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health sci 2300 > questions > Flashcards

questions Flashcards

1
Q

what is pronation?

A

palm down

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2
Q

what is supination?

A

palm up

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3
Q

what is circumduction?

A

rotating distal aspect (arm) while the proximal end (attached to the joint) is fixed

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4
Q

what digit does the median plane of the foot travel through?

A

2

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5
Q

what are the 5 bone classifications?

A

long, short, flat, irregular, and sesamoid

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6
Q

describe function of long bones

A

provide strength, structure, and mobility

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7
Q

describe function of short bones

A

provide support and stability

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8
Q

describe describe function of flat bones

A

provide protection and allow for muscle attachment

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9
Q

describe function of irregular bones

A

they serve different functions

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10
Q

describe function of sesamoid bones

A

protects tendons from wear and tear

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11
Q

what are the types of surfaces that form joints?

A

head, facet, condyle

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12
Q

what are the types of depressions and openings?

A

foramen, groove, fissure, notch, fossa, meatus, sinus

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13
Q

what is the importance of the von Hochstetter triangle? where is it?

A

it is safe for injections due to no nerves being present underneath. it is located under the hip on the surface

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14
Q

where is “new” (more) bone generated?

A

at the epiphyseal plate

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15
Q

what is the out layer of bones?

A

periosteum

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16
Q

what is the relationship between osteocyte and osteoblast?

A

some osteoblast will differentiate into osteocyte

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17
Q

what allows for communication between osteocytes?

A

canaliculi which branches off the cell body

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18
Q

what do bone cells start off as?

A

osteoprogenitor cells

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19
Q

what are the bone types?

A

corticol (COMPACT) and trabecular (SPONGY)

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20
Q

describe corticol bone

A

“compact” - exterior of bone covered in periosteum

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21
Q

describe trabecular bone

A

“spongy” - interior of bone, sometimes replaced by medullary cavity

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22
Q

what maintains the bone?

A

osteoblasts and osteoclasts! osteoblasts create bone while osteoclasts degrades it

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23
Q

what causes osteoporosis?

A

degradation of too much bone due to osteoclasts. the bone is now very fragile

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24
Q

what is a haversian canal?

A

blood vessel surrounded by a ring of osteoblasts

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25
Q

what supplies an osteon?

A

by 1 haversian canal

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26
Q

what are the types of fractures?

A

comminuted, compression, epiphyseal, depressed, spiral, green stick

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27
Q

describe a comminuted fracture. who does it generally occur in?

A

3 or more bone fragments. generally occurs in those with brittle bones so basically aged people

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28
Q

describe compression fracture . who/where is it more common in?

A

crushed bone. common in porous bones subjected to extreme trauma

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29
Q

describe epiphyseal fracture. who/where common?

A

epiphysis separates from diaphysis along epiphyseal plate. generally occurs in preadolescence

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30
Q

describe a depressed fracture. who/where is it common?

A

broken bone portion pressed inwards. common skull fracture

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31
Q

describe a spinal fracture. common in?

A

ragged break due to excessive twisting forces. common sports fracture or in toddlers

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32
Q

describe a green stick fracture. common in?

A

incomplete break: one side broken and one side bent. common in children

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33
Q

what is the difference between a simple fracture and a compound fracture?

A

simple only injures the bone while compound pierces the skin

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34
Q

what does aging result in (regarding bones)?

A

loss of bone mass due to demineralization - decrease in calcium. increased brittleness due to decrease in protein synthesis - decease in collagen

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35
Q

what strengthens bones?

A

strain. eg gravity

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36
Q

name the neurocranium bones of the skull

A

sphenoid, frontal, parietal, occipital, temporal

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37
Q

name the viscerocranium bones of the skull

A

ethmoid, inferior nasal concha, lacrimal, zygomatic, vomer, mandible, maxilla, nasal, palatine

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38
Q

what can the sphenoid bone be divided into?

A

the lesser wing (on top) and the greater wing (on bottom)

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39
Q

what are sutures?

A

fibrous immovable joints in the skill between the neurocranium bone

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40
Q

what are fontanelles?

A

allows the cranium to be flexible. they solidify into sutures with age

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41
Q

how many vertebrae in the spine in total?

A

24

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42
Q

list the subgroups of the vertebrae and how many in each

A

cervical has 7. thoracic has 12. lumbar has 5

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43
Q

describe scoliosis

A

medial and lateral deviation of the spine

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44
Q

describe kyphosis

A

curvature out, in thoracic region of spine

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45
Q

describe lordosis

A

curvature in, in lumbar region of spine

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46
Q

where do the spinal cord and spinal nerves exit?

A

intervertebral foramen formed from adjacent vertebra

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47
Q

what is another name for C1? what is special about it?

A

ATLAS. it has no body or spine

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48
Q

what is another name for C2? what is special about it?

A

AXIS. it has dens which forms a joint with C1 allowing for rotation of the head

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49
Q

what is special about a typical cervical vertebrae?

A

it has bifid spinous process which is two extended projections. it also has transverse foramen which allows the vertebral artery and vein through

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50
Q

what is the circle of willis?

A

provides blood flow between anterior and posterior circulations of the brain

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51
Q

what can happen when the vertebra articulates during cervical adjustment?

A

leads to the impingement of artery or dislodging of thrombous (blood clot) . results in stroke

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52
Q

what is special about thoracic spine?

A

has costal facets which articulate with the rib

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53
Q

what is special about lumbar spine?

A

squat thick bodies

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54
Q

how many vertebrae in the coccyx?

A

3-5

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55
Q

where do spinal nerves emerge from?

A

posterior/anterior sacral foramina

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56
Q

how many vertebrae in sacrum?

A

5

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57
Q

what are the types of longitudinal ligaments?

A

anterior, posterior, supraspinous, interspinous, ligamentum

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58
Q

describe anterior ligament

A

in front of vertebral body. broad fibrous

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59
Q

describe posterior ligament

A

behind vertebral body. narrow fibrous. within the vertebral canal

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60
Q

where is supraspinous ligament?

A

on top of spinous process. technically posterior to it

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61
Q

where is interspinous ligament?

A

between spinous proceeses.

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62
Q

describe the atlanto-occipital joints (type? where? purpose?)

A

synovial joints between superior articular facets of atlas and occipital condyles of the skull. allows for nodding (flexion/extension)

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63
Q

describe the atlanto-axial joints (includes? purpose?)

A

consists of 2 lateral and 1 medial (between atlas and axis) joint. allows head to pivot

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64
Q

describe zygapophyseal (facet) joints (type? where? purpose? innervated by?)

A

plane, synovial joints between the articulate process of vertebrae. helps stabilize column. innervated by dorsal rami

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65
Q

describe intervertebral joints (type? where?)

A

fibrocartilaginous joints between vertebral bodies/intervertebral discs. but not between C1&C2.

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66
Q

what is responsible for shock absorption in the spine?

