Questions Flashcards
1
Q
Sound wave are
a. electric
b. mechanical, transverse
c. spectral
d. longitudinal, mechanical
A
longitudinal, mechanical
2
Q
The speed of US in soft tissue is closest to:
a. 1,540 km/sec
b. 1.54 km/msec
c. 1,500 m/s
d. 1,540 mm/sec
A
1,500 m/s
3
Q
The frequency closest to the lower limit of US is:
a. 19,000 kHz
b. 10,000 MHz
c. 20,000 msec
d. 15,000Hz
A
15,000 HZ
4
Q
Which is not an acoustic variable?
a. density
b. pressure
c. distance
d. intensity
A
intensity
5
Q
The effects of soft tissue on US are called:
a. acoustic proliferation properties
b. dynamic effects
c. acoustic propagation properties
d. biologic effects
A
acoustic propagation properties
6
Q
All of the following are true except:
a. two waves with identical frequencies must interfere constructively.
b. constructive interference is associated with waves that are in-phase.
c. out of phase waves interfere destructively
d. waves of different frequencies may exhibit both constructive and destructive interference at different times.
A
two waves with identical frequencies must interfere constructively
7
Q
Put in decreasing order:
a. deca
b. deci
c. micro
d. centi
A
deca
deci
centi
micro
8
Q
_________ is the time to complete one cycle.
A
Period
9
Q
Which of the following sound waves is ultrasonic and least useful in diagnostic imaging?
a. 30 KHz
b. 8 MHz
c. 8,000 Hz
d. 15 Hz
A
30 KHz
10
Q
What is the frequency of a wave with 1 msec period?
a. 10,000 Hz
b. 1,000 kHz
c. 1 kHz
d. 1 MHz
A
1 kHz
11
Q
_____ Is the distance covered by one cycle.
A
wavelength
12
Q
Which of the following is determined by the source and medium?
a. frequency
b. period
c. propagation speed
d. range resolution
A
range resolution
13
Q
Propagation speed = _____ X wavelength
A
frequency
14
Q
As a result of ____ the propagation speed increases.
a. increasing stiffness and increasing density
b. increasing stiffness and increasing elasticity
c. decreasing compressibility and decreasing density
d. decreasing stiffness and decreasing density
A
decreasing compressibility and decreasing density
15
Q
Put in decreasing order of propagation speed:
a. gas
b. liquid
c. solid
A
solid
liquid
gas
16
Q
If the frequency of US is increased from 0.77 MHz to 1.54MHz, what happens to the wavelength?
a. doubles
b. halved
c. remains the same
d. 4 times greater
A
halved
17
Q
A sound waves frequency is 10 MHz. The wave is traveling in soft tissue, what is the wavelength?
a. 0.15 mm
b. 1.54 mm
c. 15.4 mm
d. 0.77 mm
e. 10 MHz
A
0.15 mm
18
Q
If the frequency of an US wave is doubled, what happens to the period?
a. doubled
b. halved
c. remains the same
d. 4 times greater
A
halved
19
Q
If the frequency of US is increased from 0.77 MHz to 1.54MHz, what happens to the propagation speed?
a. doubles
b. halved
c. remains the same
d. 4 times greater
A
remains the same
20
Q
The units of pulse repetition frequency are?
a. per minute
b. msec
c. mm/microsec
d. MHx
A
per minute
21
Q
The time from the beginning of a pulse until its end is _______.
A
pulse duration
22
Q
What happens to the speed of sound in a medium when the bulk modules of the medium increases?
a. faster
b. slower
c. unchanged
A
faster
23
Q
_______ resolution is determined by the spatial pulse length.
A
radial or axial
24
Q
If a waves amplitude is doubled, what happens to the power?
a. nothing
b. halved
c. doubled
d. quadrupled
A
quadrupled
25
If the level of an acoustic variable ranges from 55 to 105, what is the amplitude?
a. 105
b. 50
c. 25
d. 55
25
26
Power of sound has units of?
watts
27
If the intensity of a sound beam remains unchanged while the beam area is reduced in half, what has happened to the power?
a. quadrupled
b. doubled
c. halved
d. unchanged
halved
28
Which of these intensities is smallest?
a. SATP
b. SPTP
c. SATA
SATA
29
The duty factor for continuous wave ultrasound is?
a. 10.0
b. 1%
c. 1.0
d. 0.0%
1.0
30
What is the minimum value of the duty factor?
a. 10.0
b. 1%
c. 1.0
d. 0.0%
0.0%
31
What are the units of intensity?
watts/cm^2
32
What happens to the speed of sound in a medium when the bulk modules of the medium decrease?
a. faster
b. slower
c. unchanged
slower
33
The units of attenuation are _____; this is a _____ scale.
a. mm/cm, parametric
b. dB/m, multiplicative
c. none, relative
d. dB, logarithmic
dB, logarithmic
34
Sound intensity is decreased by 75%. How many decibels of attenuation is this?
