icing conditions. Aircraft operation in _____ icing conditions may be tolerated for short periods of time (climb or descent), but evasive action should be taken to exit icing conditions as soon as practicable.

forecast or known severe moderate Dash-1: 7-210 (W)

If icing conditions are expected during the descent, engine anti-ice, wing anti-ice, and windshield anti-ice will be turned on at least _____ feet above the expected icing level in order to provide adequate warmup time.

10,000 Dash-1: 7-226

The Pre-Takeoff Contamination Check is required if holdover time has expired or if freezing precipitation is occurring on an aircraft that was not anti-iced. The contamination check must be completed from OUTSIDE the aircraft within _____ minutes.

5 minutes Dash-1: 7-250

(Fluid Holdover Times) The C-17 is considered a(n) _____ aircraft.

aluminum Dash-1: 7-255 (N)

(Weather Minimums for Takeoff) What minimum visibility is required to depart on an operational mission in the absence of RVR readout?

B or C 1/2 statute mile OR 800 meters 11-202v3 AMC SUP: Table 5.7

In order to minimize exposure to thunderstorm hazards when approaching or departing an airport in an area where thunderstorms are occurring or are forecast aircrews should:

all of the above: - attempt to maintain VMC - maintain at least 5 NM separation from heavy rain showers - avoid areas of high lightning potential (i.e. clouds within ±5,000' of freezing level or ±8°C of freezing level) 11-202v3 AMC SUP: 5.3.1

If the pilot encounters a windshear, the recovery procedures must employed _____.

immediately Dash-1: 7-144

(Wx Radar) What mode would be selected on the Radar Control Panel to see rainfall inside/behind areas of turbulence?

WX MAN Dash-1: 1-2221 (C)

(Wx Radar) For an aircraft cruising at or above 29,000 feet, existing weather will be depicted as non-relevant (striped) when _____.

A & B - actual weather is not within ±4,000' relative to aircraft's actual/projected altitude - actual weather below 25,000' Dash-1: 1-2214

(Wx Radar) The magenta areas represent areas of _____ turbulence and should always be avoided.

moderate to severe Dash-1: 7-7

(ERO) Do not onload or offload through the crew entrance door and cargo ramp/door at the same time unless both doors are directly supervised by a(n) _____.

C-17A qualified pilot/loadmaster 11-2C-17v3: 14.4.2

T or F: Concurrent Servicing operations are not required unless refueling/defueling with JP-4, loading/downloading flares, or servicing LOX.

TRUE 11-2C-17v3: 9.3.4

T or F: Maintenance personnel or crew member should be used to act as "ground" during engine starts. The engines may be started without someone outside the aircraft. If this option is used, ensure all crew members are thoroughly briefed.

TRUE 11-2C-17v3: 4.27

T or F: Maintain a minimum 9-foot radius from operating engines. Engines at any power setting are capable of developing enough inlet duct suction to cause fatal injuries to a person too close to the inlet.

TRUE Dash-1: 2-425, Step 1 (W)

At _____ thrust, the engine blast is 68 MPH at 95 feet.

FWD IDLE Dash-1: Fig 2-23 (Sheet 1)

T or F: The Before Takeoff Checklist will be accomplished before all takeoffs, unless executing the Full Stop Taxi-Back checklist.

TRUE Dash-1: 2-57

The After Landing Checklist will be run after every landing, unless the _____ checklist will be accomplished.

Full Stop Taxi-Back Dash-1: 2-71

[Airdrop] T or F: Loading the GPS keys improves SKE performance.

TRUE Dash-1: 2-702 (N)

[Airdrop] T or F: On an airdrop with multiple CDS containers, failure to replace the default XXXX value with a manually entered FWD STN value will result in a calculated USABLE DZ time based on a single CDS container.

TRUE Dash-1-2: 1-1760 (W)

[Airdrop] Maximum troop door opening airspeed is _____.

