Questions Flashcards
(175 cards)
1
Q
Which of the following symptoms would you anticipate observing someone with a possible diagnosis of pancreatitis:
A) Elevated white blood cell count ankle oedema and right groin pain
B) Left upper quadrant pain, nausea, and vomiting
C)Hypoglycemia, hypertension and hypochondrial pain
D) Epigastric pain, pyrexia, and elevated white blood cell count
A
B - Left upper quadrant pain, nausea, and vomiting
2
Q
Pain control is an important nursing goal. Which of the following medications would be the drug of choice: A) pethidine B) Cimetidine C) Morphine D) Codeine
A
C - morphine
3
Q
Bill does not drink alcohol because of his religious beliefs. When the physician persists in
asking him about his alcohol intake, bill becomes annoyed. You explain the reasoning
behind the questioning by telling bill that
a) There is a strong link between alcohol use and pancreatitis
b) Alcohol intake can interfere with some of the tests used to diagnose pancreatitis
c) Alcoholism is a major health problem and all hospitalised clients are asked about their
alcohol intake
d) The physician must obtain the pertinent facts, and religious beliefs cannot be
considered
A
C) Alcoholism is a major health problem and all hospitalised clients are asked about their
alcohol intake
4
Q
The physician prescribes zidovudine (AZT) a drug that acts to help
a) Destroy the virus
b) Enhance the bodys antibody production
c) Slow replication of the virus
d) Neutralise toxin; produced by the causative organism
A
c) Slow replication of the virus
5
Q
When interviewing james, the nurse should anticipate that the most difficult problem is
likely to be
a) Motivating the client to undergo treatment
b) Obtaining a list of the clients sexual contacts
c) Increasing the clients knowledge of the disease
d) Assuring the client that records are confidential
A
b) Obtaining a list of the clients sexual contacts
6
Q
in education this client, the nurse should emphasise that in women gonorrhoea
a) is often marked by symptoms of dysuria or vaginal bleeding
b) does not lead to serious complications
c) can be treated but not cured
d) may not cause symptoms until complications occur
A
d) may not cause symptoms until complications occur
7
Q
the physician tells the client that the infection has likely been precipitated by sexual
intercourse and that an antibiotic will be prescribed. The client becomes upset, and
tearfully asks the nurse if this means she should abstain from intercourse for the rest of
her honeymoon. What advice should the nurse offer her
a) avoid intercourse until you’ve completed the antibiotic therapy and then limit
intercourse to once a week
b) limit intercourse to once a day in the early morning after your bladder has rested
c) as long as you’re comfortable you can have intercourse as often as you wish; but be
sure to urinate within 15 minutes after intercourse
d) you and your husband can enjoy intercourse as often as you wish. Just make sure he
wears a condom and uses a spermicide
A
c) as long as you’re comfortable you can have intercourse as often as you wish; but be
sure to urinate within 15 minutes after intercourse
8
Q
which of the following methods would be best, from a legal standpoint, for obtaining
permission to treat Winston
a) having his sister sign the consent form
b) having two independent doctors agree on the need for treatment
c) obtaining a verbal consent by telephone from his mother
d) obtaining written consent from his fiancée
A
b) having two independent doctors agree on the need for treatment
9
Q
The nurse teaches Elizabeth that which of the following meals would be best for her low
cholesterol diet
a) Hamburger, salad, and milkshake
b) Baked liver, green beans, and coffee
c) Spaghetti with tomato sauce, salad, and coffee
d) Fried chicken, green beans, and skim milk
A
c) Spaghetti with tomato sauce, salad, and coffee
10
Q
When assessing josies respiratory status, which of the following symptoms may be an early indicator of hypoxia a) Cyanosis b) Decreased respirations c) Restlessness d) Hypotension
A
c) Restlessness
11
Q
Takayuki reports severe pain and requests frequent medication. A nursing assistant
expresses her surprise, saying, ‘i thought asian people were very stoic about pain. ‘ your
initial course of action should be
a) Reprimand her immediately and apologise to takayuk’s family
b) Discuss her behaviour with her after you leave the room
c) Do nothing as takayuk’s understanding of English is poor
d) Report her to the charge nurse
A
b) Discuss her behaviour with her after you leave the room
12
Q
In heart defects in which a connection exists between the right and left heart, the
blood through the connective structure flows most commonly
a) Right to left
b) Left to right
c) Bi directionally
d) Through the mitral and tricuspid valves
A
c) Bi directionally
13
Q
Amy is 3 months old, with a 2 day history of vomiting. Which of the following is
NOT indicative of a decreased hydration status
a) Sunken fontanelle
b) Decreased number of wet nappies
c) Skin that is hot to the touch
d) Increased heart rate
A
B) skin that is hot to touch