a. 6 dB
b. 9dB
c. 5 dB
d. 10dB
6dB
35
The fundamental frequency of a transducer is 2.5MHz. What is the second harmonic frequency?
a. 1.25 MHz
b. 4.5 MHz
c. 5 MHz
d. 5cm
5 MHz
36
A pulse is emitted by a transducer and is traveling in soft tissue. The go return time or time of flight, of a sound pulse is 130 microseconds. What is the reflector depth?
a. 10cm
b. 10mm
c. 10m
d. 130mm
e. 13cm
10cm
37
If a 5MHz sound wave is traveling in the tissues listed below, which will have the longest wavelength?
a. fat
b. air
c. muscle
d. bone
bone
38
If a 5MHz sound wave is traveling in the tissues listed below, which will have the shortest wavelength?
a. fat
b. air
c. muscle
d. bone
air
39
What is the approximate attenuation coefficient of 1 MHz US in soft tissue?
a. 0.5 dB/cm
b. 1 cm
c. 3 dB/cm
d. 1 dB
0.5 dB/cm
40
The rayl is the unit of:
impedance
41
Impedance is the _____ of ______ and _______.
a. product, propagation speed, density
b. sum, stiffness, density
c. quotient, stiffness, propagation speed
d. difference, attenuation, density
product, propagation speed and density
42
What are attenuation's three components?
scattering, reflection and absorption
43
For soft tissue, the approximate attenuation coefficient in db/cm is equal to one-half ____ in ______.
a. wavelength, Hz
b. frequency, Hz
c. frequency, MHz
d. impedance, rayls
frequency, MHz
44
As the impedances of two media become vastly different, the
a. reflection increases
b. transmission increases
c. refraction increases
d. absorption increases
reflection increases
45
The angle between an US pulse and the boundary between two media is 90 degrees. What is this called?
a. direct incidence
b. oblique incidence
c. indirect incidence
d. orthogonal incidence
orthogonal incidence
46
The angle between an US pulse and the boundary between two media is 56 degrees. What is this called?
a. direct incidence
b. oblique incidence
c. indirect incidence
d. orthogonal incidence
oblique incidence
47
Refraction only occurs if there are:
a. normal incidence and different impedances
b. indirect intensity and different propagation speeds
c. oblique incidence and different propagation speeds
d. oblique frequency and identical impedances
oblique incidence and different propagation speeds
48
With normal incidence, what factors affect refraction of US?
a. propagation speed
b. frequencies
c. attenuation coefficients
d. none of the above
none of the above
49
(True or False) With right angle incidence, reflections are always generated at a boundary if the propagation speeds of the media are different.
false
50
____ is a reduction of US in many directions as a result of a rough boundary between two media.
a. refraction
b. Rayleigh scattering
c. scattering
d. reflection
scattering
51
Which of the following tissues is most likely to create Rayleigh Scattering?
a. red blood cells
b. muscle
c. fat
d. bone
red blood cells
52
(True or False) with normal incidence the angle is 180 degrees.
false
53
Under which of the following conditions is axial resolution improved?
a. decreased spatial pulse length
b. decreased pulse amplitude
c. decreased imaging depth
d. decreased pixel size
e. decreased beam diameter
decreased spatial pulse length
54
Snells law describes physics of ________.
refraction
55
The most likely amount of reflection at a boundary between soft tissue is:
a. 1%
b. 22%
c. 34%
d. 99%
1%
56
The most typical amount of transmission at a boundary in biologic media is:
a. 1%
b. 22%
c. 34%
d. 99%
99%
57
Sound is traveling from medium 1 to medium 2. Propagation speeds of M1 and M2 are 1,600m/s and 1,500m/s, respectively. There is oblique incidence.
a. angle of incidence > angle of reflection
b. angle of incidence = angle of reflection
c. angle of incidence
angle of incidence = angle of reflection
58
(True or False) Doppler shifts always occur if the sound source and receiver are in motion.
False
59
Which of the following is associated with power mode Doppler?
a. poor temporal resolution and flash artifact
b. lower sensitivity and good temporal resolution
c. high sensitivity and high frame rates
d. flash artifact and reduced sensitivity
e. good temporal resolution and flash artifact
poor temporal resolution and flash artifact
60
The doppler shift is a measure of:
a. ratio of incident frequency to reflector frequency
b. sum of incident frequency and reflected frequency
c. difference between incident and reflected frequency
d. product of incident and reflected frequencies
difference between incident and reflected frequency
61
(True or False) The sonographer cannot change, directly or indirectly, the duty factor of an US machine.
false
62
Depth calibration of a machine measures 100mm spaced wires to be 90mm apart. Scanning reflectors 50mm apart, what will the machine calculate the distance to be?
a. 40mm
b. 45mm
c. 60mm
d. 65mm
45mm
63
(True or False) There have not been biological effects from US found in the laboratory.
false
64
In an analog scan converter, what component stores the image data?
dielectric matrix
65
Which has the correct order?
mega-milli-kilo-micro
a. 10^6 10^-6 10^3 10^-3
b. 10^6 10^-3 10^3 10^-6
10^6 10^-3 10^3 10^-6
66
How many cm are in 60 millimeters
6
67
(True or False) Lateral resolution is also called axial.
false
68
(True or False) Lateral resolution is also called azimuthal
true
69
(True or False) Lateral resolution is also called longitudinal.
false
70
(True or False) Lateral resolution is also called range.
false
71
```
Which has the correct units?
