Quality Control/Quality Assurance Flashcards
(201 cards)
1
Q
Vaccination for which of the following shall be made available to all employees who have occupational exposure unless the employee has been previously vaccinated, has tested immune, or has medical contraindictions?
a. EBV
b. HBV
c. HIV
d. TB
A
b. HBV
2
Q
Personal protective equipment includes all of the following except:
a. disposable lab coat
b. face mask
c. powder-free gloves
d. self-sheathing needles
A
d. self-sheathing needles
3
Q
Prior to disposal, contaminated needs should be:
a. bent, broken, and recapped
b. placed in biohazard bags
c. put in rigid puncture proof containers
d. rinsed in a 10% bleach solution
A
c. put in a rigid puncture proof containers
4
Q
Mandatory safety training programs should:
a. be provided at initial assignment to tasks where risk of exposure exists
b. be updated annually
c. include instruction of recognition and control of hazards
A
All of the below:
a. be provided at initial assignment to tasks where risk of exposure exists
b. be updated annually
c. include instruction of recognition and control of hazards
5
Q
The symptoms of an allergic reaction to latex include:
a. itchy eyes
b. nasal congestion
c. skin irritation
A
All of the below:
a. itchy eyes
b. nasal congestion
c. skin irritation
6
Q
Material safety data sheets:
a. are only required for acutely toxic substances
b. are only required for carcinogens, mutagens, and teratogens
c. provide information on exposure to blood-borne pathogens
d. should be kept on file and readily accessible
A
d. should be kept on file and readily accessible
7
Q
Pressurized glass cylinders should be:
a. capped when not in use
b. properly secured
c. stored in well-ventilated areas
A
All of the above:
a. capped when not in use
b. properly secured
c. stored in well-ventilated areas
8
Q
Experiment and work surfaces can be decontaminated with:
a. 5% formalin
b. 10% household bleach solution
c. 3:1 methanol:acetic acid
d. 0.4% potassium chloride
A
b. 10% household bleach solution
9
Q
Name
Describe Random Error
A
due to chance and exists in all measurements.
10
Q
Name
Describe systematic error
A
systematic error influences values consistently in one direction
11
Q
Name
describe active error
A
active error occurs at the interface between a laboratorian and the patient samples
12
Q
Name
describe latent errors
A
latent errors are related to the organization or design of a laboratory.
13
Q
Name
This type of error is due to chance and can exist in all measurements.
A
random error
14
Q
Name
This type of error influences values consistently in one direction.
A
systemic error
15
Q
Name
This type of error occurs at the interface between a laboratorian and the patient sample.
A
active error
16
Q
Name
This type of error is related to the organization or design of a laboratory.
A
Latent Error
17
Q
Name
Name six sources of variation (factors that affect the measurement of an analyte):
A
- sample error
- random analytical error
- method or instrument bias (analytical systemic error)
- operator error
- sample (day-to-day variation within a single patient)
- patient (patient variation - race, sex, age, health status)
18
Q
Name
Using Westgard Rules, when would use a run as a warning and why?
A
1(2S) - accept the run; use as a warning when one control results exceeds 2 SD
19
Q
Name
Name Four Common Types of Error.
A
Random Error exists in all measurements and is due to chance.
Systematic error influences values consistently in one direction.
Active error occurs at the interface between a laboratorian and the patient samples.
Latent errors are related to the organization or design of a laboratory.
20
Q
Name
Prime Costs
A
= direct labor + direct materials
21
Q
Name
conversion costs
A
= direct labor + section overhead
22
Q
Name
full production costs
A
= direct labor + direct materials + section overhead
23
Q
Name
Ready to Serve Costs
A
= section overhead + collection and reporting + general laboratory overhead
24
Q
Name
Fully Loaded Costs
A
= prime costs + ready to serve costs
25
# Name
Describe Direct Costs.
those costs directly assigned to the production of a product, and in the case of a laboratory, the product is a billable test result. Includes consumables and supplies required to perform the test, technical labor related to performing the test and QC related to the test, and apportioned and depreciation equipment costs.
26
# Name
Describe Indirect Costs
those costs not directly involved with the production of a billable test.
