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Qs Flashcards

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1
Q

Where is Broca’s area?

A

inferior frontal gyrus

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2
Q

Where is Wernicke’s area?

A

superior temporal gyrus

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3
Q

SMA blood supply

A

Jejunum and ileum and parts of colon

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4
Q

Chronic non-healing ulcers affect which layer of the skin?

A

Reticular dermis

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5
Q

Spinal accessory nerve innervation

A

CN XI
Innervates trapezius and sternocleidomastoid

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6
Q

Long thoracic nerve innervation

A

serratus anterior

injury -> scapular winging

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7
Q

Innervation of deltoid

A

Axillary nerve

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8
Q

What does the coefficient tell us in correlation analysis

A

on average, how much y increases with each additional x

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9
Q

What factors influence precision

A

Sample size and standard deviation

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10
Q

What is an ogive

A

A continuous cumulative frequency curve where the central point has 50% of values above and 50% of values below it

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11
Q

Positive and negatively skewed data

A

Positive skew:
mean > med > mode

Negative skew:
mode > med > mean

Present median and range in skewed data

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12
Q

Absolute risk reduction =

A
  1. relative risk reduction x placebo event rate
  2. 1/NNT
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13
Q

What is the power of a study

A

the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false

synonymous with sensitivity

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14
Q

Relative risk =

A

incidence in exposed/incidence in non-exposed

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15
Q

95% confidence interval =

A

mean +/- 2standard errors

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16
Q

Standard error =

A

SD/ sq.root of n

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16
Q

Type 2 error

A

False negative ie. incorrectly accepting null hypothesis

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17
Q

SD =

A

sq root of variance

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18
Q

Type 1 error

A

False positive ie. incorrectly rejecting null hypothesis

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19
Q

drugs causing hirsutism

A

ciclosporin
anabolic steroids
danazol
minoxidil
metoclopramide
methyldopa
phenothiazines
progesterones

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20
Q

What drugs to hold prior to contrast procedures

A

metformin
ACEi

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21
Q

Renal TB

A

sterile pyuria
haematuria
dysuria
renal tract calcification

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22
Q

Blood test most likely to be elevated in nephrotic syndrome

A

cholesterol

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23
Q

High anion gap acidosis

A

Cyanide
Aminoglycosides
Toluene
Methanol
Uraemia
DKA
Paracetamol
Isoniazid
Lactate
Ethanol
Salicylates