A

intervertebral disc

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67
Q

describe structure of intervertebral disc

A

outer part composed of annulus fibrosis which a thick fibrous ring. inner part composed of nucleus pulposus - a gelatinous center

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68
Q

what is disc herniation?

A

when fragment of the disc nucleus leaks out annulus and impinges on the spinal cord/nerve

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69
Q

describe costovertebral/ costotransverse joints (where?)

A

between vertebra and ribs at the transverse process and costal tubercle respectively

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70
Q

describe the thoracic cage (where? what?)

A

composed of 12 ribs which are attached to costal cartilage which attaches to the sternum (only for 1-7). ribs are connected to the thoracic vertebrae (T1-T12)

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71
Q

what are true ribs? how many?

A

true ribs connect to sternum. the top 7 are true ribs

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72
Q

what are false ribs? how many?

A

attached to cartilage. ribs 8-10 so 3

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73
Q

what are floating ribs? how many?

A

no articulation. ribs 11-12 so 2

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74
Q

what are the classifications of joints?

A

fibrous, cartilaginous, and synovial

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75
Q

describe fibrous joints

A

bones connected by fibrous tissue, limiting the movement which depends on the length of fibers

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76
Q

what type of joint is a suture?

A

fibrous

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77
Q

describe cartilaginous joints. give examples of each type

A

bones connected by hyaline or fibrocartilage. primary cartilaginous joints are joined by hyaline and are in early life bone development at epiphyseal plates. secondary cartilaginous joints and joined by fibrocartilage and are strong, slightly movable joints. they are found between vertebrae

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78
Q

describe synovial joints

A

articular surfaces covered in hyaline and cartilage. there is free movement between bones. the joint capsule lined by synovial membrane contains synovial fluid for lubrication. it is reinforced by ligaments and other things such as discs and menisci.

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79
Q

name the different types of synovial joints

A

saddle, ball and socket, hinge, condyloid, plane, & pivot

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80
Q

what must be sacrificed for stability in a joint?

A

range of motion

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81
Q

what 5 structures are synovial joints composed of?

A

bones, ligaments/capsule, tendons/muscle, intra-articular structures (menisci, discs, labrum, etc), and bursae

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82
Q

what is the treatment for joint injuries?

A

PRICE. protection, rest, ice, compression, elevation

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83
Q

what are some intra-articular structures that contribute to joint function?

A

extracapsular ligaments which reinforce joint capsule. intracapsular ligaments within a joint to provide stability. articular disc to absorb shock and distribute weight. labrum found in ball and socket joints to deepen socket and improve contact

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84
Q

what is bursitis? describe it

A

a synovial joint injury, it is a chronic inflammation of a bursa which are fluids filled sacs meant to reduce friction between moving parts

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85
Q

what is the most stable type of joint?

A

fibrous joints

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86
Q

which type of joint does not have cartilage?

A

fibrous

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87
Q

what are the 3 types of cartilage?

A

hyaline, elastic cartilage, fibrocartilage.

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88
Q

what is the weakest type of cartilage?

A

hyaline but is still well suited to bear weight and transfer load

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89
Q

what is the strongest type of cartilage?

A

fibrocartilage

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90
Q

describe hyaline

A

a metabolically active tissue that has no blood supply/lymph channels/neurological supply.

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91
Q

what is the composition of hyaline cartilage?

A

cells take up less than 10%. rest is the extracellular matrix which is made up of interstitial fluid (water, lipids, electrolytes), collagen, and proteoglycans

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92
Q

how is nutrient exchange accomplished in hyaline cartilage?

A

synovial fluid exchanges via cartilage loading

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93
Q

name and describe the types of cartilage injury

A

osteoarthritis is when joint cartilage is gradually lost, it happens on one side. rheumatoid arthritis is inflammation of joint linings and cartilage, it occurs on both sides and joint becomes immovable

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94
Q

what are the types of muscle?

A

skeletal, cardiac, smooth

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95
Q

where is smooth muscle found?

A

blood vessels, skin, viscera (intestines, etc)

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96
Q

which muscle types are voluntary? which are involuntary?

A

skeletal muscle is voluntary while cardiac and smooth are involuntary

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97
Q

which of the muscle types is multi-nucleated?

A

skeletal

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98
Q

what are the properties of muscle tissue?

A

electrical excitability, contractility, elasticity, extensibility

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99
Q

put muscle terms in order from smallest to biggest

A

thick&thin filaments, sarcomeres, myofibrils, fascicle, muscle

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100
Q

what is a fascicle?

A

bundle of myofibres

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101
Q

what is a myofibre?

A

muscle cell, repeating units of sacromere

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102
Q

what protein molecule is in thick filaments?

A

myosin

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103
Q

what protein molecule is in thin filaments?

A

tropomyosin, troponin, actin

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104
Q

how are muscles attached to the bone?

A

with tendons

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105
Q

muscles cant ____. they can only ______.

A

cant push. they can pull

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106
Q

how do signals travel from the brain to a muscle?

A

thru 2 neurons that synapse at the spinal cord

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107
Q

what is one motor unit?

A

motor neuron and all the fibers it innervates

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108
Q

describe the sliding filament theory

A

interaction between myosin and actin leads to muscle contraction. when myosin attaches to actin’s binding site forming a crossbridge, myosin undergoes a change in shape and its head swings producing a power stoker which slides actin pass the myosin

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109
Q

what are the 5 states of the sliding filament theory?

A

bound, power stroke, rigor, relaxed, binding. it repeats

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110
Q

what allows myosin to bind to actin?

A

the conversion of ATP to ADP

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111
Q

what role does calcium play in muscle contraction?

A

it binds to the troponin complex and causes the tropomyosin to roll away allowing contraction to occur

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112
Q

describe the calcium flow when a muscle cell is depolarized

A

calcium flows out. down the gradient

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113
Q

as one ages, what is muscle mass replaced with?

A

fibrous connective tissue and adipose

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114
Q

name and describe the types of cells in the nervous system

A

neurons which provide sensory info and transmit motor info to the body. and neuroglia which support and insulate and nourish neurons

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115
Q

what are the types of neurons?

A

multipolar motor and pseudounipolar sensory

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116
Q

what are some examples of neuroglia and where are they found?

A

in the CNS is oligodendroglia and in the PNS is schwann cells

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117
Q

where do neurons connect?

A

axon terminal sends info to dendrites which collect info. neurons synapse between here

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118
Q

how are oligodendrocytes and schwann cells different?

A

oligodendrocytes myelinate sections of several axons and are in the CNS. schwann calls myelinate one section of an axon and are in the PNS

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119
Q

what is the resting membrane potential?

A

-80mV. it is the difference between the outside (positive) and inside (negative)

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120
Q

what ions are outside a cell? inside?

A

outside is sodium and chlorine. inside is potassium

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121
Q

what causes signal propagation?

A

progressive depolarization of the cell

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122
Q

what causes an action potential?