14
Q
Eriksons theory of human development describes
a) Eight psycholocial crises all people are thought to face
b) Four psychosocial stages and a period of latency
c) The same number of stages as frued but with different names
d) A stage theory that is not psychoanalytic
A
a) Eight psycholocial crises all people are thought to face
15
Q
According to piaget, the stage of cognitive development that generally characterises pre school children is the a) Preoperational stage b) Sensorimotor stage c) Oral stage d) Psychosocial stage
A
a) Preoperational stage
16
Q
The cephalo-caudal and proximo-distal patterns of development apply to
a) The upper extremities only
b) Physical growth, but not to motor skills
c) Variations in the timing of mtor skills acquisition
d) Motor abilities as well as physical growth
A
d) Motor abilities as well as physical growth
17
Q
All infants should have their head circumference measured at health visits. This
measurement is made from
a) Just above the eyebrows through the prominent part of the occiput
b) The center of the forehead to the base of the occiput
c) The hairline in front to the hairline in back
d) The middle of the forehead through the parietal prominence
A
a) Just above the eyebrows through the prominent part of the occiput
18
Q
While caring for a child recovering from viral penumonia, you examine his lungs
for evidence of exudate and fluid. Which finding would suggest cause for concern
a) A respiratory rate of 20 heard on auscultation
b) Dullness of his lower lobes heard on percussion
c) A longer inspiratory than expiratory rate noticed on inspection
d) Fine rhonchi heart in the upper lobe on auscultation
A
b) Dullness of his lower lobes heard on percussion
19
Q
To straighten an infants ear canal to examine it, you would pull the pinna
a) Down and back
b) Down and forward
c) Up and back
d) Up and forward
A
a) Down and back
20
Q
you take an infants apical pulse before administering digoxin. What is the
usually accepted level of pulse rate considered safe for administering digoxin to
an 8 month old baby
a) 60 bpm
b) 80 bpm
c) 100 bpm
d) 150 bpm
A
b) 80 bpm
21
Q
Which of the following statements is NOT true of bacterial meningitis
a) Bacterial meningitis often presents with flu like symptoms initially
b) A rash may or may not be present
c) There is usually no associated temperature rise
d) A rash, if present, does not blanch under direct pressure
A
c) There is usually no associated temperature rise
22
Q
During the acute state of meningitis, a 3 year old child is restless and irritable.
Which of the following would be most appropriate to institute
a) Hemorrhagic skin rash
b) Edema
c) Cyanosis
d) Dyspnea on exertion
A
a) Hemorrhagic skin rash
23
Q
A 10 year old child with a history of asthma uses an inhaled bronchodilator only
when needed. He takes no other medications routinely. His best peak expiratory
flow rate is 270 L/min. the childs current peak flow reading is 180 L/min. the
nurse interprets this reading as indicating which of the following
a) The childs asthma is under good control, so the routine treatment plan
should continue
b) The child needs to start a short acting inhaled B2 agonist medication
c) This is medical emergency requiring a trip to the emergency department for
treatment
d) The child needs to begin treatment with inhaled cromolyn sodium (intal) for
asthma control
A
b) The child needs to start a short acting inhaled B2 agonist medication
24
Q
After talking with the parents of a child with downs syndrome, which of the
following would the nurse identify as an appropriate goal for care of the child
a) Encouraging self care skills in the child
b) Teaching the child something new every day
c) Encouraging more lenient behaviour limits for the child
d) Achieving age appropriate social skills
A
d) Achieving age appropriate social skills
25
Which of the following statements obtained from the nursing history of a toddler
would alert the nurse to suspect the child has had a febrile seizure
a) The child has had a low grade fever for several weeks
b) The family history is negative for convulsions
c) The seizure resulted in respiratory arrest
d) The seizure occurred when the child had a respiratory infection
d) The seizure occurred when the child had a respiratory infection
26
The nurse judges that the mother understands the term cerebral palsy when she
describes it as a term applied to impaired movement resulting from which of the
following
a) Injury to the cerebrum caused by viral infection
b) Malformed blood vessels in the ventricles caused by inheritance
c) Non progressive brain damage caused by injury
d) Inflammatory brain disease caused by metabolic imbalances
c) Non progressive brain damage caused by injury
27
In preparation for discharge, the nurse teaches the mother of an infant
diagnosed with bronchiolitis about the condition and its treatment. Which of the
following statements by the mother indicates successful teaching
a) I need to be sure to take my childs temperature everyday
b) I hope I don’t get a cold from my child
c) Next time my child gets a cold I need to listen to the chest