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24
Causes of T1 RTA
PBC SLE/sjogrens Amphotericin B Hypokalaemia Urine pH > 5.5 Met acidosis Hyperchloraemia
25
Causes of T2 RTA
Multiple myeloma Acetazolamide Primary hyperparathyroidism Fanconi syndrome Wilsons disease
26
Causes of type 4 RTA
DM Addison's Sickle cell hyporeninaemic hypoaldosteronaemic
27
Incidence of contrast induced nephropathy
General pop - 2-7% In pt. with impaired renal function - 25%
28
Positive urinary cyanide nitroprusside
cystinuria -> hexagon shaped crystals on urinalysis
29
Wilms tumour
aniridia, genitourinary problems, intellectual disability Assoc. with Ch 11 short arm deletion
30
Renal microscopy - fused podocyte foot processes
minimal change disease
31
Sickle cell nephropathy
reduced urine osmolality - medullary damage due to sickling
32
Absolute contraindication to lithotripsy
pregnancy uncorrected coagulation disorder uncorrected obstruction distal to stone acute urosepsis
33
Dialysis disequilibrium syndrome
Neuro symptoms typically in patients undergoing first dialysis session Symptoms: headache, nausea, blurred vision can progress to confusion, seizure, coma and death
34
Why is long term dialysis assoc. w/ carpal tunnel syndrome
b2 microglobulin deposition
35
Risk factors for contrast induced nephropathy
Age > 75 DM Uncontrolled HTN Renal impairment (100% of patients with Cr > 400 and DM get CIN) Prior dehydration NSAIDs
36
Gingival hypertrophy secondary to which renal transplant med
Ciclosporin
37
Pollakiuria
Increased daytime urinary frequency assoc. w/ risperidone
38
Acute interstitial nephritis causes
Pencillins NSAIDs Sulfa containing drugs eg co-trimoxazole
39
Positive Rinne's test
air conduction > bone normal/SNHL
40
Positive Webers test
lateralises to one side either ipsilateral conductive hearing loss or contralateral SNHL
41
presbycusis
bilateral SNHL
42
otosclerosis
progressive conductive hearing loss
43
TCA overdose
within 1 hr- gastric lavage if cardiac involvement- sodium bicarb if seizure- iv benzo
44
Docetaxel MoA
binds to microtubules reducing tubulin availability and therefore reducing mitotic activity
45
baclofen MoA
GABAb agonist
46
Drugs that undergo high rates of first pass metabolism
Propranolol Verapamil Morphine
47
When to discontinue metformin
in women when Cr > 130 in men when Cr > 150
48
Anti-emetic for motion sickness
Cinnarizine - vestibular system depression and suppresses SM contraction in gut
49
What is prothrombin complex concentrate
inactivated factors II, IX and X + variable amounts of factor VII
50
Carbimazole side effects
alopecia, nausea, agranulocytosis, jaundice, rash, arthralgia, pruritus
51
Entamoeba histolytica treatment
metronidazole
52
Hazardous drugs in desensitisation therapy for allergies
ACEi
53
Bosentan class of drug
Endothelin A and B antagonist Ambrisentan = selective for endothelin A
54
First line for schizophrenia
risperidone
55
Risk factors for ciprofloxacin induced achilles tendonitis
concomitant steroid use age > 60 previous tendon rupture renal impairment organ transplant
56
HLA A3
haemochromatosis
57
58
HLA-B51
Behcet's
59
HLA-B27
Reactive arthritis ankylosing spondylitis
60
HLA-Cw6
Psoriasis
61
HLA-DR2
Goodpasture's syndrome MS
62
HLA-DR4
Rheumatoid arthritis
63
HLA-DR3
Addison's disease
64
HLA-DQ2 and DQ8
Coeliac
65
Factors that shift Hb-O2 dissociation curve to the right (Decreasing oxygen affinity)
Rise in 2,3-DPG Rise in CO2 Fall in bicarb Rise in temp
66
Arthus reaction
type III hypersensitivity reaction following vaccination due to formation of immune complexes as vaccination site
67
Action potential phases
Phase 0 - sodium influx Phase 2 - plateau phase - potassium channels open (K out of cell) AND calcium channels open (Ca into cell) = stable, no change Phase 3 - Calcium channels close tf. more potassium efflux
68
Grade C oesophagitis
Lower oesophageal sphincter pressure < 75% of mucosal circumference involved
69
Where is intrinsic factor produced
parietal cells in fundus of stomach
70
Surfactant
Made of phospholipids by type 2 pneumocytes
71
Where in cell is circular double stranded DNA found?
Mitochondria NB - nucleus contains linear DNA
72
What are Type C drug reactions?
Type C reactions occur in the setting of prolonged drug use, such as analgesic nephropathy or visual-field defects with vigabatrin
73
What characterizes Type B adverse drug reactions?
Type B adverse drug reactions are unpredictable, not related to a predictable pharmacological effect, idiosyncratic, unexpected, usually rare, and may be serious Type B reactions are typically not dose-related.
74
What are Type A adverse drug reactions?
Type A adverse drug reactions occur as an anticipated effect arising from a particular pharmacological property of the drug and are dose-related An example is bradycardia as an adverse effect of B-adrenoceptor blocking drugs.
75
What is the defining feature of Type D adverse drug reactions?
Type D adverse drug reactions emerge late after treatment, such as teratogenic or carcinogenic reactions An example is phocomyelia after administration of thalidomide in pregnancy.
76
What do Type E adverse drug reactions relate to?
Type E adverse drug reactions are related to drug withdrawal phenomena observed after a drug is discontinued Examples include SSRI cessation and agitation, or opioid withdrawal syndrome.
77
Hereditary haemochromatosis genetic mutation
C282Y
78
Symptoms warranting endoscopy in GORD
> 55 + Anaemia Loss of weight Anorexia Rapid onset of progressive symptoms Melaena/haematemesis/dysphagia
79
Diagnosis of PSC
associated with IBD (UC > Crohn's) MRCP or ERCP MRCP preferred because less invasive
80
What is proven to reduce mortality in management of UGI bleed
Antibiotics
81
X Ray finding in psoriatic arthritis
pencil in cup deformity
82
x ray findings in rheumatoid arthritis
bony erosions juxta-articular osteoporosis osteopaenia subluxation
83
Tamoxifen MoA
mixed oestrogen receptor antagonist and partial agonist
84
2ry hyperparathyroidism management
calcium or 1 alpha calcidol supplementation
85
Scanning for phaeo
1. USS 2. CT 3. MIBG (131 metaidobenzylguanidine) scan
86

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