Questionbank | Law 4 Flashcards

(28 cards)

1
Q

It is mandatory to notify air traffic services of revised estimated times on a controlled flight when such times differ form the original times by more than:

A

2 minutes

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2
Q

The identification of each prohibited, restricted and danger area shall be composed by:

A

The nationality letters for location indicators assigned to the state or territory, followed by the letters P, R and D and figures

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3
Q

For a commercial flight, landing distance available must be at least

A

For turbo-jet or turbo-fan aircraft the landing distance required must not be more than 60% of the LDA;

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4
Q

According to Part 135 no person shall dispatch or conduct a take-off in an aircraft unless the m ass of the aircraft on landing at the destination aerodrome will allow a full stop landing:

A

In the case of a large propeller driven aircraft, within 70% of the LDA

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5
Q

What is the status of IATA?

A

It is a trade association of aviation operators and others involved with international aviation

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6
Q

The transition level:

A

shall be the lowest available flight level above the transition altitude that has been established

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7
Q

DETRESFA is where:

A

The fuel on board is considered to be exhausted

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8
Q

Loadsheets are required for every aircraft in:

A

The Air transport category.

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9
Q

The effective period of the medical fitness report for a Private Pilot license with a valid instrument rating who is under the age of 40 years shall be:

A

60 months

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10
Q

In which section of the AIP contains information elements relating to areas and/or routes for which meteorological service is provided?

A

GEN

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11
Q

Noise abatement procedures apply to:

A

Departing aircraft

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12
Q

On landing on an isolated field, the captain of a turbojet engine aircraft must mandatorily have a minimum quantity of fuel and lubricant sufficient for flying during:

A

2 hours with normal cruising consumption

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13
Q

How many passengers with a disability or unaccompanied minors may be carried in a small commercial air transport aeroplane:

A

1

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14
Q

As sole pilot of a flight to be flown wholly or partly IFR, the maximum number of hours flown in the preceding 30 days the is:

A

120

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15
Q

Which of the following correctly defines aerodrome operating minima?

A

Cloud ceiling and RVR for takeoff

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16
Q

The letters “SALS” appear under aerodrome lighting in the AIP. This is the abbreviation for:

A

Short approach light system.

17
Q

Checklist of AIP supplements currently in force shall be issued at intervals of

A

not more than 1 month

18
Q

An aircraft encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in IMC has to land, if possible, within:

A

30 minutes after ETA or the last EAT, whichever is later

19
Q

The practical skill test for a commercial pilots license will include:

A

Sequence 1 to 18 of the flight instruction syllabus (chapter 14a), instrument flying and night flying.

20
Q

Ground Based Augmentation System (GBAS) is used:

A

To improve the accuracy of the satellite signal for GNSS approaches

21
Q

Radar identification of a departing aircraft can be achieved if a radar blip is observed within a certain distance from the end of the runway

22
Q

Which of the following is not considered when establishing Aerodrome Operating Minima?

A

The frequency of meteorological reports.

23
Q

From FL400 westerly headings will be?

24
Q

From FL390 easterly headings will be?

A

FL410, FL450, FL490

25
In the case of operations over an area designated as a mountainous area where no other minimum altitude is prescribed, no person may operate an aircraft under IFR below an altitude of.
2,000 feet above the highest obstacle.
26
The Jep chart indicates at east london the following: FAEL 439 - 63
This means? The elevation is 439ft and the length of the longest runway is 6300ft
27
When may Meteorological visibility not be converted into RVR?
During LVP operations
28
You decide to practise instrument approaches in VMC conditions:
Only do so with the assistance of a safety pilot with a ppl