250 KCAS / Mach 0.62 Dash-1: Table 5-11

[Airdrop] If excessive crosstrack (greater than _____) is predicted at 15 seconds prior to the CARP/HARP, the CAWS annunciates "AUTO DROP", and the AUTO DROP annunciator on the instrument panel illuminates.

300 yards Dash-1-4: 1-11

[Airdrop] Formation takeoff minimums are no lower than a _____ foot ceiling and _____ mile(s) visibility. Formation landing minimums are _____.

- 200 foot ceiling - 1/2 mile visibility - published minimums for the airport, no lower than a 200 foot ceiling and 1/2 mile visibility 11-2C-17v3: 15.3.1

[Airdrop] Lead announces unplanned airspeed changes greater than _____ knots.

10 knots 11-2C-17v3: 15.9.4.3

[Airdrop] During formation recoveries, Lead will _____

All of the above: - enter a minimum of 1,000 feet above procedure turn or CGA pickup altitude - not enter from the quadrant requiring a turn to the non-maneuvering side - not fly 45/180 ground tracks 11-2C17v3: 15.10.8.1.1 & 15.10.8.1.2

[Airdrop] Offset PIs are computed from the surveyed center PI. When used, a _____ yard left/right offset will be used for 3-ship operations and a _____ yard left/right offset will be used for 2-ship operations.

250 yards - 3-ship 125 yards - 2-ship 13-217: 3.3.12

[Airdrop] For JM-directed airdrops, the PF must establish altitude & A/S early (normally, _____ minutes prior to green light). At approximately _____ minutes until scheduled drop time, the LM permits the JM to begin spotting procedures. At the _____ minute warning on the PFD, the PM turns on the green light to indicate clearance for the JM to determine exact exit point.

2 minutes 2 minutes 1 minute 3-3: 7.9.3.3

[Airdrop] (Formation En Route Altitude Changes) For climbs & descents > 2,000 feet, use _____ FPM (or previous rate if lower). For 2,000 feet or less, use _____ FPM (or previous rate if lower).

2000 FPM 1,000 FPM 3-3: Table 8.4

[Airdrop] The minimum formation takeoff interval is _____ seconds.

30 seconds 3-3: Table 8.4

[Airdrop] For visual in-trail formation slowdowns, the desired spacing is _____ feet between element leads (______ feet between all aircraft).

6,000 feet 2,000 feet 3-3: Fig 8.31

[Airdrop] (VIS formation airdrop) For drift angles of ____°, wingmen adjust their lateral formation position to maintain the same relative ground track as the element lead over the DZ, avoiding wake turbulence from preceding aircraft.

4 or greater 3-3: 8.11.5.1.1

[Airdrop] (PERS Formation AD Escape) T or F: If required to move back to en route crosstrack, delay postdrop maneuvering to en route visual or SKE FFS XTRK position until end of usable DZ (MC Red Light) & "LOAD CLEAR".

TRUE 3-3: 8.11.7.2

[Airdrop] The Quick Drop Checklist may be used for:

a subsequent CDS airdrop when the cargo door and ramp remain open between passes (or consecutive PERS) Dash-1-4: 2-146

[Airdrop] During the airdrop Slowdown Checklist, the SED thrust rating is selected to MAX when _____.

Both B & C - selecting 3/4 or FULL flaps - dropping heavy equipment platforms Dash-1-4: 2-167, Step 2

[Airdrop] _____, especially with less than _____ feet spacing between aircraft, will increase the likelihood of nuisance SKE GPS DENIED messages.

Unkeyed MGPS operation 3,000 Dash-1: 1-2134 (N)

[Local] Static displays, flyovers, aerial reviews & single event capabilities (CAPEXs) will be planned, approved & coordinated IAW AFI 11-246V6 & AFI 11-209 AMC SUP. See _____ for more information.

