QUESTIONS Flashcards
(100 cards)
1
Q
in general, how many days should be allowed for diet changes in dogs and cats?
A
5 to 7 days
2
Q
on average, an adult horse consumes approximately how many gallons of water per day?
A
10 to 15
3
Q
which of the following vitamins is/are water soluble? A. vitamines A and D B. vitamin E C. vitamin B12 D. vitamin K
A
C. vitamin B12
4
Q
patients with pancreatitis or hyperlipidemia should avoid foods high in what?
A
fats
5
Q
what is the normal urine pH for a cat?
A
6.2
6
Q
alfalfa is a palatable source of protein for herbivores. in what macromineral is alfalfa also abundant?
A
calcium
7
Q
The vitamin C level in guinea pig food declines after how many months of storage?
A
3 months
8
Q
which of these signs is not seen in fearful animals?
A. constricted pupils
B. standing or lying tensely at the rear of the cage
C. facing the back corner of the cage, glancing over the shoulder to keep people in sight
D. ears pulled back
A
A, constricted pupils
9
Q
you are asked to infuse intravenously 500mL of fluids over 6 hours. The administration set is calibrated at 20 drops/mL. After 4 hours you observe that 150mL have been infused. What should the adjusted drip rate be?
A
58 drops/min
10
Q
what condition is not exacerbated by obesity?
A
Hyperthyroidism
11
Q
what species is least likely to require frequent cage cleaning?
A
gerbils
12
Q
adult males of what species should not be group-housed? A. rats B. mice C. guinea pigs D. gerbils
A
B. mice
13
Q
the most important ingested nutrient is what?
A
water
14
Q
a dog experiencing shock my have fluid replacement provided by all of the following. The least desirable is: A. crystalloids B. Hypertonic saline C. Dextrose D. Colloids
A
C. Dextrose
15
Q
a normal CVP range is?
A
0 to 10 cm H2O
16
Q
multiple parameters are measured to determine a category of shock that an animal may be experiencing. The central venous pressure is high in which of the following types of shock? A. traumatic B. Septic C. Hypovolemic D. Cardiogenic
A
Cardiogenic
17
Q
which of the following is a colloid solution? A. blood B. lactated ringers C. nomosol-R D. plasmalyte 148
A
A. blood
18
Q
eclampsia produces elevated body temperatures, resulting from?
A
heat produced through muscle movement
19
Q
the most common artery to use when assessing the pulse of a dog or cat is?
A
femoral
20
Q
if a dog that recieves parenteral fluids is pyrexic, how much additional fluid should be added to the maintenance fluid dose?
A
10%
21
Q
which would be considered the least important physical measure evaluated during triage of a patient? A. heart rate B. respiratory rate C. capillary refill time D. weight
A
D. weight
22
Q
normal urine output in cats and dogs is?
A
1 to 2 mL/kg/hr
23
Q
petechial hemorrhage on the mucous membranes can indicate?
A
thrombocytopenia
24
Q
crackles on thoracic auscultation indicate?
A
fluid in the lungs
25
what is the recommended dosage for intratracheal drug administration during cardiac arrest?
double the intravenous dosage
26
the scientific name of the mouse pinworm is?
Aspiculuris
27
a rabbit with purulent nasal discharge and conjunctivitis would most likely be affected by?
snuffles
28
```
normal body temperature is highest in the:
A. Pigeon
B. Hamster
C. Rat
D. Rabbit
```
pigeon
29
animals that are free of absolutely all microorganisms and parasites are called?
axenic
30
4 to 5 mice housed together have large areas of alopecia on their muzzles. The most likely problem is?
barbering
31
```
which of these is a zoonotic disease of sheep?
A. psittacios
B. orf
C. shigellosis
D. yellpw fever
```
B. Orf
32
the preferred temperature for most laboratory rodents is?
21*C
33
tyzzer's disease is caused by?
Clostridium piliforme
34
what average weight do you expect your male adult mice and rats to be respectively?
30g and 500g
35
the gland of mice and rats that secrete prophyrin in the tears is?