d) I need to wash my hands more often
d) I need to wash my hands more often
28
When developing the plan for care for a child with early duchennes muscular
dystrophy, which of the following would the nurse identify as the primary
nursing goal for the child
a) Encouraging early wheelchair use
b) Fostering social interactions
c) Maintaining function of unaffected muscles
d) Prevent circulatory impairment
c) Maintaining function of unaffected muscles
29
```
Which of the following would be an important assessment finding for an 8 month
old infant admitted with severe diarrhea
a) Absent bowel sounds
b) Pale yellow urine
c) Normal skin elasticity
d) Depressed anterior fontanel
```
d) Depressed anterior fontanel
30
When obtaining the initial health history from a 10 year old child with
abdominal pain and suspected appendicitis, which of the following questions
would be most helpful in eliciting data to help support the diagnosis
a) Where did the pain start
b) What did you do for the pain
c) How often do you have a bowel movement
d) Is the pain continuous or does it let up
a) Where did the pain start
31
The stool culture of a child with profuse diarrhea reveals salmonella bacilli.
After teaching the mother about the course of salmonella enteritis, which of the
following statements by the mother indicates effective teaching
a) Some people become carriers and stay infectious for a long time
b) After the acute state passes, the organism is usually not present I nthe stool
c) Although the organism may be alive indefinitely, in time it will be of no
danger to anyone
d) If my child continues to have the organism in the stool, an antitoxin can help
destroy the organism
a) Some people become carriers and stay infectious for a long time
32
Which of the following age groups are most susceptible to meningococcal
meningitis
a) Children below 5 years of age
b) Children between 3.6 years (preschool)
c) School age children
d) Adolescents
a) Children below 5 years of age
33
A parent asks, can I get head lice too. The nurse indicates that adults can also be
infested with head lice but that pediculosis is more common among school
children, primarily for which of the following reasons
a) An immunity to pediculosis usually is established by adulthood
b) School aged children tend to be more neglectful of frequent hand washing
c) Pediculosis usually is spread by close contact with infected children
d) The skin of adults is more capable of resisting the invasion of lice
c) Pediculosis usually is spread by close contact with infected children0
34
People who have a personality disorder
a) Frequently progress to a psychotic illness
b) Become psychotic under severe stress
c) Are known as borderline personalities
d) Have ongoing difficulties in relating to others
d) Have ongoing difficulties in relating to others
35
Neurotic disorders are associated with
a) Inadequacy and poor stress management
b) Maladaptive behaviour related to anxiety
c) Inability to cope with demands and perceived stress
d) Family patterns of inappropriate behaviour
c) Inability to cope with demands and perceived stress
36
Which of the following statements about tardive dyskinesia is true
a) Symptoms are often permanent and do not improve with antiparkinsonian medication
b) Symptoms will diminish as the client adjusts to long term treatment
c) Clients are seldom concerned abut features of tardive dyskinesia
d) Antiparkinsonian medication will suppress the main features of tardive
dyskinsesia
a) Symptoms are often permanent and do not improve with antiparkinsonian medication
37
the most common features of chronic organic psychosis are
a) fluctuating confusion and disorientation
b) persistent elated mood and hyperactivity
c) thought blocking and concrete thinking
d) social withdrawal and paranoid ideation
d) social withdrawal and paranoid ideation
38
phobia is best described as
a) a fear related to an identifiable traumatic event in ones life
b) an irrational fear of a specific situation or object
c) a series of repetitive behaviours designed to relieve anxiety
d) a general sense of impending doom
b) an irrational fear of a specific situation or object
39
While watching television in the lounge a client says quickly and abruptly to the
nurse, the sun is shining in virginia. My son is in Virginia. Whos afraid of
Virginia wolf. Which of the following is this statement an example of
a) Concrete thinking
b) Flight of ideas
c) Word salad
d) Depersonalisation
b) Flight of ideas
40
In planning the care of for the elated client a primary aim is to
a) Encourage interpersonal contact
b) Provide a non stimulating environment
c) Demand that the client follow rules
d) Accept and understand the behaviour
b) Provide a non stimulating environment
41
For a client suffering from mania who is unable to sleep the best approach is to
a) Fully involve the client in physical activites and exercise programmes during
daytime
b) Encourage the client to talk about underlying feelings or stressors
c) Nurse in low stimulus environment and administer prescribed antipsychotic
medication
d) Place in seclusion using medication only as a last resort