62 OGV Sharepoint 62 OGV Sharepoint

[Local] The trends program is designed to identify areas of concern within the 62 OG training & evaluation programs & monitor those areas for possible process/program improvements. The primary source of trend information is aircrew evaluation, but also includes:

All of the above: - supervisor observations - Training Review Panel (TRP) & Stan/Eval Board (SEB) recommendations - Supplemental Evaluations, aircrew testing, instructor comments - Aircrew Training System (ATS) comments, and any special emphasis areas identified by HQ AMC 11-202v2 62 AW Sup: 3.2.2.5.1

[Local] Checkride pre-requisite tests will be completed _____.

before evaluations are administered 11-202v2 62 AW Sup: 5.5.5

[Local] T or F: C-17 aircrews may utilize enroute C/PDLC in the NAS.

FALSE FCIF 21-007

[Local] T or F: Double hearing protection is required within 20 feet if an operating APU (i.e. during pre-flight walk-around).

TRUE

[Local] T or F: Unless otherwise directed, aircraft operating within the National Airspace (NAS) will not broadcast ADS-B out.

TRUE FCIF 20-004

[Local] Instrument procedure plates from the NGA's Electronic Instrument Procedure Library (E-IPL) may be used as long as they are not marked "NOT FOR OPERATIONAL USE".

FALSE. The NGA removed the "NOT FOR OPERATIONAL USE" watermark prematurely and the E-IPL is not approved for operational use until further notice. 11-202v3: 10.12, FCIF 20-077

[Local] When picking up weapons from the McChord Armory, _____.

All of the above - a minimum of 2 crew members will be present - each crew member will have a valid AF Form 523 (USAF Authorization to Bear Firearms) - the crew will present 2 copies of their FA FCIF 20-034

[Local] Directly transferring weapons to another crew without personally returning them to the McChord armory is _____.

allowed is a signed hand receipt is created and returned to the Armory within 2 business days of returning from the mission. FCIF 20-034

[Local] When transporting aircrew weapons on commercial aircraft, aircrew will _____.

All of the above: - ask the commercial airline for specific procedures & transport weapons in a GOV - unload & clear firearms & place the weapons & ammunition inside the carrying case, then lock the case inside the CTK - declare all firearms & ammunition to the airline during check-in - immediately notify the FBI, ATF, airline & owning armory if lost or stolen in transit FCIF 20-034

[Local] T or F: In addition to other guidance, crews transporting Human Remains should consult local guidance located in FCIF 20-034.

TRUE FCIF 20-034

[Local] Any requested deviations for local flight block-in times more than _____ minutes from the scheduled time shall be coordinated through Command Post at least _____ minutes prior to the revised block-in time.

15 minutes 30 minutes FCIF 16-033

[Local] What is the minimum number unmodified or modified2 MA-1 oxygen bottles and where must they be placed on the aircraft?

2 - 1 at the forward LM station - 1 at the crew rest area FCIF 09-06-14

[Local] According to the McChord IFG BASH Guidance Table, what restrictions are in place when the AHAS bird conditions is NEXRAD severe for a low-level?

ACs will obtain their OG/CC approval prior to flight on affected route segment. Additionally, crews will fly no faster than 250 knots & no lower than 1,000' AGL (day) or 3,000' AGL (night) on affected route segments FCIF 09-06-14

[Local] According to the AFMAN 11-202V3 AMC SUP, following a bird strike _____.

All of the above: - on a local training sortie, land as soon as conditions permit, or as practical, to have the aircraft inspected by qualified mx personnel - submit AF Form 853 and AMC form 97 to Command Post/AMCC/Safety - Collect remains & submit to nearest Wing SE or MOC AFMAN 11-202V3 AMC SUP

[Local] T or F: It is acceptable to block in or out at McChord Field without a marshaller if there are no obstacles within 25 feet.