A

resting membrane potential is -80mV. Na rushes in thru voltage gated channels causing depolarization 40mV (cell becomes more positive). K flows out of cell causing repolarization (back to negative inside). Na/K pump restores the balance of ions

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123
Q

what does the velocity of conduction in a neuron depend on?

A

myelination and the diameter of fiber (larger is faster)

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124
Q

how are signals transmitted from one neuron to another?

A

through the release of neurotransmitters in a synaptic cleft

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125
Q

describe the process of a neuronal synapse after a signal has been sent down the axon

A

impulse arrives at the end bulb. the calcium voltage gated channels open allowing the calcium to flow into the cell causing neurotransmitters to be releases. the neurotransmitters cross the synaptic cleft to bind to receptors on the postsynaptic membrane. sodium voltage gated channels open allowing sodium to enter the cell, depolarizing the post synaptic cell. a nerve impulse is initiated.

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126
Q

what is the difference between white and gray matter?

A

gray matter consists of nerve cell bodies while white matter includes axons with glial sheath. in the CNS, gray matter is the cortex and nucleus while white matter are the pathways. in the PNS, gray matter is ganglion while white matter is the nerve

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127
Q

what divides the hemispheres?

A

longitudinal fissure

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128
Q

how do the two hemispheres communicate?

A

through the corpus callosum, which is a white fiber tract (bundle of axons)

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129
Q

define a fissure

A

deep groove on the brain

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130
Q

define a sulcus

A

shallow groove on the brain

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131
Q

define a gyrus

A

ridge on the brain

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132
Q

what is the frontal lobe responsible for?

A

coordination of voluntary motor activity. behaviour and emotional control. personality. problem solving.

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133
Q

damage to WHAT leads to difficulty in producing language?

A

frontal lobe - broca’s area

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134
Q

damage to WHAT leads to difficulty in understanding speech?

A

parietal lobe - wernicke’s area

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135
Q

what is the parietal lobe responsible for?

A

integrates sensory info. processes touch, pain, proprioception

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136
Q

what is the temporal lobe responsible for?

A

auditory info processing. processes languages. processes smell

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137
Q

what is the occipital lobe responsible for?

A

receives and processes visual info

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138
Q

what does the diencephalon consist of?

A

thalamus, hypothalamus, and pituitary gland

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139
Q

what does the thalamus do?

A

relate center for sensory info. checks the info before sent to rest of brain

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140
Q

what does the hypothalamus do?

A

maintains homeostasis

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141
Q

what does the pituitary gland do?

A

secretes hormones

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142
Q

what do pons do?

A

transmits sensory info to brain from periphery

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143
Q

what does the cerebellum do?

A

coordination of voluntary movement with use proprioception. monitors and makes adjustment to correct motor plan. controls balance and equilibrium.

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144
Q

why is white matter white?

A

myelin on the axons

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145
Q

describe where cerebrospinal fluid goes through

A

produced in the lateral ventricles. goes to interventricular foramen. then third ventricle. then cerebral aqueduct. then fourth ventricle. then central canal

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146
Q

what are the types of meninges?

A

dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater

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147
Q

describe dura mater

A

a thick outer layer

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148
Q

describe arachnoid mater

A

white and wispy. in between dura mater and pia mater

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149
Q

describe pia mater

A

thin interior later that goes into the sulci

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150
Q

what do meninges do?

A

provide a supportive framework for vasculature. protect CNS from mechanical damage - similar to CSF

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151
Q

describe epidural space

A

arterial blood supply between dura mater and the skull

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152
Q

describe subdural space

A

venous blood supply between dura mater and arachnoid mater

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153
Q

describe subarachnoid space

A

CSF is here. it is between arachnoid mater and pia mater

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154
Q

list in order from outermost, the meninges and blood supply

A

skull, epidural space, dura mater, subdural space, arachnoid mater, subarachnoid space, pia mater

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155
Q

what makes up dura mater?

A

periosteal/endosteal and meningeal layers

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156
Q

what and where is extracerebral hemorrhages?

A

occurs between the skull and brain when blood makes contact with cells after intracranial pressure

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157
Q

where are meninges?

A

on the brain and spinal cord

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158
Q

where would you insert the needle to access the spinal cord? why here?

A

lumbar. into the subarachnoid space to collect cerebrospinal fluid. insert here because spinal nerves are floating so they can dodge the needle

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159
Q

why are two areas of the spinal cord enlarged? where are these enlargements?

A

for limb innervation. a cervical enlargement including the cervical plexus and brachial plexus. a lumbar enlargement including a lumbar plexus and a sacral plexus. the ones more so responsible for limb innervation are the brachial plexus and sacral plexus.

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160
Q

at which vertebra does the spinal cord end? what is the remaining structure of nerves called?

A

L1/L2 - conus medullaris. the remaining structure of nerves is called cauda equina

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161
Q

what are the roots of the brachial plexus

A

C5 - T1

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162
Q

describe the difference between dorsal and ventral horn

A

sensory info goes thru the dorsal (posterior) horn and motor info goes thru the ventral (anterior) horn

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163
Q

describe the pathway of sensory info

A

thru any rami. then the nerve. then the dorsal root. then the dorsal horn

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164
Q

describe the pathway of motor info

A

from ventral horn. ventral root. then spinal nerve. then any rami

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165
Q

what forms the peripheral nerves?

A

anterior rami from C5-T8

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166
Q

from largest to smallest, name the parts of the brachial plexus

A

RTDCB. roots trunks divisions cords branches.

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167
Q

what are the trunks of the brachial plexus

A

upper, middle, lower

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168
Q

what are the divisions of the brachial plexus

A

anterior and posterior

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169
Q

what are the cords of the brachial plexus (how are they named)

A

lateral, medial, posterior. named for their position around the axillary artery

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170
Q

what are the branches/peripheral nerves of the brachial plexus

A

axillary, radial, musculocutaneous, median, ulnar

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171
Q

how many cervical nervers are there?

A

C1 - C8. but for vertebrae its up to C7

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172
Q

which of the branches are extensors? where are they?

A

axillary and radial. to the back

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173
Q

which of the branches are flexors? where are they?

A

ulnar, median, musculocutaneous. to the front

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174
Q

what muscles does the axillary innervate?

A

deltoid and teres minor up in the shoulder

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175
Q

what innervates the triceps brachii?

A

radial nerve

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176
Q

what muscles does the musculocutaneous innervate?

A

bicep brachii, brachialis, and coracobrabrachialis

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177
Q

what does the stretching of root C5/C6 lead to?

A

musculocutaneous and axillary nerve impairment

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178
Q

what does the stretching of root C8/T1 lead to?

A

poor ulnar nerve function. loss of sensation to medial and distal hand

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179
Q

between flexors and extensors, what type of muscle is in the front for the arm?

A

flexors are anterior. extensors are posterior

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180
Q

what innervates the posterior/extensors in the arm compartment?

A

radial nerves

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181
Q

what innervates the anterior/flexors compartment in the arm?

A

musculocutaneous for the arm. median and ulnar for forearm

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182
Q

between flexors and extensors, what type of muscle is in the front for the leg?