c) Nurse in low stimulus environment and administer prescribed antipsychotic
medication
42
A client who is subject to a community treatment order section 29 of the mental
health act (1992) must
a) Accept prescribed medication and attend any specified treatment center
b) Report on a weekly basis to a community mental health centre
c) Return to hospital after a period of three months for a psychiatric assessment
d) Name a primary caregiver who will accept responsibility for the clients care
and supervision
a) Accept prescribed medication and attend any specified treatment center
43
Following an automobile accident involving a fatality and a subsequent arrest for
speeding, a client has amnesia for the events surrounding the accident. This is an
example of the defense mechanism known as
a) Projection
b) Repression
c) Dissociation
d) Suppression
c) Dissociation
44
People who have a personality disorder
a) Frequently progress to a psychotic illness
b) Become psychotic under severe stress
c) Are known as borderline personalities
d) Have ongoing difficulties in relating to others
d) Have ongoing difficulties in relating to others
45
Cultural considerations in the use of seclusion include
a) Use of seclusion only after consent has been obtained form the appropriate
cultural representatives
b) Listening to advice from staff of the clients culture or form the clients family
c) Having an appropriate cultural representative available each time the
seclusion room is entered
d) Ensuring that only staff from the clients culture participate in caring for any
client in seclusion
c) Having an appropriate cultural representative available each time the
seclusion room is entered
46
Anticholinergic side effects are common with all the following except
a) Diazepam
b) Benztropine
c) Amitriptyline
d) Thioridazine
a) Diazepam
47
Which of the following is the main reason for giving depot injections of
antipsychotic medication
a) They are more effective than oral medication
b) They overcome the problem of non adherence
c) Side effects are not as common
d) They are easier to administer than oral medication
b) They overcome the problem of non adherence
48
A client with post traumatic stress disorder says ‘I should have been killed with
the rest of them. Why am I alive’ - The best way to report the clients statement (in previous question) in the nursing
notes would be
a) Client has no insight into their situation
b) Client is questioning why they are still alive
c) Client is expressing suicidal ideas
d) Client feels responsible for death of others
b) Client is questioning why they are still alive
49
Intervention with an angry client who is threatening violence involves
a) Asking the client to express their feelings verbally
b) Maintaining silence to avoid any escalation of anger
c) Asking the client what has happened to make them so angry
d) Giving brief, clear messages about what you want the client to do
d) Giving brief, clear messages about what you want the client to do
50
The highest priority nursing action relative to alcohol withdrawal delirium
would be
a) Orientation to reality
b) Application of restraints
c) Identification and social supports
d) Replacement of fluids and electrolytes
d) Replacement of fluids and electrolytes
51
In teaching about cancer prevention, the nurse stresses promotion of exercise,
normal body weight, and low fat diet because
a) General aerobic health is an important defense against cellular mutation
b) Obesity is a factor that promotes cancer growth; if it is reversed, the risk of
cancer can be decreased
c) People who are overweight usually consume large amounts of fat, which is a
chemical carcinogen
d) The development of fatty tumors, such as lipomas, is increased when there is
an abundance of fatty tissue
b) Obesity is a factor that promotes cancer growth; if it is reversed, the risk of
cancer can be decreased
52
```
steve, 15 years old, is admitted with suspected meningitis. Nuchal rigidity will not
be seen in which of the following
a) intracranial haematoma
b) meningitis
c) cerebral concussion
d) intracranial tumour
```
c) cerebral concussion
53
a positive Mantoux test indicates
a) the client has active tuberculosis
b) the client has been exposed to mycobacterium
c) the client will never have tuberculosis
d) the client has been infected with mycobacterium tuberculosis
b) the client has been exposed to mycobacterium
54
When a trauma victim expresses fear that AIDS may develop as a result of a
blood transfusion, the nurse should explain that
a) Blood is treated with radiation to kill the virus
b) Screening for HIV antibodies has minimised the risk
c) The ability to directly identify HIV has eliminated this concern
d) Consideration should be given to donating own blood for transfusion
b) Screening for HIV antibodies has minimised the risk
55
When a disaster occurs, the nurse may have to treat mass hysteria first. The
person or persons to be cared for immediately would be those in
a) Panic
b) Coma
c) Euphoria
d) Depression
a) Panic
56
After teaching the parents about the cause of ringworm of the scalp (tinea