27
# Name
Describe some of the items included in indirect costs.
costs to acquire specimens and bill for tests,major component is personnel costs,personnel time of those not performing the tests (ie. supervisor, phlebotomists, secretaries), office supplies,billing costs,courier service
28
# Name
Describe Variable Costs
those costs which change with production volume
29
# Name
Describe Fixed Costs
those costs that do not change with production volume
30
# Name
Describe some of the items included in Fixed Costs
lease on equipment,building costs (rent, utilities),technologists needed for coverage regardless of work level,administrative overhead (client services, sales, marketing),management related supplies
31
# Name
Describe three items included in administrative overhead.
client services, sales, and marketing
32
# Name
Describe Prime Costs.
director labor and direct material costs which are necessary to produce a billable result.
33
# Name
Describe Conversion Costs.
those costs necessary to produce a billable result without considering cost of materials.
34
# Name
What 6 items must be included as part of a laboratory QC program according to federal regulations (CLIA '88)?
1. follow manufacturer's instructions
2. have a procedure manual describing processes for testing
3. perform calibration procedures once every 6 months.
4. perform control procedures using at least 2 levels of controls for each day of testing.
5. document remedial action
6. maintain QC records for 2 years.
35
# Name
What are two of the most common plots that can be used to visually keep tract of changes in test performance over time?
Levey-Jennings and Cusum plots.
36
# Name
What set of rules can be used to assist in making determinations on whether an assay should be discarded and/or re-run?
Westgard Rules
37
# Name
Describe a Levey-Jennings Plot.
plot of control results on the y-axis versus time on the x-axis
38
# Name
What three characteristics are monitored by a Levey-Jennings plot?
1. dispersion (increased frequency of both high and low numbers)
2. trend (progressive drift of reported values from a prior mean)
3. shift (an abrupt change from the established mean)
39
# Name
Describe a trend, which can be monitored using a Levey-Jennings plot.
a trend is a progressive drift of reported values from a prior mean
40
# Name
Describe dispersion in terms of a Levey-Jennings plot.
Dispersion - increased frequency of both high and low numbers
41
# Name
Describe shift in terms of a Levey-Jennings plot.
Shift - an abrupt change from the established mean
42
# Name
Describe a Cusum plot.
The expected (or assigned) value is subtracted from the actual value each da of measurement and this difference is summed together over time. When control data are randomly scattered about their expected mean value, the cusum will wanter above and below zero, yeilding a horizontal line. When a systemic error is present, the cusum value will steadily increase above or below zero.
43
# Name
What plot is useful to distinguish systematic error?
Cusum plot
44
# Name
How can a cusum plot be used to determine systematic error?
When control data are randomly scattered about their expected mean value, the cusum will wander above and below zero. When systematic error is present, the cusum value will steadily increase above or below zero.
45
# Name
Westgard Rules are also referred to as ...
multirule QC
46
# Name
Westgard rules are used to decide:a. if there is systematic errorb. if there is random errorc. if the run is in-control or out-of-controld. if the QC for a run passed
c. if the run is in-control or out-of-control
47
# Name
If only a single criterion or single set of control limits is used for an analytical run, name one QC procedure that can be used.
A single-rule Levey-Jennings char with control limits set as either mean plus or minus 2 standard devisions (2s) or the mean plus or minus 3s.
48
# Name
What QC procedure can be used when there are 2 to 4 control measurements per run?
Westgard Rules
49
# Name
Describe the control rule: 1(3s)
A run is rejected when a single control measurement exceeds the mean plus or minus 3s control limit.
50
# Name
True or False: Under CLIA '88, not all laboratories are required to implement a quality assurance program to monitor and evaluate the overall quality of lab services.
False
51
# Name
Describe a Quality Assessment program.
Used to monitor and evaluate the overall quality of laboratory services.
52
# Name
What are the three main purposes for having a quality assessment program?
1. assess and improve the reliability and efficiency of the laboratory.
2. ensure the highest possible quality of service is provided
3. comply with regulatory requirements.
53
# Name
True or False: A Quality Assessment Program does not have to address pre-analytical phases of laboratory operation.