A

extensors in the front (anterior). flexors in the back (posterior)

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183
Q

what is compartment syndrome?

A

the fibrous sheaths surrounding the compartment do not stretch causing pressure to build up if damage and swelling occur

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184
Q

what could be done to release pressure in a muscle compartment?

A

fasciotomy, a surgery

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185
Q

list the arterial supply of the upper limb. from the shoulder to the hand

A

brachiocephalic trunk. subclavian artery. axillary. splits into radial and ulnar. palmer arches. radial leads to deep palmer arch and ulnar leads to superficial palmer arch

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186
Q

what is anastomosis? give an example of where this occurs

A

when there’s two blood supply in an area. for example, the hand and the venous supply of the upper limb

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187
Q

where does shoulder separation occur?

A

at the acromioclavicular and sternoclavicular joints

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188
Q

what type of joint is acromioclavicular?

A

synovial - plane

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189
Q

what type of joint is glenohumeral?

A

synovial - ball and socket

190
Q

where does labrum exists? what does it do?

A

in ball and socket joints. it deepens the socket for better contact and is a thick fibrocartilage layer

191
Q

where does shoulder dislocation occur? what nerves could it impair?

A

only in the glenohumeral joint. impairs axillary and musculocutaneous nerves

192
Q

describe scapulohumeral rhythm

A

arm abduction movement which requires two joints working together. glenohumeral on its own can move 30 degrees. but after that it will require the help of scapulathoracic. for every 2 degrees of GH, ST will move 1 degree

193
Q

describe the axilla

A

a fat filled space in the armpit which provides passageway for blood vessels and nerves. it contains axillary lymph nodes

194
Q

what is saturday night palsy

A

radial nerve compression leading to wrist drop and sensory loss on posterior arm

195
Q

what are the types of muscles acting on the shoulder?

A

superficial layer (extrinsic back), deep layer (rotator cuff), pectoral, brachium

196
Q

name the extrinsic back muscles

A

trapezius, latissimus dorsi, rhomboids, teres major

197
Q

name the rotator cuff muscles

A

supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, subscapularis

198
Q

name the pectoral muscles

A

serratus anterior, pectoralis major, pectoralis minor

199
Q

name the brachium muscles

A

deltoid, long head of bicep, long head of tricep

200
Q

using the “some love try positions that they cannot handle” name the carpal bones

A

scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, pisiform, trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, hamate

201
Q

what muscle are responsible for thumb movement? what are they innervated by?

A

thenar (median and ulnar)

202
Q

what muscle are responsible for pinky movement? what are they innervated by?

A

hypothenar (ulnar)

203
Q

what muscle allows fingers to move to the midline? innervated by?

A

this is called adduction and it is due to the 3 palmer interossei. innervated by the ulnar

204
Q

what muscle allows fingers to move away from the midline? innervated by?

A

this is called abduction and is due to the 4 dorsal interossei. innervated by ulnar

205
Q

what do lumbricals do? innervated by?

A

flex metacarpophalangeal joints but extend interphalangeal joints. innervated by median and ulnar which each do 2/4

206
Q

name the digitorum muscles

A

extensor indicis, extensor digiti minimi, extensor digitorum, flexor digitorum superficialis, flexor digitorum profundus

207
Q

name the carpi muscles

A

extensor carpi radialis, extensor carpi ulnaris, flexor carpi radialis, flexor carpi ulnaris, (flexor) palmaris longus

208
Q

name the joints of the hand

A

carpal metacarpal (CMC), metacarpal phalangeal (MCP), proximal interphalangeal (PIP), distal interphalangeal (DIP)

209
Q

what is carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

caused by compression of median nerve due to swelling. causes thenar muscle to weaken and skin paraesthesia

210
Q

what is the condyloid joint? responsible for?

A

wrist joint responsible for flexion, extension, abduction, and adduction of wrist

211
Q

name the joints of the wrist and what they are responsible for

A

radiocarpal (condyloid) and distal radioulnar (pronation/supination)

212
Q

which nerves go through the cubital fossa

A

median and radial

213
Q

where does elbow dislocation occur at?

A

cubital joint

214
Q

describe the cubital joint

A

made up of the humeroradial joint and the humeroulnar joint. its at the elbow. and performs flexion/extension

215
Q

describe the proximal radioulnar joint

A

at the elbow and performs supination and pronation

216
Q

what muscle performs arm extension? innervated by?

A

long head innervated by radial

217
Q

what performs forearm extension? innervated by?

A

triceps innervated by radial

218
Q

what performs arm supination ? innervated by?

A

biceps innervated by musculocutaneous

219
Q

what performs shoulder flexion? innervated by?

A

coracobrabrachialis innervated by musculocutaneous

220
Q

what performs elbow flexion? innervated by?

A

brachialis innervated by musculocutaneous and radial

221
Q

what type of movement does the ulna and radius assist with?

A

pronation and supination

222
Q

what type of movement do the tarsal bones assist with?

A

inversion and eversion

223
Q

describe flexion for arms and legs

A

for arms its forward and for legs its back

224
Q

describe extension for arms and legs

A

for arms it back and for legs its forward

225
Q

what are the nerves of the lumbosacral plexus

A

femoral, obturator, sciatic (tibial & fibular)

226
Q

describe the path of the femoral nerve

A

L2-L4 to extensors of the knee

227
Q

describe the path of the obturator nerve

A

L2-L4 to adductors of the hip

228
Q

describe the path of the sciatic nerve

A

L4-S3 and then splits into the tibial and fibular nerve

229
Q

describe the path of the tibial nerve

A

L4-S3 to flexors of the knee, plantar flexors and intrinsic flexors of foot

230
Q

describe the path of the fibular nerve

A

L4-S2 to dorsiflexors, extensors and evertors of foot

231
Q

what artery supplies the lateral aspect of the shank

A

fibular artery

232
Q

what artery supplies the bottom of the foot

A

medial plantar artery

233
Q

what are the two routes of venous supply - what are they for

A

deep veins to return blood during exercise and superficial for at rest

234
Q

how is blood returned during exercise?

A

muscle contractions squeeze deep veins. valves force blood return to heart

235
Q

describe the fascia lata

A

encloses thigh muscles, and thickened at the iliotibial tract. (a bit above the knee on a diagram)

236
Q

describe the deep fascia of the shank

A

“crural fascia”. divides shank into 3 compartments: anterior, posterior, lateral. (a bit below the knee on a diagram)

237
Q

what makes up the os coxae?

A

ilium, ischium, pubis

238
Q

what fuses at the acetabulum?