capitis), which of the following, if stated by the father, indicates successful
teaching
a) Over exposure to the sun
b) Infestation with a mite
c) Fungal infection of the scalp
d) An allergic reaction
c) Fungal infection of the scalp
57
What is the responsibility of the nurse who, for two days, has observed the nurse
manager putting several syringes into her pocket
a) Report the matter to another nurse manager
b) Discuss the matter with your nursing colleagues
c) Watch the nurse manager to see if it happens again
d) Ignore the incident as a nurse manager is a responsible person
a) Report the matter to another nurse manager
58
You are taking neils recordings when he appears to have a seizure. What nursing
intervention would best assist neil
a) Describing and recording the seizure activity observed
b) Restraining neil in order to prevent self harm
c) Placing a tongue blade between his teeth
d) Suctioning neil to prevent aspiration
a) Describing and recording the seizure activity observed
59
If you are with someone who has a grand mal seizure, you should
a) Loosen the clothing about their neck and wrist
b) Turn their head to the side to facilitate drainage of secretions
c) Remove nearby objects to protect their extremities from injury
d) All of the above
d) All of the above
60
When performing a cultural assessment with a patient of a different culture, it is
important for the nurse to first ask about the patients
a) Racial heritage
b) Use of cultural healers
c) Language spoken at home
d) Affiliation with a cultural group
c) Language spoken at home
61
A young man seeks medical care after a friend with whom he shared needles
during illicit drug use develops hepatitis B. to provide immediate protection
from infection, the nurse expects to administer
a) Corticosteroids
b) Gamma globulin
c) Hepatitis b vaccine
d) Fresh frozen plasma
c) Hepatitis b vaccine
62
For the nursing council to find a registered nurse guilty of negligence, it would
have to prove that the nurse
a) Failed to do what another careful registered nurse would have done in a
similar situation
b) Did not give competent care as defined by colleagues with the same level of
experience
c) Did not give an appropriate level of care as defined by the NZNO standards
for nursing practice
d) Did not give an appropriate level of care as defined by the NZNO code of
practice for nurses
c) Did not give an appropriate level of care as defined by the NZNO standards
for nursing practice
63
Ageism is an important concept for the nurse to understand because it
a) May damage the self esteem of the elderly
b) Increases social awareness of the needs of the elderly
c) Provides statistical information regarding the elderly population
d) Promotes consideration of the diversity of the elderly population
a) May damage the self esteem of the elderly
64
For the nursing council to find a registered nurse guilt of malpractice following
an assault on a client, it would have to prove that the nurse
a) Intended to cause bodily harm to the client
b) Actually assaulted the client
c) Did not establish a therapeutic relationship with the client
d) Committed a felony against the client
a) Intended to cause bodily harm to the client
65
The nurse judges that the mother understands the term cerebral palsy when she
describes it as a term applied to impaired movement resulting from which of the
following
a) Injury to the cerebrum caused by viral infection
b) Malformed blood vessels in the ventricles caused by inheritance
c) Non progressive brain damage caused by injury
d) Inflammatory brain disease caused by metabolic imbalances
c) Non progressive brain damage caused by injury
66
The first symptom of gonorrhoea is usually
a) Lower abdominal pain
b) A sore or ulcer on the genitals
c) Purulent vaginal discharge in the female
d) Urethral discharge in the male
d) Urethral discharge in the male
67
The first symptom of syphilis is
a) A generalised rash all over the body
b) A sore or ulcer on the genitals
c) Abdominal pain in the male
d) Purulent vaginal discharge
b) A sore or ulcer on the genitals
68
The long term consequences of Chlamydia is most likely to be
a) Menorrhagia
b) Chronic vaginitis
c) Chronic cervicitis
d) Sterility
c) Chronic cervicitis
69
When describing the effects of insulin on the body to a patient newly diagnosed
with diabetes mellitus, the best explanation by the nurse is
a) Insulin promotes the breakdown of fatty tissue into triglycerides, which can
be used for energy
b) When proteins are taken into the body, insulin promotes their breakdown
and conversion to fats
c) Insulin stimulates the conversion of stored sugars into blood glucose and the
conversion of proteins into glucose
d) When carbohydrates, fats, and proteins are eaten, insulin promotes cellular
transport and storage of all these nutrients
d) When carbohydrates, fats, and proteins are eaten, insulin promotes cellular
transport and storage of all these nutrients
70
Two days after the fracture of his femur, a client suddenly complains of chest pain
and dyspnea. The nurse also notes some confusion and an elevated temperature.