FALSE C-17 IFG (11-1/1A), p30

[Local] JBLM _____ have a designated fuel dumping area. If fuel dumping is required, Seattle Approach/Center will be directive as to the location. If time & situation permits, request fuel jettison above _____ & beyond _____ from the coast over the Pacific Ocean.

does not 5,000' AGL 12 NM C-17 IFG, p 23

[Local] When intending to use the 500' covert AMP-3 zone at night at KTCM, pilots will request "_____".

"Runway 16/34 500' NVG" 62 AWI 13-202, Fig A7.1 & 8.1; IFG p 25

[Local] According to the LOA with Seattle ARTCC, which of the following is true with regard to IR low-levels scheduled by 62 AW?

All of the above LOA, AP1B, IFG p 50

[Local] Brevity: What is a "ROTATOR"?

Moving target indicator returns that signifies a high probability of a rotating antenna 3-2.5, Table 2; IFG p.99

[Local] What is the max speed at KTCM in the VFR pattern (i.e. below class B airspace) unless required to maintain the minimum operating airspeed specified in the aircraft T.O.?

200 KCAS AFMAN 11-202V3: 12.4.4

[Local] What is the VFR pattern altitude at McChord Field?

1800' MSL IFG p.21; 62 AWI 13-202: 3.5

[Local] Choose the most correct statement with regard to circling at McChord Field.

When circling to Rwy 34 from Rwy 16, keep ground track EAST of I-5 and do not initiate circle until SOUTH of Hwy 512 62 AWI 13-202: 3.14.3; IFG p.23

[Local] During VFR conditions at KTCM do not exceed ____ feet MSL prior to ______ on go-arounds.

1800' MSL departure end of runway (DER)

[Local] Do not turn crosswind/closed until reaching ______ feet MSL. Additionally, when departing Rwy 16, do not turn crosswind until _____. Do not turn base for RWY 34 until _____.

1300 south of Spanaway Lake south of Spanaway Lake 62 AWI13-202: 3.5, IFG (p.23)

[Local] T or F: Pilots should avoid overflight of Brown's Point & Downtown Tacoma.

TRUE 62 AWI 13-202: 3.16.2; IFG p.23

[Local] T or F: During non-precision approaches to RWY 16 at KTCM, do not descent to MDA so early that prolonged use of high power settings at low altitudes are used.

TRUE 62 AWI 13-202: 3.16.3

[Local] T or F: Avoid overflying Pacific Lutheran University, and avoid Eatonville and Swanson Field by at least 3,000' and 3 NM

TRUE 62 AWI 13-202: 3.16; IFG p.23

[Local] Where are 180 degree turns authorized at McChord Field?

All of the above: - South hammerhead - North hammerhead - South 1,000' concrete portion of the runway 62 AWI 13-202: 3.16; IFG p.23

[Local] Why must the crew talk to ground control prior to commencing each combat offload at McChord Field on taxiways Bravo East or Charlie East?

approval authorizes aircraft to cross the IFR and VFR hold lines 62 AWI 13-202: 5.2; IFG p.27

[Local] What is the maximum number of C-17 aircraft authorized in the KMWH traffic pattern during daily tower operations?

3 total IFG p.33

[Local] The max descent rate at KMWH for non-precision approaches to runway 32R is _____ FPM, until _____.

500 fpm inside 4.5 DME IFG: p.35

[Local] The VFR traffic pattern altitude at KMWH for runways 14L/32R is _____ feet MSL. The VFR pattern for runway 09/27 is _____ feet MSL.

14L/32R - 3000' MSL 09/27 - 3500' MSL LOA, 62 AWI 13-202: Attach 3; IFG p.34

[Local] T or F: Touch-and-Go landings may be performed on runway 04/22 at KMWH.

FALSE IFG: p.35; 11-2C-17v3: 7.2.2.2

[Local] When executing the LOC 32R approach circle to land runway 27 at MWH, what circling instructions should you expect?

circle EAST for a LEFT base runway 27 IFG: p.35

[Local] Crews accepting a "remain east of runway 14L/32R" clearance at KMWH will _____.

execute a missed approach no lower than 300' AGL IFG p.38

[Local] Enter the pattern for Coulee LZ, runway 27 or 9, via _____, defined as MWH _____.