Harderian gland
36
regarding anatomy of mice and rats,
A. mice have 5 pairs of mammary glands and rats have 6 pairs
B. the aglandular section of the stomach is rich in histamine-producing cells
C.mice and rats both pant and have sweat glands
D.rats and mice have a gall bladder
A. mice have 5 pairs of mammary glands and rats have 6 pairs
37
the gestation period, estrous cycle, and average litter size of hamsters, respectively, are about ___
16 days, 4 to 5 days, and 5 to 9 young
38
sinus arrhythmia occurs when?
heart and pulse rates increase with inspiration and decrease with expiration
39
the cages of immunocompromised animals should be cleaned when?
before cleaning the general nursing wards
40
milk fever is caused by what?
lower blood calcium level
41
```
grass tetany in cattle:
A. occurs in midsummer
B. caused by low blood calcium level
C. caused by low blood magnesium level
D. occurs in midwinter
```
C. caused by low blood magnesium level
42
```
which of these IV fluids would increase oncotic (osmotic) pressure?
A.lactated ringers
B.5% dextrose in water
C.normal saline
D.hetastarch
```
D. hetastarch
43
what sling is used to stabilize the coxofemoral joint?
ehmer
44
what fluid should you choose to lavage a deep traumatic wound?
warm sterile saline
45
which statement is true about rabies?
A. contact with infected urine is the most common mode of transmission
B. bites from suspected animals should be left untreated to prevent spreading the virus
C. rural dogs develop natural immunity to rabies because of their exposure to wild animals
D.dogs, cats, horse, and cows can transmit rabies, but rabbits, gerbils, hamster, and mice seldom do
D. dogs, cats, horse, and cows can transmit rabies, but rabbit, gerbils, hamster, and mice seldom do
46
what bacterium that is pathogenic to humans is contracted from chicken, horses, and reptiles?
Salmonella
47
a Wood's lamp can be used to detect what condition in the dog?
ringworm
48
```
which of the following agents is not safe for cats?
A. halogens
B. coal tar
C. benzoyl peroxide
D. chlorhexidine
```
coal tar
49
the function of the anal gland is to _____
produce a scented material to mark territory
50
the main purpose of the x-ray fixer is to ______
clear away the unexposed, undeveloped silver halide crystals
51
what should be the maximum intensity of the bulb in a safelight in developing rooms?
15 watts
52
safelight fogging on a radiograph appears as a _____
diffuse grayish area
53
if you were going to decrease the focal film distance from 100 cm to 50 cm, what should you new mAs be if the old mAs was 16?
4.0 mAs
54
to get more density on a film, you should do what to the kVp and mAs?
increase either or both
55
if using rare-earth screens, what spectrum of light must the film be sensitive to?
green range
56
the crystals of high-speed screens, as compared to similar types of par screens are ____
bigger, and there is less detail
57
for cervical studies you should center the primary beam at ____
C3 and C4
58
an intravenous pyelogram (IVP) is also referred to as a(n) _____
excretory urogram
59
the film-focal distance for a dental radiograph machine is _____ inches
16
60
the bisecting angle technique is associated with taking an x-ray of the ______
teeth
61
a black "tree" pattern artifact on the film is caused by _____
static electrical charge
62
the imaging technique that involves a plezoelectric crystal within a transducer is _____
ultrasound
63
```
images are displayed in real time in which of the following?
A.Ultrasound and fluoroscopy
B. CT and MRI
C. Scintigraphy
D. PET scan
```
A. ultrasound and fluoroscopy
64
```
which of the following involves no ionizing radiation to create the image?
A. Scintigraphy
B. CT
C. MRI
D. Fluoroscopy
```
C. MRI
65
which joints must be included in a radiograph of the humerus?
the humeroradial and scapulaohumeral jionts
66
```
which drug is the most potent sedative?