False; a QA program must include all phases of laboratory operations including pre-analytical, analytical, and post-analytical.
54
# Name
True or False: A laboratory must have written policies and procedures dealing with their quality assurance program.
True
55
# Name
Name the five major goals associated with a quality assessment program.
1. ensure policies and procedures are effective and comply with lab laws and regulations
.2. ensure accurate, reliable, and efficient performance of tests and test reporting.
3. improve overall quality
4. ensure a safe environment for patients and staff.
5. meet the physician's need for rendering a diagnosis and treatment of patients
56
# Name
Define "Critical indicators".
processes or events that reveal how well the laboratory is functioning
57
# Name
Where in CLIA '88 can you find information describing specific areas of the laboratory that must be monitored by critical indicators?
CLIA '88, Subpart M
58
# Name
What 8 categories should always have critical indicators?
1. appropriate utilization of services
2. competency of personnel
3. observed or reported incidents
4. proficiency testing
5. quality control
6. Safety
7. test management and performance
8. user satisfaction
59
# Name
What members of the laboratory should discuss the quality assurance reviews?
lab staff, lab director, and lab management
60
# Name
The scope of a Quality Assurance procedures should address what aspects of the plan?
Who, What, Where, When, Why and How
61
# Name
The HOW question addresses what portion of a Quality Assurance plan?
The method that will be used to collect the data to evaluate the critical indicator threshold or expectations.
62
# Name
Name some examples of methods used to address the critical indicators of a Quality Assurance plan.
chart audits, laboratory test log reviews, corrective, remedial action log reviews, QC record reviews.
63
# Name
Describe what elements are in a Quality Assurance plan.
Elements are the policies and procedures associated with each phase of testing.
64
# Name
What represents the WHAT of a QA plan?
elements (policies and procedures associated with each phase of testing) are used to determine the critical indicators.
65
# Name
What is an element?
the policies and procedures associated with each phase of testing
66
# Name
What factor plays a role in determining the number of elements and critical indicators that will be reviewed as part of a lab's QA program?
The size and type of the laboratory.
67
# Name
Give a few examples of elements in the pre-analytical phase.
1. patient preparation
2. specimen collection
3. specimen labeling and accessioning
4. specimen preservation and storage
5. test requisitions
6. relevance of test requests
7. specimen rejection criteria and actions initiated
8. confirmation of oral requests
9. evaluation and verification of employee competence, knowledge, and skills
10. safety
11. procedure updates and reviews
68
# Name
Name two critical indicators for the pre-analytical phase element Patient Preparation.
1. nonfasting - lipid profile2. written instructions
69
# Name
Name two critical indicators for the pre-analytical phase element Specimen Collection.
1. unlabeled tubes2. hemolyzed specimens
70
# Name
Name two critical indicators for the pre-analytical phase element Specimen Labeling and Accessioning.
1. Mislabeled specimens2. Tracking system for referred specimens
71
# Name
Name two critical indicators for the pre-analytical phase element Specimen Preservation, Transport, and Storage.
1. preservatives for 24-hour urines2. storage instructions for specimens
72
# Name
Name two critical indicators for the pre-analytical phase element Test Requisitions.
1. Completeness of requisition forms2. Supplemental information provided when required (ex. PAP smears)
73
# Name
Name two critical indicators for the pre-analytical phase element Relevance of Test Requests.
1. Request consistent with diagnosis2. Age and gender appropriateness
74
# Name
Name two critical indicators for the pre-analytical phase element Specimen Rejection Criteria and Actions Initiated.
1. Specimen integrity acceptable2. Proper Patient preparation
75
# Name
Name two critical indicators for the pre-analytical phase element Confirmation of Oral Requests.
1. Oral request followed by a written within 30 days2. Written request consistent with oral request
76
# Name
Name two critical indicators for the pre-analytical phase element Evaluation and Verification of Employee competence, Knowledge, and Skills.
1. Competency assessment program that covers all disciplines2. Effective remedial training provided for unsatisfactory competencies
77
# Name
Name two critical indicators for the pre-analytical phase element Safety.