ROCKKY MWH 088/008 IFG, p.38

[Local] The _____ foot overrun at the departure end of KMWH runway _____ may be added to TOLD runway available for operations.

320' Rwy 27 IFG, p.38

[Local] T or F: Crews can perform GOAT or full-stop assault training while another C-17, including formation aircraft, is on any portion of Taxiway F at KMWH.

FALSE LOA: 5.a.5; IFG (p.38)

[Local] What is the maximum altitude for high altitude tactical arrivals into MWH?

FL230 LOA: 5.a.2, IFG (p.36)

[Local] How many aircraft may operate in the pattern at KMWH during extended ops hours?

2 single aircraft or 1 single aircraft + 1 formation flight IFG: p.35

[Local] T or F: Primary time logged on an AFTO 781 is defined as time actively controlling the aircraft, excluding hands-on flown while instructing and evaluating.

TRUE DAFMAN 11-401: 11.3.1.2, McChord C-17A Aircraft Forms Guide: 1.5.1.1

[Local] T or F: Instructors will log primary, secondary, or other time, depending on their activity, when not performing instructor duties.

TRUE DAFMAN 11-401: 11.3.3.1, McChord C-17A Aircraft Forms Guide: 1.5.3.1

[Local] T or F: Crewmembers will log other time during periods of crew rest or sleep.

TRUE DAFMAN 11-401: 11.3.5.1, McChord C-17A Aircraft Forms Guide: 1.5.5.3

[Local] Aircrews will annotate all fuel receipts received away from Home Station on the _____ and ensure all Fuel receipts are attached or put into the Form.

AF Form 664 AFI 11-253: 4.1; McChord C-17A Aircraft Forms Guide: 2.2.3

[Local] Requested changes to the MOP (e.g. departure times, sortie duration, squadron assignment, profile change, config changes, type/# of pallets) must be sent to the 62 OSS/OSO NLT:

1100L 1 duty day prior to execution Wing Ops Plan: 1.4.1

[Local] All agencies requiring use of a scheduled ground trainer will submit a request to _____ as soon as the requirement is known. Use of the aircraft is on a first come, first served basis.

62 MXG/MXOT Wing Ops Plan: 1.4.2

[Local] Aircrews will block-in _____ minutes of scheduled block-in time unless previously coordinated with 62 AW/CP.

± 15 minutes Wing Ops Plan: 1.4.6

[Local] What is true regarding aircraft turn times at JBLM?

All of the above: - acft will be scheduled from 2-6 hours for acft turning to all locals and OSTs - upon the last local of the day for each acft, it should not turn again for a min of 8 hours from landing - mission return acft should not turn for a min of 12 hours - mx will not reconfigure acft between sorties without a min of 4 hours turn time Wing Ops Plan: 1.4.8

[Local] The Air Movement Table (AMT) must be populated with such information as the time and location for transition work, ground ops, low-levels & DZs prior to when on the duty day prior to scheduled sortie:

1100L Wing Ops Plan: 1.5.1

[Airdrop] Due to manning consideration, primary days of the week for airdrop will generally be:

Tuesday & Thursday Wing Ops Plan: 1.4.10

[Airdrop] The TAC7 escape requires a ______ due to _____.

higher than normal climb rate a minimum crossing altitude altitude at ELN IFG: p.68

[Airdrop] T or F: If an airdrop malfunction or incident is suspected, McChord airdrop crews should consult the C-17A Airdrop Malfunction/Incident Guide on page 61 in the IFG.

TRUE IFG: p.61

[Airdrop] Following an airdrop malfunction or incident, crews will notify the following as soon as possible:

All of the above: - DZ and airspace control - local command post - McChord command post IFG: p.61

QRI MQF Study Questions Flashcards

(277 cards)