Freq Speed Intensity Attenuation
a. Hz mm/s joules dB/cm
b. mHz m/sec W/cm^2 dB
c. kHz mm/us W/cm^3 dB/cm
```
mHz m/sec W/cm^2 dB
72
What increases patient exposure?
a. exam time
b. frequency
c. video taping
d. wavelength
exam time
73
(True or False) Shadowing may result from high amounts of reflection of US energy.
True
74
Where are harmonics created?
a. in the receiver
b. in the transducer
c. in the tissues
d. in the beam former
in the tissues
75
How is range ambiguity artifact eliminated?
a. lower the PRF
b. raise the PRF
c. increase the gain
d. use a lower frequency transducer
lower the PRF
76
How is lateral resolution measured if this test object is scanned from the top?
a. measure the distance from A to E
b. measure the length of line C and divide by 2
c. measure the length of line B
**this is the question with image**
measure the length of line B
77
For Doppler, which incident angle results in no shift?
a. 180
b. 90
c. 0
d. 45
90
78
Which transducer would be best to image superficial structures?
a. small diameter, high frequency
b. small diameter, low frequency
c. large diameter, high frequency
d. large diameter, low frequency
small diameter,high frequency
79
A transducer with more than one active element is called?
a. multipurpose
b. annular
c. mechanical
d. array
array
80
How many bits are needed to represent 16 shades of grey?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
4
81
What information does Doppler shift provide?
a. flow
b. cardiac output
c. velocity
d. speed
velocity
82
(True or False) A sound wave is a pressure wave made of compressions and rarefractions.
true
83
A hydrophone is used to measure
a. velocity
b. frequency
c. intensity
d. phase
intensity or frequency
84
Images on videotape are stored using:
a. magic
b. magnetism
c. paper
d. computer memory
magnetism
85
Circumferences may be measured in unit of:
a. cm
b. cm squared
c. cubic cm
d. cubits
cm
86
Decimal uses a base of 10, binary uses a base of
a. 1
b. 2
c. 5
d. 10
2
87
If the frame rate increases and the lines per frame is unchanged, what else must happen?
a. US speed increases
b. frequency increases
c. depth increases
d. depth decreases
depth decreases
88
Which of these cannot be performed by a sonographer?
a. adjust overall gain
b. clean VCR recording heads
c. clean pixels
d. adjust TGC
clean pixels
89
Which of the following is not a beam steering technique for a mechanical scanhead?
a. rotating wheel
b. phased beam
c. oscillating disc
d. oscillating mirror
phased beam
90
(True or False) A system which was working well now does not display clear images in the far field. This may be a problem with the transducer
true
91
(True or False) A system which was working well now does not display clear images in the far field. This may be a problem with the receiver
true
92
(True or False) A system which was working well now does not display clear images in the far field. This may be a problem with the monitor
true
93
(True or False) A system which was working well now does not display clear images in the far field. This may be a problem with the scan converter
true
94
How many decibels is related to 90% decrease in imaging power
-10dB
95
If the output of an US machine is calibrated in dB and the output is increased by 20 dB, the beam intensity is increased
a. 100 times
b. 1,000,000 times
c. 20 times
d. 10 times
100 times
96
Which has the greatest amount of attenuation?
a. bone
b. fat
c. water
d. muscle
done
97
Which of the following will result in the greatest number of shades of gray in a digital image display?
a. large pixels with many bits/pixel
b. small pixels with few bits/pixel
c. many TV lines per frame
d. high contrast
e. narrow dynamic range
large pixels with many bits/pixel
98
What is not the responsibility of the sonographer?
a. clean the filters
b. adjust the recorder
c. adjust converter matrix
d. change paper
adjust the converter matrix
99
With good images on the CRT but not on the strip chart recorder, one should
a. increase the gain
b. check the scan head
c. check scan converter
d. adjust the recorder
adjust the recorder
100
To measure the US beam intensity, use a
a. calibrated hydrophone
b. lateral oscilloscope
c. water filled phantom
d. tissue equivalent phantom
calibrated hydrophone
101
When the US machine displays only strong reflecting objects and nothing else, the sonographer should
a. adjust far gain
b. increase output power
c. increase lateral resolution
d. adjust the TGC
increase output power
102
Compression is used to
a. decrease the amplitude
b. decrease the range of amplitudes
c. decrease the range of frequencies
decrease the range of amplitudes
103
Reject is used to
a. adjust the appearance of highly reflective objects
b. adjust the appearance of lowly reflective objects
c. improve axial resolution
d. improve digital scan
adjust the appearance of lowly reflective objects
104
If a reflector is moved twice as far away from the transducer, how will this affect the time of flight of a sound pulse?