Based on these assessment findings, the nurse suspects which of the following
complications
a) Osteomyelitis
b) Fat embolism syndrome
c) Venous thrombosis
d) Compartment syndrome
b) Fat embolism syndrome
71
```
Which of the following post operative complications may be avoided by pre
operative teaching
a) Wound infection
b) Wound dehiscence
c) Hypostatic pneumonia
d) Hypovolaemic shock
```
c) Hypostatic pneumonia
72
Haemorrhage during the first 12 hours post operatively is termed
a) Primary
b) Secondary
c) Intermediary
d) Reactionary
c) Intermediary
73
Mary aged 45 years is admitted to the ward for planned surgery. Mary smokes 20
cigarettes a day and drinks three glasses of wine every evening
The significance of this information for you is so that you
a) May teach deep breathing and coughing and relaxation techniques in
preparation for surgery
b) Be aware of a potentially addictive personality when planning her pain relief
post operatively
c) Can assist her to break her smoking and drinking habits when in hospital
d) May plan to include cigarettes and alcohol in her post operative regime
c) Can assist her to break her smoking and drinking habits when in hospital
74
The physical law explaining the greatly increased venous return accompanying
mild vasoconstriction underlies the use of
a) Adrenaline in treating shock
b) Rotating tourniquets in pulmonary oedema
c) Sympathetomy in treating hypertension
d) Digoxin to increase cardiac output
a) Adrenaline in treating shock
75
The client with unresolved oedema is most likely to develop
a) Thrombus formation
b) Tissue ischaemia
c) Proteinaemia
d) Contractures
b) Tissue ischaemia
76
The most important electrolyte of intracellular fluid is
a) Calcium
b) Sodium
c) Potassium
d) Chloride
c) Potassium
77
Since mr saul has right hemiplegia the nurse contributes to his rehabilitation by
a) Making a referral to the physio therapist
b) Not moving the affected arm and leg unless necessary
c) Beginning active exercise
d) Positioning mr saul to prevent deformity and decubiti
d) Positioning mr saul to prevent deformity and decubiti
78
Mr sauls emotions responses to his illness would probably be determined by
a) His premobid personality
b) The location of his lesion
c) The care he is receiving
d) His ability to understand his illness
d) His ability to understand his illness
79
Additional nursing care for sue after the original lip repair would include
a) Placing the baby in a semi sitting position
b) Keeping the infant from crying
c) Spoon feeding for the first two days after surgery
d) Keeping the baby nil per mouth
c) Spoon feeding for the first two days after surgery
80
Pitting oedema in the lower extremities occurs with this problem because of the
a) Increase in tissue colloid osmotic pressure
b) Increase in the tissue hydrostatic pressure at the arterial end of the capillary
bed
c) Decrease in the plasma colloid osmotic pressure
d) Increase in the plasma hydrostatic pressure at the venous end of the capillary
beds
b) Increase in the tissue hydrostatic pressure at the arterial end of the capillary
bed
81
Mrs smith is hosptialised with coronary heart disease. She is receiving IV fluids,
her vital signs are checked 4 hourly. She is on bed rest. She was also prescribed
digoxin. She does not seem to be acutely sick but her prognosis is guarded. Mrs
smith asks what the coronary arteries have to do with her angina. In determining
the answer, the nurse should take into consideration that coronary arteries
a) Carry reduced oxygen content blood to the lungs
b) Carry blood from aorta to the myocardium
c) Supply blood to the endocardium
d) Carry high oxygen blood from the lungs towards the heart
b) Carry blood from aorta to the myocardium
82