A

the bones of the os coxae (ilium, ischium, pubis)

239
Q

name the ligaments of the pelvis and what they connect/hold

A

sacrospinous (sacrum to ischial spine), sacrotuberous (sacrum to ischial tuberosity), sacroiliac (holds the sacroiliac joint), greater sciatic foramen, and lesser sciatic foramen

240
Q

name the joints of the pelvis

A

sacroiliac, hip, pubis

241
Q

describe the sacroiliac joint

A

a bilateral, SYNOVIAL joint. quite IMMOBILE due to the strong ligaments on the anterior and posterior aspects

242
Q

describe the pubic symphysis joint

A

between the left and right pubic rami. a CARTILAGINOUS joint. hyaline cartilage at the ends attached to the bones and in between is a fibrocartilage disc. it is quite IMMOBILE

243
Q

what is an open book fracture?

A

separation of pubic symphysis due to child birth or traumatic injury. can lead to infection or hemorrhage

244
Q

what are the ligaments the help support the hip joint?

A

iliofemoral, pubofemoral, ischiofemoral (each os foxae bone attached to femoral)

245
Q

what is the purpose of bursae?

A

to help cushion ligaments and skin. they crossover bone

246
Q

differentiate between hip fracture and dislocation

A

hip fracture is more common in older people. it is due to the pull of iliopsoas on the greater trochanter resulting in external rotation. hip dislocation is due to posterior dislocation which causes traction of the adductor group and results in internal rotation

247
Q

what is the iliopsoas

A

muscle which separates ilium from hip joint capsule and reduces friction. it is composed of iliacus and psoas. innervated by the femoral nerve, it causes hip flexion

248
Q

describe foot drop

A

due to a hip dislocation. symptoms include inability to dorsiflex and reduced eversion. the foot hangs and plantar is flexed

249
Q

where does the head of the femur get its blood supply from?

A

foveal artery (from obturator) and lateral circumflex femoral artery (from femoral artery)

250
Q

what does a fracture in the femoral neck result in?

A

avascular necrosis (death of bone tissue)

251
Q

what are the types of muscles acting on the hip?

A

gluteals, iliopsoas, deep rotators and thigh muscles which include (hip adductors, flexors, hamstrings)

252
Q

which compartments are on the anterior aspect of the glutes?

A

iliopsoas and hip adductors. a bit of the gluteals on the front but most of it is on the posterior aspect. deep rotators are in the middle

253
Q

what muscle does the inferior gluteal nerve innervate? what is its purpose?

A

gluteus maximus which is responsible for hip extension and lateral rotation

254
Q

what muscle does the superior gluteal nerve innervate? what is its purpose?

A

gluteus medius/minimus which is responsible for hip abduction and medial rotation. tensor fascia latae which is responsible for tense fascia latae

255
Q

what innervates the deep rotators of the hip?

A

piriformis, obturator internus, and quadratus femoris are innervated by their respective nerves. obturator nerve innervates everything else

256
Q

what are the functions of the deep rotators?

A

lateral rotation of hips, hip abduction, and hip adduction (due to obturator externus)

257
Q

how would you identify the sciatic nerve

A

thick nerve below the piriformis. splits into tibial and fibular nerve

258
Q

what does the sciatic nerve innervate?

A

hamstrings

259
Q

which nerves go thru the greater sciatic foramen?

A

inferior gluteal, superior gluteal, and sciatic

260
Q

which nerves go thru the lesser sciatic foramen?

A

pudendal

261
Q

movement of the lower limb originates at the _____?

A

hip

262
Q

what is the anterior compartment of the thigh innervated by?

A

the extensors are innervated by the femoral nerve

263
Q

what is the medial compartment of thigh innervated by?

A

the adductors are innervated by the obturator nerve

264
Q

what is the posterior compartment of the thigh innervated by?

A

the flexors are innervated by the sciatic nerve more specifically tibial

265
Q

what muscles make up the anterior compartment of the thigh?

A

sartorius, rectus femoris, quadricep femoris (vastus… etc)

266
Q

what innervates the adductor magnus? where is the adductor magnus?

A

half by the obturator nerve and other half by tibial nerve. adductor magnus is in the medial compartment

267
Q

what is pes anserine?

A

3 muscles: sartorius, gracilis, and semitendinosis which originate from the different bones of the os coxae

268
Q

what are the boarders of the femoral triangle?

A

sartorius, inguinal ligament, adductor longus

269
Q

describe the purpose of the adductor hiatus and subsartorial canal

A

provides passage for femoral vessels from anterior thigh to popliteal fossa

270
Q

what does the tibia do?

A

bear weight

271
Q

what does the fibula do?

A

rotational stability! it had not contact with the femur

272
Q

what separate joints makes up the knee joint?

A

femorotibial and patellofemoral. they share a joint capsule

273
Q

describe the functions of the knee

A

transition zone: connects thigh to shank. standing and locomotion: stability and mobility

274
Q

what contributes to joint stability/mobility?

A

shape and arrangement of articulating surfaces, ligaments crossing the joint, and tone of surrounding muscles (aging, injury, etc)

275
Q

what does a small area of contact mean?

A

high force of transmission

276
Q

describe menisci

A

fibrocartilage shock absorbers that deepen and stabilize articulating surfaces. it protects underlying hyaline cartilage and bones

277
Q

between which collateral ligament and meniscus is there space between?

A

the lateral collateral ligament and lateral meniscus

278
Q

what do collateral ligaments do?

A

provide mediolateral stabilization

279
Q

describe cruciate ligaments

A

crossed on tibial attachment (between condyles)

280
Q

what does the anterior cruciate ligament do?

A

if foot planted: prevent femur moving posterior on tibia. if foot free: prevent tibia from moving anterior under femur. both are same movement but with different bones in different direction

281
Q

what does posterior cruciate ligaments do?

A

if foot planted: prevent femur from moving anterior on tibia. if foot free: prevent tibia moving posterior under femur

282
Q

what is an unhappy triad?

A

tearing of the collateral ligaments and medial meniscus

283
Q

describe the location of the cruciate ligaments in relation to joints

A

the anterior and posterior cruciate ligament are inside the knee joint capsule but are extra-synovial (outside synovial membrane)

284
Q

what “unlocks” the knee from its standing position?

A

popliteus

285
Q

from where to where does the popliteus attach to? what is it innervated by?

A

lateral femoral condyle to posterior tibia. it is innervated by the tibial nerve

286
Q

what type of bone is the patella?

A

sesamoid. it is fact the largest sesamoid bone with a tendon

287
Q

what causes patellar dislocation? what resists it?

A

due to pull of vastus lateralis. resisted by vastus medialis and lateral femoral condyle

288
Q

name the knee bursa and what they do

A

subpatellar (protects patella from femur), prepatellar (protects skin from knee), and superficial/deep infrapatellar (cushion patellar ligaments)

289
Q

what joint in the knee is responsible for rotational stability?

A

superior/proximal tibiofibular joint

290
Q

what are the boarders of the popliteal fossa

A

semimembranosus, biceps femoris, gastrocnemii (medial and lateral are on the bottom)

291
Q

what are the contents of the popliteal fossa?

A

popliteal artery and vein, sciatic nerve

292
Q

where is popliteal fossa?