A. xylazine
B. detomidine
C. acepromazine
D. diazepam
```
detomidine
67
epidural techniques are used in many species, but the primary disadvantage in animals is ____
movement of the patient
68
a 10% solution of thiopental sodium for anesthetic induction contains ____
100 mg/mL
69
diazepam is used to produce what?
muscle relazation
70
```
epinephrine:
A, increased the heart rate
B. decreases the heart rate
C. decreases the blood pressure
D. should be used to reverse the effects of acepromazine
```
A. increases the heart rate
71
```
A diadvantage of breathing 50% nitrous oxide that is:
A. decrease the arterial PaO2
B. increases the arterial PaO2
C. slows the induction time
D> prolongs the recovery time
```
A. decreases the arterial PaO2
72
apneustic breathing patterns are frequently seen in cats with us of ______
ketamine
73
the dosage of Acepromazine is 0.1 mg.kg and the maximum dose is 4 mg. How many milligrams would you administer to a 60-kg dog?
4
74
the most reliable sign of inadequate anesthetic depth is what?
responsive movement
75
a half-full tank of nitrous oxide gas has a pressure of what?
750 psi
76
precision vaporizers, such as those used for isoflurane, work correctly when placed where?
out of the circle
77
an intravenous catheter should be:
A. large enough to allow adequate fluid delivery, if cardiac arrest occurs
B. as small as possible to avoid pain
C. place in critically ill patients only
D. left in place for at least 3 days after surgery
A. large enough to allow adequate fluid delivery, if cardiac arrest occurs
78
the pressure of gas that enters the flowmeter of an inhalant anesthesic machine is ___
50 to 60 psi
79
the best method for determining the proper inflation of an endotracheal tube cuff is ____
inject are while applying pressure from the reservoir bag until no air escapes around the tube
80
the responsibilities of the anesthetist during surgical procedure include continuous monitoring of the patient's vital signs and recording observations at approximately ____ intervals
5-minute intervals
81
once extubated, all animals should be place in ____
sternal recumbency with the neck extended
82
it is a cause for concern if an anesthetied cat;s heart rate falls below ____
100 bpm
83
```
malignant hyperthermia is a potentially fatal syndrome to the anesthetized patient, which of the species is most prone to this condition?
A. cattle
B. pigs
C.dogs
D. goats
```
B. pigs
84
what stage of anesthesia may be characterized by vocalization, struggling, and breath holding?
stage II
85
intravenous sodium bicarbonate is used to ____
combat acidosis
86
```
doxapram may produce all of the following except:
A. CNS depression
B. increase ventilation rate
C. respiratory alkalosis
D. hypoventilation
```
D. hypoventilation
87
______ is an analgesic and sedative
xylazine
88
______ is a concern when recovering a patient from anesthesia if nitrous oxide has been used
dissusion hypoxia
89
```
a patient's hydration status can be assessed by all of the following except:
A. repsiratory rate
B. PCV
C. Total soilds
D> skin turgor
```
A. respiratory rate
90
a/an _____ in the blood stimulates the animal to take a breath
increase in carbon dioxide
91
if the soda lime canister is exhauster, the patient may become _____
hypercapnic
92
a small animal patient's systolic blood pressure was measured at 50 mm HG. what is your best course of action?
increase the drip rate of the IV fluids
93
the usual induction vaporizer setting for sevoflurane is _____
5% to 7%
94
Acepromazine is classified as a (an) ____
phenothiazine
95
a capnograph measures what?
expired CO2
96
```
which of the following is least commonly used in cattle to perform procedures?
A. sedation
B. restraint
C. general anesthesia
D. local anesthesia
```
C.general anesthesia
97
by which route can short-acting barbiturate drugs be safely administered to induce general anesthesia?
IV
98
```
the ideal inhalant anesthetic should have all of the following characteristics except:
A. low vapor pressure
B. high solubility coefficient
C. low MAC
D. provide good muscle relaxation
```
B. high solubility coefficeint
99
ideally, in a patient under anesthesia:
A. the PaO2 should be high, and the PaCO2 should be low
B. The PaO2 should be high, and the PaCO2 should behigh
C. the PaO2 should be low, and the PaCO2 shold be low
D. the PaO2 should be low, and the PaCO2 should be high
A. The PaO2 should be high, and the PaCO2 should be low
100
```
Which of the following is a component of a Bain anesthetic circuit?
A. a reservoir bag
B. unidirectional valves
C. oxygen flush valve
D. carbon dioxide absorber
```
A. a reservoir bag