1. Employee training is up-to-date2. Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) are complete and up-to-date
78
# Name
Name two critical indicators of the pre-analytical phase element Procedure Updates and Reviews.
1. Annual review has been performed
2. All necessary revisions have been completed
79
# Name
Name two critical indicators of the analytical phase element Instrument Monitoring.
1. preventative maintenance is consistent with manufacturer's recommendations2. function checks performed according to schedule
80
# Name
Name two critical indicators for the analytical phase element Calibration and Calibration Verification Activities.
1. Calibration and/or calibration verification performed according to manufacturer's recommendation2. Calibration when indicated based on quality control data
81
# Name
Name two critical indicators for the analytical phase element Quality Control Evaluations.
1. Number and level of controls is appropriate for complexity2. Control ranges appropriate for each assay
82
# Name
Name two critical indicators for the analytical phase element Proficiency Testing Results.
1. When available, PT performed on all analytes2. Appropriate corrective action taken for all failed PT analytes
83
# Name
Name two critical indicators for the analytical phase element Comparative Analysis for Multiple Analyte Methodologies/Multiple Locations.
1. Comparisons performed for each method at all sites2. Relevant criteria established for result comparison
84
# Name
Name two critical indicators for the post-analytical phase element Appropriateness and Acceptability of Test Results.
1. results within reportable range for the test2. reference ranges appropriate for patient population
85
# Name
Name two critical indicators for the post-analytical phase element Completeness of Test Reports.
1. patient name, laboratory name, test result with units, and normal range included2. results reported for all tests ordered
86
# Name
Name two critical indicators for the post-analytical phase element Timely Reporting of All Test Results Including STAT Turnaround Time.
1. Results reported within established turnaround time2. Critical values reported within established timeframe
87
# Name
Name two critical indicators for the post-analytical phase element Accuracy and Reliability of Test Reporting Systems.
1. Investigation of corrected reports2. Reports sent to appropriate physician/department
88
# Name
Name two critical indicators of the post-analytical phase element Appropriate Storage and Retrieval of Records of Test Results.
1. Reports accessible and may be promptly retrieved
2. Records stored for required interval
89
# Name
Name two critical indicators for the post-analytical phase element Problems in Communicating with Physicians or other Health Care Workers.
1. mechanism available for communication of complaints2. effectiveness of corrective action for complaints
90
# Name
Name two critical indicators for the post-analytical phase element Complaint Investigation and Evaluation and Corrective Actions Initiated.
1. Mechanism available for communication of complaints2. Effectiveness of corrective action for complaints
91
# Name
Name two critical indicators for the post-analytical phase element Compliance with Regulatory Requirements.
1. Accreditation requirements met2. Safety requirements met
92
# Name
Name two critical indicators for the post-analytical phase element User Satisfaction Monitors.
1. Effective mechanisms established to monitor physician satisfaction2. Effective mechanisms established to monitor patient satisfaction
93
# Name
Name two critical indicators for the post-analytical phase element Incident Reports.
1. Incident reporting system established2. Follow-up to incidents evaluated for effectiveness
94
# Name
Name three critical indicators for the post-analytical phase element Review of QA Reports with Staff.
1. QA findings are reported to staff periodically2. Operating changes resulting from QA are reported to staff in a timely manner3. Review property/accident reports monthly
95
# Name
Once a critical element has been identified for each element, what are the three threshold or limits that must be identified?
1. the data that needs to be collected2. the time period to be covered3. the limits of acceptability
96
# Name
What is the WHERE portion of a QA plan?
These are all the sites of a laboratory. These sites may include satellite clinics, draw sites, or stat laboratories.
97
# Name
HOW can a laboratory achieve its QA plan?
A checklist that is reviewed monthly or quarterly can be used to cover many of the critical indicators. A log book of complaints that can be reviewed. A planned audit of patient charts can also be used to identify critical indicators.
98
# Name
WHO should perform the Quality Assurance reviews?
The WHO will depend on the size of the laboratory.
99
# Name
What seven items of information should be included in the documentation of QA activities?