A

back of the knee

293
Q

what is the anterior compartment of the shank responsible for? what is it innervated by?

A

ankle dorsiflexion. it is innervated by deep peroneal (fibular) nerve

294
Q

what are the muscles of the shank’s anterior compartment

A

tibialis, extensor digitorum longus, extensor hallucis longus

295
Q

what is the purpose of a retinaculum?

A

to pin down tendons

296
Q

what is the lateral compartment of the shank responsible for? what is it innervated by?

A

ankle eversion. innervated by superficial fibular nerve

297
Q

what are the muscles of the shank’s lateral compartment

A

fibularis longus and fibular brevis

298
Q

from where to where does the fibularis longus go from

A

from head of fibula to base of the 5th metatarsal

299
Q

what does the fibular nerve split into? what compartment of the shank do they correspond with?

A

superficial branch (lateral) and deep branch (anterior)

300
Q

what is the superficial posterior compartment of the shank responsible for? what is it innervated by?

A

responsible for plantar flexion, knee flexion, and unlocking knee. it is innervated by the tibial nerve

301
Q

what is the deep posterior compartment of the shank responsible for? what is it innervated by?

A

responsible for plantar flexion, inversion, and digit flexion. innervated by tibial nerve

302
Q

name the muscles of the anterior compartment of the shank

A

tibialis anterior, extensor digitorum longus, extensor hallucis longus

303
Q

name the muscles of the lateral compartment of the shank

A

peroneus (fibularis) longus, peroneus (fibularis) brevis

304
Q

name the muscles of the deep posterior compartment of the shank

A

tibialis posterior, flexor digitorum longus, flexor hallucis longis

305
Q

name the muscles of the superficial posterior compartment of the shank

A

gastrocs, soleus, plantaris, popliteus

306
Q

what is a continuation of the adductor hiatus?

A

popliteal fossa

307
Q

what is important for articulation at the ankle?

A

ankle mortise

308
Q

where is the talocrural joint?

A

near the ankle mortise, kind of overlaps with it

309
Q

where is the distal tibiofibular joint?

A

between the tibia and fibula, it is near the ankle

310
Q

where is the subtalar joint?

A

beneath the talus

311
Q

what type of joint is the distal tibiofibular joint?

A

syndesmosis. fibrous joint

312
Q

what holds the distal tibiofibular joint in place?

A

anterior and posterior tibiofibular ligaments

313
Q

what is a high ankle sprain? when is there pain why? what causes the high ankle sprain?

A

tearing of anterior/posterior ligament of the distal tibiofibular joint. pain upon dorsiflexion due to talus spreading ankle mortise. caused by lateral rotation of the foot

314
Q

what is the purpose of the crural joint?

A

permits dorsi- and plantar flexion

315
Q

what ligaments help maintain the crural joint structure?

A

posterior talofibular, anterior talofibular, calcaneofibular, calcaneonavicular, deltoid

316
Q

describe an ankle inversion sprain

A

leads to separation of the crural joint. caused by damage to ligaments

317
Q

what does the subtalar joint allow for?

A

it allows for inversion and eversion

318
Q

what are the 2 compartments of the subtalar joint? what separates these compartments?

A

at the anterior is the talocalcanealnavicular complex and on the posterior is the talocalcaneal joint. it is separated by the interosseous talocalcaneal ligament

319
Q

what are the ligaments the hold the subtalar joint in place?

A

cervical (anterior talocalcaneal), lateral talocalcaneal, medial talocalcaneal, interosseous talocalcaneal

320
Q

between the tibialis posterior and anterior which one is a flexor? extensor?

A

tibialis posterior is an extensor. tibialis anterior is a flexor

321
Q

are the fibularis muscles in the foot extensor? flexor? both?

A

they are flexors

322
Q

describe an avulsion on the base of the 5th. causes? symptoms?

A

caused by when peroneus/fibularis brevis resists movement and pulls the base of the 5th metatarsal bone off. causes pain on lateral aspect and swelling

323
Q

what does the ventral portion of the spinal cord not innervate?

A

zygapophyseal joints and muscles of the deep back

324
Q

describe the size of the posterior (dorsal) ramus and anterior (ventral) ramus?

A

ventral is much larger as it innervates much more and carries more info

325
Q

what are the types of deep back muscles?

A

deep and superficial

326
Q

what are the superficial deep back muscles?

A

erector spinae which includes iliocostalis, longissimus, and spinalis. and then the splenius cervicis and splenius capitus

327
Q

what are the deep deep back muscles?

A

the transverso spinal group which includes semispinalis, rotatores, and multifidus

328
Q

what innervates the deep back muscles?

A

posterior rami of the spinal nerve

329
Q

what makes up the erector spinous group?

A

iliocostalis, longissimus, spinalis

330
Q

what is the purpose of the erector spinous group?

A

to extend vertebral column and head. laterally flex column

331
Q

what does the splenius cervicis do?

A

laterally flexes neck

332
Q

what does the splenius capitis do?

A

rotate and extend head

333
Q

what does the semispinalis capitis of the transverso spinalis group?

A

head and neck extension

334
Q

what makes up the transverso spinalis group?

A

semispinalis captis, multifidus, rotatores

335
Q

what does the multifidus of the transverso spinalis group?

A

vertebral extension and stabilization

336
Q

what does the rotatores of the transverso spinalis group?

A

vertebral extension and stabilization and rotation

337
Q

what forms the intervertebral foramen?

A

superior and inferior notches of the adjacent vertebra

338
Q

what is the anterior rami referred to as in the thorax? why?

A

intercostal nerve. bc there is no plexus there

339
Q

describe the pathway of the intercostal nerves

A

runs from posterior to anterior alongside the intercostal artery and vein (inferior to rib). vein is directly under rib, followed by artery, and then nerve (VAN)

340
Q

what type of intercostal muscles are there?

A

external, internal, and innermost

341
Q

describe the external intercostal muscles

A

elevates rubs (inspiration). runs superolateral to inferomedial. like hands in pocket

342
Q

describe the internal and innermost intercostal muscles

A

depresses ribs (forced expiration like during a workout). runs superomedial to inferolateral. like hands grabbing collarbone

343
Q

what does the central tendon of a diaphragm allow for?

A

contractions to lower the dome, increasing thoracic cavity volume while decreasing abdominal cavity volume

344
Q

what are the 3 openings in the diaphragm? what are the openings innervated by?

A

caval opening (T8), esophageal hiatus (T10), aortic hiatus (T12) CEA

345
Q

what innervates the diaphragm?

A

phrenic nerve

346
Q

name the abdominal muscles superficial to deep. and describe their “paths”.

A

external oblique (“hands in pocket”). internal oblique (hands grabbing collar). rectus abdominus (up and down). transversus abdominus (left to right). EIRT

347
Q

which abdominal muscle is responsible for compression of the abdomen?

A

all 4: external oblique, internal oblique, rectus abdominus, tranversus abdominus

348
Q

which abdominal muscle is responsible for flexing vertebral column?