a. quadruple it
b. double it
c. no change
d. halve it
double it
105
A single element transducer is focused
a. by the manufacturer
b. cannot be focused
c. by increasing power
d. by the sonogropher
by the manufacturer
106
An US machine has a digital scan converter but has an analog input signal. The machine needs to have a
a. hybrid multiplexer
b. modem
c. analog to digital converter
d. digital monitor
analog to digital converter
107
Under which of the following conditions is lateral resolution improved?
a. decreased beam diameter
b. decreased pulse duration
c. decreased imaging depth
d. decreased pixel size
e. decreased spatial pulse length
decreased beam diameter
108
In which way is an annular phase array transducer different than a linear phased array transducer?
a. the linear is steered mechanically
b. the linear can have multiple focal zones
c. the annular can create a sector shaped image
d. the linear has higher pulse repetition frequency
e. the annular is steered mechanically
the annular is steered mechanically
109
In which of these biologic tissues will sound waves propagate most quickly?
a. tendon
b. blood
c. lung
d. fat
e. amniotic fluid
tendon
110
Which of the following best describes a sound beam?
a. electrical impulses
b. a collection of mechanical vibrations in the form of compressions and rarefractions
c. a wave that man can hear
d. electromechanical
e. ionic vibrations
a collection of mechanical vibrations in the form od compressions and rarefractions
111
You are performing a quality assurance study on an ultrasound system using a tissue equivalent phantom. You make an adjustment using a knob on the system console that changes the appearance of reflector brightness from fully bright to barely visible. What are you evaluating?
a. resolution
b. dynamic range
c. system sensitivity
d. vertical calibration
e. slice thickness
system sensitivity
112
Which of the following best describes the features of a sound wave and medium that determine the speed of sound in the medium?
a. density of the medium and stiffness of the medium
b. density of the medium and power of the sound beam
c. elasticity of the medium and frequency of the sound beam
d. stiffness of the medium and elasticity of the medium
e. pulse repetition period of the sound wave and density of the medium
density of the medium and stiffness of the medium
113
While scanning in a water tank, what location in a sound beam has the highest intensity?
a. focal point
b. focal zone
c. Fresnel zone
d. Fraunhofer zone
e. half the value depth
focal point
114
Which of these factors has the greatest influence on pulse repetition period?
a. display depth
b. thickness of the PZT crystal
c. attenuation of the sound beam
d. impedance of the medium
e. displays dynamic range
display depth
115
Which of the following choices best describes an ideal epidemiologic bioeffects study?
a. randomized and prospective
b. benefits outweigh the risks
c. retrospective and optimized
d. ideal and non-biased
e. prudent and safe
randomized and prospective
116
Which of the following will result in the highest mechanical index?
a. high frequency and low power
b. high intensity and high frequency
c. low frequency and high signal amplitude
d. low intensity and low frequency
low frequency and high signal amplitude
117
All of the following statements regarding in-vitro bioeffects are true except:
a. in vitro bioeffects conclusions are clinically relevant
b. in vitro bioeffects are always real
c. in vitro bioeffects are very important
d. in vitro bioeffects may not be applicable to clinical settings
in vitro bioeffects onclusions are clinically relevant
118
Under which circumstance is the mechanical index highest?
a. high frequency and low power
b. high intensity and high frequency
c. low intensity and low frequency
d. low frequency and high signal amplitude
low frequency and high signal amplitude
119
Which of the following improves the signal-to-noise ratio?
a. dynamic range
b. frame averaging
c. gray scale
d. edge enhancement
e. receiver gain
frame averaging
120
Under which circumstance is cavitation most likely to occur?
a. high frequency and low power
b. high intensity and high frequency
c. low intensity and low frequency
d. low frequency and high signal amplitude
low frequency and high signal amplitude
121
What is the accuracy of reflector depth position on an A-mode, B-mode, or M-mode display called?
a. range resolution
b. horizontal calibration
c. axial resolution
d. speed error artifact
e. depth calibration
depth calibration
122
Pre-processing occurs
a. when the patient is scanned
b. when images are transferred to the VCR
c. after the images are on the tape
d. when the image exits the scan converter
when the patient is scanned
123
Post processing occurs when the image
a. is played off of the VCR
b. entered the A/D converter but before display
c. after it leaves the A/D converter
d. after it leaves the scan converter
entered the A/D converter but before display
124
The region from the transducer to the minimum beam cross-sectional area is the
a. Fraunhofer zone
b. Fresnel zone
c. focus
d. Snells length
fresnel zone
125
Biologic effects have not been documented below what intensity (SPTA)?