1. Date of QA review, complaint or problem2. initials or name of the person conducting the review or investigating a complaint or problem3. scope or method of the review4. analysis of the problem5. written documentation of any corrective action taken6. a description of the effectiveness of the corrective action and date of the follow-up review7. documentation that the QA review has been discussed with the lab staff, director, and manager(s)
100
# Name
How long should a lab retain QA documents?
2 years
101
# Name
What is the purpose of laboratory Compliance Plans?
to assist hospitals, health systems, and their agents in devising internal controls that effectively foster adherence to applicable federal and state laws and regulations to program requirements of federal, state, and private health plans.
102
# Name
What are the seven primary principals and elements of a lab Compliance Plan?
1. Written policies, procedures, and standards of conduct that promote the lab's commitment to compliance.2. A chief compliance officer and compliance committee with overall responsibility for developing, monitoring, updating, and enhancing the program.3. education and training of all employees4. ways that individuals can report suspected compliance violations anonymously5. a system to respond to allegations of illegal or improper activities and take appropriate disciplinary action against employees involved.6. internal monitoring, audits, and other evaluative methods to assess compliance efforts and reduce problems.7. investigation and correction of identified problems, as well as development of policies governing employment or retention of individuals sanctioned for healthcare fraud.
103
# Name
What codes are important for identification of medical necessity?
ICD-9 codes (soon ICD-10)
104
# Name
What is one thing the lab can do to assist with monitoring medical necessity?
the lab can develop a method to monitor test utilization over time to ensure that physicians are ordering only medically necessary tests.
105
# Name
Who is responsible for identification of appropriate ICD-9 codes?
the lab should only use ICD-9 codes obtained from the ordering physician.
106
# Name
What codes are used to designate diagnostic information?
ICD-9 or ICD-10
107
# Name
True or False: Laboratories should use past information or computer programs that automatically insert ICD-9 codes without physician information.
False
108
# Name
True or False: Laboratories should only bill for appropriate automated multi-channel chemistry tests.
True
109
# Name
True or False: Laboratories should only bill for tests that were both ordered and performed.
True
110
# Name
True or False: Laboratories are permitted to perform 'standing orders'.
True, but the lab must monitor their continued validity.
111
# Name
What is the formula to calculate relative centrifugal force?
RCF = 1.118 x 10-5 x r x rpm21.118 x 10-5 = constant (determined from angular velocity)r = radius in cmrpm = revolutions per minute (speed)
112
# Name
What type of instrument is used to determine the accuracy of the speed of a centrifuge?
tachometer
113
# Name
What organization maintains the national standards for temperature?
National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST)
114
# Name
NIST
National Institute of Standards and Technology
115
# Name
Describe the NIST calibrated thermocouple thermometer.
The thermocouple thermometer is a NIST Standard Reference Material (SRM) constructed from gold versus platinum (Au/Pt), calibrated on the International Temperature Scale. It is supplied with integral lead wires and a protective sheath.
116
# Name
What are the two methods that can be used for pipet calibration?
gravimetric and volumetric
117
# Name
How is gravimetric pipet calibration performed?
The weight of water is proportional to the volume dispensed by the pipet. Adjustments are made to the pipet based on the measured weight.
118
# Name
What does gravimetric pipet calibration verify?
It verifies the accuracy of the amount of water that is dispensed by the pipet.
119
# Name
What does volumetric pipet calibraion verify?
It verifies the accuracy of the amount of dye pipetted into a specific volume of water, which is then read by a spectrophotometer.
120
# Name
How is volumetric pipet calibration performed?
A specific amount of dye is pipetting into a known volume of water and read by a spectrophotometer. Adjustments to the pipet are made based on the difference in absorbance readings.
121
# Name
What is the difference between gravimetric and volumetric calibration of pipets?
Gravimetric calibration looks at the weight of the water as proportional to the volume dispensed by the pipet, while volumetric calibration looks at the difference in absorbance readings to make adjustments.
122
# Name
Name some examples of temperature-regulated equipment.
heat blocks, water baths, room temperature, refridgerators, and freezers.
123
# Name
What three systems of measurement are used in the United States?