A

external, internal, rectus

349
Q

which abdominal muscle is responsible for rotation of vertebral column and lateral bending?

A

external and internal oblique

350
Q

what ligament runs from hip to pubic symphysis

A

inguinal ligament

351
Q

what is diastasis recti? when is it common?

A

separation of fascia at linea alba. common during/following pregnancy

352
Q

what increases volume when breathing?

A

inspiration with the use of the diaphragm and external intercostals

353
Q

what is muscle function dependent on?

A

angle of insertion and joints crossed

354
Q

what do arteries do?

A

carry blood away from heart

355
Q

what do veins do?

A

carry blood to heart

356
Q

describe the pressure and walls in arteries and veins

A

arteries has thick wall to deal with HIGH pressure. veins have thin walls to deal with LOW pressure

357
Q

where does diffusion happen in the cardiovascular system?

A

capillaries

358
Q

what are arterioles?

A

small arteries that regulate blood flow into the capillary network. they can redirect blood flow thru vasoconstriction and vasodilation

359
Q

what are venules?

A

drain capillary blood but the smaller ones are also a site for diffusion. they can hold lots of blood

360
Q

what is a venous sinus? where are they?

A

drains venous blood back to heart or other veins. exists in the brain or heart

361
Q

what is an anastomoses?

A

union of 2 or more arterial branches supplying the same area. collateral blood supply for important areas such as the circle of willis in the brain

362
Q

describe the blood flow from the heart

A

heart, arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, veins/sinus, back to heart

363
Q

what is varicose veins? caused by what?

A

occurs when valves promote unidirectional flow back to the heart. caused by retrograde flow from valves not being able to close properly

364
Q

describe the deep palmar arch

A

an anastomosis in the hand. radial artery to ulnar artery RU

365
Q

describe the superficial palmar arch

A

an anastomosis in the hand. ulnar artery to radial artery. UR

366
Q

where does blood supply to the right upper limb begin? for the left? why is it different?

A

right: brachiocephalic trunk. left: subclavian artery. different due to 3 vessels coming out of the arch of aorta

367
Q

which type of vein delivers blood at rest? during exercise?

A

superficial vein returns blood during rest. and deep returns during exercise

368
Q

how do deep veins return blood to the heart?

A

thru muscle contractions which squeeze the deep veins. valves force blood return to the heart stopping retrogade flow

369
Q

what are the thoracic cavities?

A

superior mediastinum, middle mediastinum, anterior mediastinum, posterior mediastinum, left and right pleural cavities (6 IN TOTAL)

370
Q

what does the superior mediastinum contain?

A

superior vena cava, brachiocephalic veins, arch of aorta, trachea, esophagus

371
Q

what does the middle mediastinum contain?

A

heart, pericardium (covers the heart), great vessel roots (superior vena cava, ascending aorta, pulmonary trunk)

372
Q

what does the posterior mediastinum contain?

A

descending thoracic aorta, esophagus, vagus nerve, sympathetic trunk

373
Q

what does the anterior mediastinum contain?

A

connective tissue, thymus gland (goes away after puberty)

374
Q

what do the pleural cavities contain?

A

lungs, pleura, hilum

375
Q

where is the hilum? whats in it?

A

it is the connection between the lungs and heart. it contains pulmonary arteries, veins, and bronchi

376
Q

describe the thickness walls of the heart and why they are like that

A

right walls are thin because they only pump blood to lungs. left walls are much thicker because they pump blood further with more pressure

377
Q

which is more superior? atriums or ventricles?

A

atriums on top.

378
Q

what are the types of circulation?

A

pulmonary (lungs), systemic (body), coronary (itself).

379
Q

what part of the heart receives deoxygenated blood from the body?

A

right atrium

380
Q

what part of the heart receives oxygenated blood from the lungs?

A

left atrium

381
Q

what part of the heart pumps blood to rest of body?

A

LEFT ventricle

382
Q

what part of the heart collects blood to transfer to the lung?

A

RIGHT ventricle

383
Q

what is an interventricular sulcus?

A

pocket of fat on the heart’s outer layer containing arteries, vessels, and nervers

384
Q

how does blood enter the heart from the body? (thru what?) what side are these parts on?

A

superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, and cardiac sinus. all are on the right side (right atrium)

385
Q

what does blood go thru to lungs?

A

pulmonary trunk and arteries

386
Q

how does blood enter the heart from the lungs? (thru what?) what side are these parts on?

A

pulmonary veins. they are on the left side (left atrium)

387
Q

how does blood leave the heart to the body? (what does it go thru)

A

aortic arch

388
Q

what muscle is important for contraction in the atria?

A

pectinate

389
Q

what muscle is important for contraction in the ventricle?

A

trabeculae carnae

390
Q

what valve is between the right atrium and ventricle?

A

tricuspid

391
Q

what valve is between the left atrium and ventricle?

A

mitral

392
Q

what are the semilunar valves?

A

aortic and pulmonary

393
Q

what are the atrioventricular valves?

A

tricuspid and bicuspid/mitral

394
Q

what contains oxygenated blood?

A

veins and the left side of the heart

395
Q

what contains deoxygenated blood?

A

arteries and the right side of the heart

396
Q

what is heart failure?

A

when heart muscle doesnt pump as well as it should causing a decrease in oxygen/nutrient delivery. the left side is usually impaired, with time the right side will be impaired as well

397
Q

what is the pericardium?

A

3 layered sac (fibrous, parietal, visceral) in which the heart resides

398
Q

what veins are in the coronary sinus?

A

great cardiac, left posterior ventricular, left marginal, middle cardiac, small cardiac, anterior cardiac

399
Q

where does the coronary sinus drain into?

A

right atrium along with the anterior cardiac vein

400
Q

what is a heart attack?

A

disruption to coronary blood flow. caused by atherosclerosis which is a narrowing of lumen due to plaque deposits on the vessel wall. NOT THE SAME AS CARDIAC ARREST

401
Q

what is angina?

A

temporary disruption in coronary blood flow

402
Q

describe cardiac muscles

A

striated, involuntary muscle found within the heart. contains same contractile filament as skeletal muscle

403
Q

what are the types of cardiomyocytes?

A

pacemaker and non-pacemaker cells

404
Q

describe pacemaker cells

A

cardiomyocytes which spontaneously contract (depolarize).

405
Q

where are pacemaker cells found?

A

found in the SA node, AV node, bundle of His, purkinje fibers

406
Q

describe non pacemaker cells

A

cardiomyocytes that from most of the heart. basic contractile myocytes. depolarization caused by adjacent cells depolarizing

407
Q

what is a syncytium?

A

network of cardiomyocytes connected by intercalated discs

408
Q

what allows the atria to contract before ventricular contraction?

A

the heart having separate syncytium: ventricular syncytium and atrial syncytium

409
Q

differentiate between neuronal and cardiomyocyte’s depolarization

A

neuronal is much faster at 1ms while cardiomyocytes are 200-400ms (pacemakers being much slower)

410
Q

what causes depolarization in myocytes?