a. 100 W/cm
b. 100 mW/m^2
c. 100 mW/cm^2
d. 100 mW/cm^3
100 mW/cm^2
126
What is the standard for communication between medical imaging computers?
a. ALARA
b. PACS
c. D to A Conversion
d. DICOM
e. A to D Conversion
DICOM
127
The Curie temperature has which effect?
a. the backing material delaminates from the active element
b. the glue binding the crystal and matching layer melts
c. the ferroelectric material is depolarized
d. the matching layer changes its impedance
the ferroelectric material is depolarized
128
What happens to venous blood flow to the heart during expiration?
a. increased
b. decreased
c. unchanged
decreased
129
Which of the following has a propagation speed closest to "soft tissue"?
a. muscle
b. fat
c. bone
d. air
muscle
130
In a B-mode display, which of the following CRT inputs are used with the amplitude of the reflection?
a. z-axis
b. m-axis
c. x-axis
d. y-axis
e. time base axis
z-axis
131
What is displayed on the x-axis of an m-mode image?
a. time
b. time of flight
c. reflector depth
d. echo intensity
e. red blood cell velocity
time
132
What is displayed on the y-axis of an m-mode image?
a. time
b. time of flight
c. echo intensity
d. red blood cell velocity
time of flight
133
(True or False) A sonographers education ends when they become registered.
false
134
The dynamic range is the ratio of the smallest to the largest ______ that a system can process without distortion.
a. amplitude
b. frequency
c. phase delay
d. spatial length
amplitude
135
When may a patient revoke their consent to be treated?
a. at any time
b. when is is safe to terminate the procedure
c. never
at any time
136
If the intensity is increased by 3dB, it:
a. doubles
b. triples
c. halved
d. quartered
doubles
137
What determines the frequency of a sound beam from a pulsed transducer?
a. voltage applied to the PZT
b. PZT thickness
c. frequency of the system
d. PRF of the pulser
PZT thickness
138
While propagating, a sound wave is refracted. Finally it returns to the transducer. The system processes the sound wave as if it has:
a. refracted and returned
b. traveled in a straight line, reflected and returned
c. traveled in a straight line, attenuated, reflected and returned
traveled in a straight line, reflected and returned
139
What measures the output of a transducer?
a. receiver
b. display
c. hydrometer
d. hydrophone
hydrophone
140
The impedance of tissue is 3 X 10^5 rayls and for the PZT crystal is 6 X 10^6 rayls. What is the best impedance for the matching layer?
a. 36 X 10^6
b. 3,600
c. 10,000
d. 9.5 X 10^5
e. 9 X 10^4
9.5 X 10^5
141
Put in increasing order of propagation speed:
a. air, bone, water
b. bone, water, air
c. air, water, bone
d. water, air, bone
air, water, bone
142
Which type of artifact appears most commonly with highly reflective objects?
a. reverberations
b. mirroring
c. shadowing
d. enhancement
e. defocusing
enhancement
143
What can pulsed Doppler measure that continuous wave cannot?
a. duration
b. speed
c. velocity
d. location
e. frequency
location
144
What is the fraction of time that a transducer is transmitting?
a. duty factor
b. pulse duration
c. period
d. PRF spatial duration
duty factor
145
```
Which of the following clinical modalities has the lowest output intensity?
a, pulsed Doppler
b. continuous wave Doppler
c. power Doppler
d. duplex scanning
e. gray scale imaging
```
gray scale imaging
146
What is the location of the of the minimum cross-sectional area of the US beam called?
a. focus
b. fraunhofer zone
c. far zone
d. near zone
focus
147
the dB is defined as the ______ of two intensities.
a. sum
b. difference
c. product
d. ratio
ratio
148
The power of a sound wave is increased by a factor of 8, how many decibels is this?
a. 3dB
b. 6dB
c. 9dB
d. 8dB
9dB
149
An ultrasound system is set at 0 dB and is transmitting at full intensity. What is the output power when the system is transmitting at 50% of full intensity?
a. -3 dB
b. -50 dB
c. 10 dB
d. 3 dB
e. -10 dB
-3 dB
150
An ultrasound system is set at 0 dB and is transmitting at full intensity. What is the output power when the system is transmitting at 10% of full intensity?
a. -3 dB
b. -50 dB
c. 10 dB
d. 3 dB
e. -10 dB
-10 dB
151
The Doppler shift is the ___ of two frequencies.
a. sum
b. difference
c. product
d. ratio
difference
152
What is the propagation speed determined by?
a. wavelength
b. intensity & density
c. amplitude
d. density & elasticity
e. density &litude
density and amplitude
153
If 300,000 cycles occur in a second, what is the waves frequency?
a. 3 MHz
b. 30 kHz
c. 300 MHz
d. 3 kHz
e. 0.3 MHz
0.3 MHz
154
What would be the brightest B-mode spot when scanning the following?