1. English (inches, feet, and yards)2. Metric (decimal system, all in multiples of 10)3. International System of Units (SI) (based on 7 units; meter, kilogram, second, mole, kelvin, ampere, candela)
124
# Name
In SI units, what is the measurement for length?
International System of Units for length is meter.
125
# Name
In SI units, what is the measurement for mass?
The International System of Units for mass is kilogram.
126
# Name
In SI units, what is the measurement for time?
The International System of Units for time is second.
127
# Name
In SI units, what is the measurement for amount of substance?
The International System of Unit for amount of substance is Mole.
128
# Name
In SI units, what is the measurement for temperature?
The International System of Units for temperature is Kelvin.
129
# Name
In SI units, what is the measurement for electric current?
The International System of Units for electric current is Ampere.
130
# Name
In SI units, what is the measurement for luminous intensity?
The International System of Units of measurement for luminous intensity is candela.
131
# Name
SI System Prefix for Pico
10-12
132
# Name
SI System Prefix for Micro
10-6
133
# Name
SI System Prefix for Nano
10-9
134
# Name
SI System Prefix for Milli
10-3
135
# Name
SI System Prefix for Deci
10-1
136
# Name
SI System Prefix for Deka
101
137
# Name
SI System Prefix for Kilo
103
138
# Name
SI System Prefix for Mega
106
139
# Name
SI System Prefix for Giga
109
140
# Name
What is the mathematical formula for conversion of temperature from fahrenheit to celsius?
C = 5/9 (F-32)
141
# Name
Convert 95 degrees Fahrenheit to Celsium.
C = 5/9 (95-32)=5/9 x 63= 35 C
142
# Name
Convert 65 degrees Fahrenheit to Celsium.
C = 5/9 (65-32)= 5/9 x 33= 18.3 C
143
# Name
What is a Confidence Interval?
A confidence interval is an estimated range of values calculated from the mean and standard deviation. It estimates the statistical probability of values falling above or below the mean value on a normal bell-shaped Gaussian curve. Often expressed as a percentage.
144
# Name
What does a Confidence Interval estimate?
the statistical probability of values falling above or below the mean value on a normal bell-shaped Guassian curve.
145
# Name
Given a mean (X) of 9.8 and a standard deviation (SD) of 0.2, calculate the 95% CI for the control.
= X + 2 SD= 9.8 + 2 (0.2)= 9.8 + 0.4= 9.8 - 0.4 = 9.4=9.8 + 0.4 = 10.2
146
# Name
What is the formula for a 68% Confidence Interval?
X + 1 = 68%
147
# Name
What is the formula for a 95% Confidence Interval?
95% = X + 2 SD
148
# Name
What is the formula for a 99% Confidence Interval?
99% = X + 3 SD
149
# Name
What is the coefficient of variation (CV)?
ratio of the standard deviation to the arithmetic mean
150
# Name
What is the formula for Coefficience of Variation (CV)?
CV = (SD/mean) x 100
151
# Name
What is the calculated coefficient of variation for the following:mean = 200 SD = 5
CV = (SD/mean) x 100= (5/200) x 100= 2.5%
152
# Name
What is standard deviation (SD)?
the root mean square deviation of the values from their mean;orthe square root of the variance
153
# Name
Define a Chain of Custody.
Chain of custody refers to the chronological documentation, and/or paper trail, showing the procurement, custody, control, transfer, analysis, and disposition of the specimen.
154
# Name
What is the purpose of a chain of custody?
a chain of custody form is required for any specimen used as legal evidence in court.
155
# Name
Describe Accreditation.
Accreditation is a voluntary process by which a non-governmental agency grants recognition to an organization that has achieved a set of predetermined standards.
156
# Name
Describe Licensure.
Licensure is a mandatory process by which some states grant permission to an individual or organization to engage in a given occupation.
157
# Name
Computer Network
collection of computers and other hardware interconnected by communication channels that allow sharing of resources and information.
158
# Name
Network
collection of computers and other hardware interconnected by communication channels that allow sharing of resources and information.
159
# Name
LAN
Local Area Network
160
# Name
Local Area Network
computer network that interconnects computers in a limited area such as a health care facility, using network media.