A

sodium and calcium

411
Q

describe the refractory period

A

when cell cant be re-excited. limits firing rate

412
Q

what is the SA node? where?

A

“pacemaker”. origin of cardiac impulses. it is above the right atrium

413
Q

where is the rate of depolarization the greatest in the cardiovascular system?

A

SA node

414
Q

what is the AV node? where is it?

A

electrically connects atria and ventricles with the bundle of His. below the right atrium

415
Q

what slows the SA node signal?

A

AV node

416
Q

how does the electrocardiogram (ECG) work?

A

electrodes pick up electrical impulses when cardiomyocytes depolarize/repolarize

417
Q

what is a P wave?

A

atrial depolarization

418
Q

what is QRS wave?

A

ventricular depolarization

419
Q

what is T wave?

A

ventricular repolarization

420
Q

what is the order in a ECG recording? (the letter waves)

A

P QRS T

421
Q

when is atrial depolarization?

A

in QRS wave but it has a weak signal. before the ventricular contraction

422
Q

list in order when the valves open and close

A

mitral valve closes, aortic valve opens, aortic valve closes, mitral valve opens

423
Q

what causes the heart sounds?

A

first sound (S1): mitral valve closing. second sound (S2): aortic valve closing

424
Q

list in order, the steps of the cardiac cycle

A
  1. atrial systole. 2. isovolumetric contraction. 3. rapid ejection. 4. reduced ejection. 5. isovolumetric relaxation. 6. rapid filling. 7. reduced filling.
425
Q

what happens in atrial systole?

A

atria contracts. ventricles in diastole. blood pushed into ventricles. QRS complex starts at end

426
Q

what are the two phases of the cardiac cycle?

A

systole: ventricular contraction. diastole: ventricular relaxation

427
Q

what happens in isovolumetric contraction?

A

atria relaxes. ventricles contract (systole). no blood ejected. QRS complex starts

428
Q

what happens in rapid ejection?

A

aortic and pulmonary valves open. blood rushes into aorta and pulmonary trunk. ventricle contracts, increasing pressure

429
Q

what happens in reduced ejection?

A

pressure decrease in aorta. pressure in atria rises as it slowly fills up with blood. T wave starts (ventricular repolarization)

430
Q

what happens in isovolumetric relaxation?

A

semilunar valve (aortic) closes. ventricle enters diastole. av valves closed so volume in ventricle doesnt change

431
Q

what happens in rapid filling?

A

pressure in atria exceeds ventricle’s. av valve opens. blood moves into ventricle from atria

432
Q

what happens in reduced filling?

A

blood flows into heart from vena cava and pulmonary arteries. av valve open. p-wave starts, triggering atrial contraction

433
Q

what are the functional divisions of the respiratory system?

A

conducting and respiratory

434
Q

what does the conducting division of the respiratory system contain?

A

nasal cavities to terminal bronchioles

435
Q

what does the respiratory division of the respiratory system contain?

A

respiratory bronchioles to alveoli

436
Q

what does the upper division of the respiratory system contain?

A

nose and pharynx

437
Q

what does the lower division of the respiratory system contain?

A

larynx, trachea, bronchioles, alveoli

438
Q

what are the structural divisions of the respiratory system?

A

upper and lower

439
Q

what are the parts of the pharynx?

A

naso, oro, laryngo

440
Q

where is the cribriform plate?

A

at the top of the nasal cavity. it is part of the skull

441
Q

what are the mucous linings on the nasal cavity?

A

olfactory (on the cribriform plate) and respiratory

442
Q

what connects the nasal cavity to the larynx?

A

pharynx

443
Q

describe the 3 sections of the pharynx (what goes thru it)

A

nasophraynx (air only). oropharynx (air and food). laryngopharynx (divides air and food)

444
Q

what are the functions of the larynx?

A

prevents food from entering trachea. permits air. produces vocals

445
Q

what are the 9 cartilages of the larynx?

A

thyroid, cricoid, epiglottis, arytenoid, cuneiform, corniculate

446
Q

which of the 9 cartilages of the larynx are in pairs?

A

arytenoid, cuneiform, corniculate

447
Q

where is the vestibular fold?

A

above vocal folds

448
Q

where does the trachea divide into primary bronchi?

A

carina

449
Q

differentiate between left and right primary bronchi. sizes and amount of lobes

A

left is longer and more wider. right is shorter but goes vertical. left has 2 lobes and right has 3

450
Q

list the path of the respiratory zone

A

tertiary bronchiole, respiratory bronchiole, alveolar duct, alveoli

451
Q

what are the two types of alveoli cells. differentiate between them

A

type 1 pneumocytes are long and flat. make up walls of alveoli and interface with pulmonary cavities. type 2 pneumocytes are cuboidal. they secrete surfactant to reduce surface tension. allows alveoli to remain popped open

452
Q

what are the surfaces of the lung?

A

costal surface, diaphragmatic surface, mediastinal surface (aka hilum)

453
Q

how many fissures does the right lung have? name them

A

2 (for 3 lobes): oblique and horizontal

454
Q

how many fissures does the left lung have? name them

A

1 (for 2 lobes): oblique

455
Q

which lung has a lingula?

A

left

456
Q

describe the pulmonary ligament

A

double layer of pleura from visceral to parietal

457
Q

what is the outer layer of the pleural cavity? inner layer?

A

outer layer: parietal. inner layer: visceral

458
Q

what is the relationship between alveolar pressure and atmospheric pressure?

A

alveolar pressure = atmospheric pressure

459
Q

when the thoracic cage expands…? (pressure)

A

parietal pleura expands too, decreasing intrapleural pressure. lung expands decreasing alveolar pressure

460
Q

what is pneumothorax?

A

when air exists in the thorax (it shouldnt be there!). caused by a puncture to pleural membrane

461
Q

what to note about the pressure and resistance of bronchial (systemic) circulation?

A

high pressure and high resistance

462
Q

what to note about the pressure and resistance of pulmonary circulation in the lungs?

A

low pressure and low resistance

463
Q

whats the goal of bronchial (systemic) circulation?

A

perfuse lung tissue

464
Q

what are the 3 zones in order oxygen must pass thru?

A

alveoli, fused basement membrane, pulmonary capillary

465
Q

what are the 3 zones in order carbon dioxide must pass thru?

A

pulmonary capillary, fused basement membrane, alveoli

466
Q

what is ventilation?

A

air in alveoli

467
Q

what is perfusion?

A

blood flow thru capillaries

468
Q

what is gas exchange dependent on?

A

V/Q: alveolar ventilation/cardiac output (perfusion)

469
Q

what is shunt?

A

perfusion but no ventilation

470
Q

what is dead space?

A

ventilation but no perfusion

471
Q

what is pulmonary edema?

A

leads to shunt. swelling and leaking of pulmonary capillaries caused fluid to accumulate and increases pressure in interstitium

health sci 2300 (7 decks)

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