**another picture question 154**
c
155
What may be a unit of amplitude?
a. cm
b. Hz
c. msec
d. watts
e. none of the above
cm
156
A Doppler exam is performed with a 5 MHz probe and a PRF of 15kHz. Which of these Doppler shifts will create aliasing?
a. 2 kHz
b. 2.5 kHz
c. 7.5 kHz
d. 14 kHz
14 kHz
157
Which of the following choices determines the signal amplitude in the transducer of ultrasound system?
a. reflected intensity of the sound beam
b. post processing
c. edge enhancement filtering
d. persistence
e. demodulation
reflected intensity of the sound beam
158
In an air-tissue interface, what percentage of the US is reflected?
a. 0%
b. near 0%
c. 50%
d. near 100%
near 100%
159
Traveling through the same medium, if the frequency is doubled, the wavelength is
a. unchanged
b. doubled
c. halved
d. quartered
halved
160
Traveling through same medium, if the frequency is doubled, the propagation speed is:
a. unchanged
b. doubled
c. halved
d. quartered
unchanged
161
(True or False) Increasing the frequency, increases the penetration depth.
False
162
(True or False) Axial resolution is affected by focusing.
False
163
If a manufacturer changed the lines per frame and kept the imaging depth the same, what else would change?
a. PRF
b. period
c. frame rate
frame rate
164
Which of the following has the greatest influence on temporal resolution?
a. propagation speed and the imaging depth
b. frequency of sound and the propagation speed
c. wavelength of sound and propagation speed
d. output power and frequency
propagation speed and the imaging depth
165
In a real time scanner, which of these choices determines the maximum frame rate?
a. depth of view
b. pixel size
c. attenuation coefficicent
d. beam diameter
e. lateral resolution
depth of view
166
Multiple reflections that are equally spaced are called:
a. refractions
b. reverberations
c. shadows
d. comets
reverberations
167
What artifact has a grainy appearance and is caused by the interference effects of scattered sound?
a. spackle
b. reverberation
c. slice thickness
d. speckle
e. section thickness
speckle
168
All of the following will improve temporal resolution except:
a. increased line density
b. single rather than multi focus
c. higher frame rate
d. shallower depth of view
e. slower speed of sound in a medium
increased line density
169
Impedance is the product of ___ and ____.
density and propagation speed
170
(True or False) The manufacturer increases the number of lines per frame. As a result, which of the following may have to be decreased?
Frequency
false
171
(True or False) The manufacturer increases the number of lines per frame. As a result, which of the following may have to be decreased?
frame rate
true
172
(True or False) The manufacturer increases the number of lines per frame. As a result, which of the following may have to be decreased?
sector angle
true
173
(True or False) The manufacturer increases the number of lines per frame. As a result, which of the following may have to be decreased?
imaging depth
true
174
(True or False) The manufacturer increases the number of lines per frame. As a result, which of the following may have to be decreased?
output power
false
175
What component of a transducer changes electrical to mechanical and mechanical back to electrical energy?
PZT
176
(True or False) Sonographers cannot affect a patients exposure to acoustic energy.
False
177
Attenuation of US in soft tissue is closest to:
a. 3 dB/1MHz
b. 1 dB/cm/10MHz
c. 2 dB/cm
d. 0.6 dB/cm/MHz
0.6 dB/cm/MHz
178
How many bits are needed to represent 14 shades of gray?
a. 14
b. 1
c. 4
d. 3
4
179
(True or False) Gray scale can be changed by sonographer.
True
180
The distance to a target is doubled. The time of flight for a pulse to travel to the target and back is:
a. 4 times
b. 8 times
c. the same
d. 2 times
2 times
181
If 3MHz sound has 2 dB of attenuation in 1cm of tissue, what is the amount of 6MHz sound in 0.5cm of the same tissue?
a. 5dB
b. 2dB
c. 10dB
d. 1.5dB
2dB
182
Volume has which of the following units?
a. cm
b. cm^2
c. cm^3
d. cm^4
cm^3
183
Which of the following is proportional to the square of the amplitude?
a. period
b. attenuation
c. power
d. frequency
e. speed
power
184
What are the typical clinical Doppler frequencies?
a. 1 - 10,000 Hz
b. 1 - 10 MHz
c. 2- 1,000kHz
d. 40 - 45 kHz
1 - 10,000 Hz
185
What Doppler angle is most inaccurate?
a. 15-30 degrees
b. 30-45 degrees
c. 45-60 degrees
d. 60-75 degrees
60-75 degrees
186
Changing which of the following would not cause any change in a hard copy image output?
a. TGC
b. overall gain
c. output power
d. display brightness and contrast
e. depth of view
display brightness and contrast
187
A quality assurance program:
a. is not needed in small labs
b. is very time consuming and expensive
c. in needed by all labs
d. cannot be performed by sonographers
is needed by all labs
188
What is the actual time that an US machine is creating a pulse?