161
# Name
HIS
Hospital information system
162
# Name
Hospital Information System
comprehensive, integrated information system designed to manage the medical, administrative, financial, and legal aspects of a hospital and its service processing.
163
# Name
LIS
Laboratory Information System
164
# Name
Laboratory Information System
series of computer programs that process, store, and manage data from all stages of laboratory process
165
# Name
EMR
Electronic Medical Record
166
# Name
Electronic Medical Record
computerized medical record created in a health care organization
167
# Name
intranet
computer network that uses internet technology to share information, operational systems or computing services within an organization
168
# Name
HTML
HyperText markup Language
169
# Name
HyperText Markup Language
main markup language for displaying web pages and other information that can be displayed in a web browser.
170
# Name
What is the main markup language that can be used to display web pages and other information to be displayed in a web browser?
HyperText Markup Language (HTML)
171
# Name
HTTP
HyperText Transfer Protocol
172
# Name
HyperText Transfer Protocol
HTTP is an application protocol for distributed, collaborative, hypermedia information systems. it is the foundation of the world wide web.
173
# Name
CPOE
Computerized Provider Order Entry (CPOE)
174
# Name
Computerized Provider Order Entry (CPOE)
CPOE is a computerized process for health care providers to electronically enter and order medical procedures and laboratory tests based on a predetermined algorithm.
175
# Name
CPT
Current Procedural Terminology
176
# Name
What is the purpose of Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) codes?
The purpose of CPT is to provide a uniform language accurately describing medical, surgical, and diagnostic services.
177
# Name
Do CPT codes serve as a type of communication nationwide within the health care industry?
yes
178
# Name
Name two reason that a CPT code might have a modifier.
1. a service or procedure has both a technical and professional component2. a service or procedure was performed by more than one physician and/or in more than one location
179
# Name
What does a -26 CPT code modifier stand for?
26 - Professional Component
180
# Name
What does a -59 CPT code modifier stand for?
59 - Distinct Procedural Service
181
# Name
What does a -91 CPT code modifier stand for?
91 - Repeat Clinical Diagnostic Laboratory Test
182
# Name
In the interpretation of a Levey-Jennings plot, what does shift refer to?
6 consecutive points on one side of the mean
183
# Name
In the interpretation of a Levey-Jennings plot, what does trend refer to?
6 consecutive points increasing or decreasing that may cross the mean
184
# Name
What three types of error are included as sources of variation?
1. sample error2. random analytical error3. operatory error
185
# Name
What are the six sources of variation?
1. sample error2. random analytical error3. operatory error4. method or instrument bias5. sample or day-to-day variation within a single patient6. patient (race, sex, age, health status)
186
# Name
What is a laboratory's main method for external quality control?
Proficiency Testing
187
# Name
What does proficiency testing verify?
A laboratory's accuracy
188
# Name
Proficiency testing specimens should be testing by whom in the lab?
routine testing personnel during routine testing
189
# Name
Should proficiency testing samples be tested with patient samples?
yes
190
# Name
Should aliquotes of proficiency samples be saved?
yes, in the case that a re-assay is necessary
191
# Name
Define a reference range.
A reference range is a collection of normal values for a constituent of clinical interest.
192
# Name
OHSA
Occupational Safety and Health Administration
193
# Name
GHS
The Globally Harmonized System of Classification and Labelling of Chemicals
194
# Name
Name two examples of common reflex tests?
1. positive sickle screen reflexes to Hgb electrophoresis2. positive ANA (antinuclear antibodies - allergies) test reflexes an ANA profile3. positive urinalysis results to a urine culture
195
# Name
What is the definition of reflex testing?
The test is performed on a patient sample only after a particular analyte is abnormal or outside of a predetermined range.
196
# Name
CPT
Current Procedural Terminology
197
What organizations are approved to supply PT materials?
AAB, API, and CAP
198
Who does one enroll in PT through?
Health and Human Services (HHS) via CMS
199
If you are found to intentionally send out your PT, what will happen?
The laboratory license will be revoked for one year.
200
What must all laboratories have in place for improvement as part of their QA plan?
documentation of all performance improvement projects, records for 2 years
201
PI
Performance Improvement