a. duty factor
b. period
c. pulse period
d. pulse duration
pulse duration
189
The angle of incidence of an US beam is perpendicular to an interface. The two media have the same propagation speeds. What process cannot occur?
a. refraction
b. reflection
c. transmission
d. attenuation
refraction
190
What component of the US unit contains the memory bank?
a. transducer
b. receiver
c. display
d. scan converter
scan converter
191
An US wave travels through two media and has attenuation of 3dB in the first and 5dB in the second, What is the total attenuation?
a. 15dB
b. 8dB
c. 3/5 dB
d. 5/8 dB
8dB
192
According to the AIUM statement on bioeffects, there have been no confirmed bioeffects below intensities of ___ watts per square centimeter SPTA.
a. 10
b. 0.01
c. 0.1
d. 1
e. 100
0.1
193
# Fill in of an anechoic structure such as a cyst is known as all of the following except?
a. partial volume artifact
b. slice thickness artifact
c. section thickness artifact
d. ghosting artifact
ghosting artifact
194
What is the range of frequencies created by medical diagnositc Doppler transducers?
a. 4-10 Hz
b. 10-20 MHz
c. 1-10 kHz
d. 2-20 Hz
e. 2-10 MHz
2-10 MHz
195
(True or False) Doppler shifts are always created when the source and receiver are in motion relative to each other.
False
196
What is the significance of gray scale variation in the spectrum of a pulsed wave Doppler display?
a. it represents the number of red blood cells creating the reflection
b. it represents the velocity of red blood cells
c. it represents the speed of red blood cells
d. it represents the convergence of red blood cell lamina
e. it determines the ensemble length
it represents the number of red blood cells creating the reflection
197
Which one of the following sets of properties of a test phantom is most relevant when assessing depth calibration accuracy?
a. reflector spacing and reflection coefficent
b. attenuation and speed of US in the medium
c. reflector spacing and US attenuation in the medium
d. reflector reflection coefficient and US attenuation in the medium
e. reflector spacing and propagation speed
reflector spacing and propagation speed
198
Assuming a constant frequency, what happens if the diameter of an unfocused circular transducer is increased?
a. the distance to the far field is reduced
b. the beam width in the near field is reduced
c. the beam width in the near field is increased
d. the US wavelength is increased
the beam width in the near field is increased
199
From a safety standpoint, which one of the following methods is best?
a. low transmit output and high receiver gain
b. high transmit output and low receiver gain
c. high near gain and low far gain
d. low near gain and high far gain
e. high reject and high transmitter output
low transmit output and high receiver gain
200
The relative output of an US instrument is calibrated in dB and the operator increases the output by 60 dB. The beam intensity is increased by which of the following?
a. 5%
b. two times
c. twenty times
d. one hundred times
e. one million times
one million times
201
what is the most typical Doppler shift measured clinically?
a. 3.5 MHz
b. 3,500,000 Hz
c. 2 kHz
d. 1,000 kHz
e. 20,000 Hz
2 kHz
202
(True or False) Doppler shifts always occur if the source and receiver are in motion relative to each other.
False
203
(True or False) Doppler shifts always occur if the source and observer are in motion relative to each other and the angle between the motion and the sound beam is 90 degrees
False
204
(True or False) Doppler shifts always occur if the source and observer are in motion relative to each other and the angle between the motion and the sound beam is not 90 degrees
true
205
When the sound source and the receiver are not moving directly towards or away from each other, the ____ of the angle between them enters into the calculation of Doppler shift.
a. average
b. slope
c. sine
d. cosine
cosine
206
The range equation relates distance from the reflector to ___ and ____.
a. time of flight, distance
b. frequency, wavelength
c. time of flight, propagation speed
d. propagation speed, density
time of flight, propagation speed
207
In soft tissue: distance traveled = ____ X round trip time
a. propagation speed
b. wavelength
c. period
d. PRF
propagation speed
208
With the presence of ____ we see more boundaries than there are reflecting surfaces.
a. reverberations
b. shadowing
c. enhancement
d. arrays
reverberations
209
What is another name for longitudinal resolution?
a. axial
b. depth
c. lateral
d. transverse
axial or depth
210
What are the units of longitudinal resolution?
a. hertz
b. rayls
c. m/s
d. feet
feet
211
Which of the following is the best lateral resolution?
a. 15 mm
b. 6mm
c. 0.06cm
d. 2cm
0.06 cm
212
If the spatial pulse length is 10mm, what is the axial resolution?
a. 0.5cm
b. 5 cm
c. 10 mm
d. 1 cm
0.5 cm
213
If the frequency is decreased, the numerical value of radial resolution is
a. increased
b. decreased
c. unchanged
increased
214
A transducer ___ one form of ____ into another.
converts; energy
215
The production of a voltage from deformation is called?
a. piezoelectricity
b. impedance
c. cogeneration
d. flux
piezoelectricity
216
What is the production of deformation from voltage called?
a. piezoelectricity
b. impedance
c. cogeneration
d. flux
piezoelectricity
217
Which is not a part of a transducer?
a. active crystal
b. matching layer
c. A/D converter
d. wire
A/D converter
218
What is the fraunhofer?
a. focus
b. near zone
c. far zone
d. penetration depth
far zone
219
If we increase the frequency, the near zone length is:
a. increased
b. decreased
c. unchanged
increased
220
If the transducer diameter increases, the lateral resolution at its smallest dimension is:
a. increased
b. decreased
c. unchanged
increased
221
If we increase the transducer diameter, the beam diameter in the far zone is
a. increased
b. decreased
c. unchanged
decreased
222
At the focus the beam diameter is ____ the transducer diameter.
a. equal to
b. half
c. double
d. one fourth
half
223
Lateral resolution can be improved by:
a. increasing gain
b. decreasing gain
c. focusing
d. smoothing
focusing
224
(True or False) the digital scan converter has a number of pixels assigned to each bit.
False
225
The more bits per pixel:
a. the better the resolution
b. the higher the pixel density
c. the more shades of gray
d. higher reliability
the more shades of gray
226
The more pixels per inch:
a. the better the temporal resolution
b. the better is the spatial resolution
c. the more shades of gray
d. the higher the reliability
the better is the spatial resolution
227
Rectification and smoothing are components of which of the following?
a. amplification
b. decompensation
c. reject
d. demodulation
demodulation
228
What is the elimination of voltages that do not exceed a certain level?
a. amplification
b. decompensation
c. reject
d. demodulation
reject
229
What is the name of the receiver function that corrects for attenuation?
compensation
230
The process of reducing the difference between the smallest and largest voltages is called ____.
compression
231
If the lines per frame is increased while the imaging depth is unchanged then:
a. frame rate increases
b. number of shades of gray
c. the frame rate decreases
d. this cannot happen
the frame rate decreases
232
(True or False) A mirror image artifact can appear along side of the true anatomy.
False
233
Enhancement, multipath and side lobes result in:
a. image distortion
b. clearer image
c. artifact
d. resolution problems
artifact
234
The propagation speed of US in the AIUM test object is:
a. 1 m/s
b. 1.54 m/s
c. 1.54 mm/microsecond
d. 1 km/s
1.54 mm/microsecond
235
If wires in an AIUM test object do not appear in the same place as on the display, what is amiss?
a. registration accuracy
b. dynamic range accuracy
c. near gain
d. gray scale dynamic range
registration accuracy
236
How many data bits are needed to represent 46 gray shades?
a. 46
b. 5
c. 6
d. 8
6
237
The Fresnel is the:
a. focus
b. near zone
c. far zone
d. penetration depth
near zone
238
Which of the following is associated with cavitation?
a. thermal index
b. snells law
c. Avagadro's number
d. mechanical index
mechanical index
239
Which of the following best describes the mechanistic approach to the study of bioeffects?
a. cause-effect
b. exposure-response
c. risk-benefit
d. causation-reaction
cause-effect
240
Which of the following best describes the empirical approach to the study of bioeffects?
a. exposure-response
b. cause-effect
c. risk-benefit
d. effect-microstreaming
exposure-response
241
The interaction of microscopic bubbles and ultrasound form the basis for cavitation bioeffects. Which of the following forms of cavitation are most likely to produce microstreaming in the intracellular fluid and shear stresses?
a. stable cavitation
b. normal cavitation
c. transient cavitation
d. inertial cavitation
e. active cavitation
stable cavitation
242
All of the following are true of normal cavitation except:
a. harmful bioeffects are commonly observed
b. it is also known as inertial cavitation
c. only a 10% increase in pressure is needed to convert to this form stable cavitation
d. temperatures in the thousands of degrees are created
e. it is consistent with shock waves
harmful bioeffects are commonly observed
243
Which of the following has the greatest output intensity?
a. b-mode
b. gray scale imaging
c. CW Doppler
d. pulsed Doppler
pulsed Dopper
244
You enter a hospital room to perform an ultrasound exam. Which of the following should you do first?
a. check the room number
b. ask a nurse to confirm the patients name
b. ask the patient if they speak English
d. check the patients wristband for identification
check the patients wristband for identification
245
You enter a room only to find that the patient does not speak english. Which of the following is best to obtain informed consent?
a. call for a hospital interpreter
b. use sign language
c. obtain it form a bilingual family member who is in the room
d. point to the signature line of the consent form and have the patient sign it
cal for a hospital interpreter
246
What is the meaning of a thermal index = 3?
a. tissue temp may rise 3 degrees farenheit
b. tissue temp will rise 3 degrees celsius
c. tissue temp may rise 3 degrees celsius
d. microbubbles 3mm in diameter will burst
tissue temp may rise 3 degrees celsius
247
Ultrasound physics is nothing to fear and can almost be fun if you remember to:
a. pay your dues
b. pay the piper
c. pray
pay your dues