In shock, one of the best indicators of blood flow to viral organs is
a) Rate of blood and fluid administration
b) Blood pressure
c) The colour and temperature
d) Urine output
b) Blood pressure
83
Oliguria, an early sign of shock, occurs for what reason
a) Cessation of glomerular filtration
b) Acute tubular necrosis
c) Metabolic acidosis
d) Sympathetic stimulation
b) Acute tubular necrosis
84
In a client with emphysema, hypoventilation could initially cause
a) Respiratory alkalosis
b) Respiratory acidosis
c) Metabolic acidosis
d) Metabolic alkalosis
b) Respiratory acidosis
85
• A district nurse is sent to assess a new client with cor pulmonale. This term refers to
a) Enlargement of the pulmonary artery
b) Enlargement of the right ventricle
c) Atrophy of the right ventricle
d) Giant bullae growth on the lung
b) Enlargement of the right ventricle
86
Mary a 46 year old woman, is admitted to your ward with a chest infection due to an
exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. A person with emphysema is
susceptible to respiratory infections primarily because
a) Failure of his bone marrow to produce phagocytic white blood cells
b) Retention of tracheobronchial secretions
c) Decreased detoxification of body fluids by compressed liver cells
d) Persistent mouth breathing associated with dyspnoea
b) Retention of tracheobronchial secretions
87
A comminuted fracture is characterised by
a) A partial break in bone continuity
b) Injury in which two bones are crushed together
c) An injury in which the bone is broken into two or more pieces
d) An injury in which the bone fragments have broken through the skin
c) An injury in which the bone is broken into two or more pieces
88
• Macrovascular complications of diabetes
a) Occur shortly after the onset of the disease
b) Affects coronary, peripheral and cerebral circulation
c) Affects the eyes and the kidneys
d) Affects sensorimotor and autonomic nerves
b) Affects coronary, peripheral and cerebral circulation
89
Papillary dilation occurs when herniating brain tissue
a) Compresses the occulomotor nerve
b) Chokes the optic disks
c) Stretches the optic nerve
d) Paralyses the occulare muscles
a) Compresses the occulomotor nerve
90
• The action of ACE inhibitors (angiotensin converting enzyme) is
a) Increased urinary output, therefore decreased blood pressure
b) Relax blood vessels, therefore decreased vascular resistance
c) Strengthens cardiac contraction, therefore increase cardiac output
d) Relax cardiac muscle therefore decrease heart rate
a) Increased urinary output, therefore decreased blood pressure
91
• Loop diuretics act by
a) Increasing the blood flow to the glomerular network
b) Decreasing the blood flow to the kidneys therefore decreased urinary output
c) Increased H2O reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubules of the nephron
d) Inhibition complex active pump mechanism therefore increase excretion of electrolytes
d) Inhibition complex active pump mechanism therefore increase excretion of electrolytes
92
• The areas of the body that sense blood pressure are known as
a) Baroreceptors
b) Chemoreceptors
c) Viscoreceptors
d) None of these
a) Baroreceptors
93
```
At any given moment, the systemic circulation contains about _________________ of the
total blood volume
a) 10%
b) 51%
c) 71%
d) 91%
```
c) 71%
94
Nursing intervention necessary prior to the administration of digoxin is
a) Palpation of arterial pulse less than 60 bpm
b) Palpation of venous pulse less than 60 bpm
c) Palpation of arterial pulse greater than 60 bpm
d) Palpation of pedal pulse less than 60 bpm
c) Palpation of arterial pulse greater than 60 bpm
95
• Left sided heart failure affectsdirectly the
a) Liver and extremities
b) Lungs
c) Levels of consciousness
d) Lungs and extremities
b) Lungs
96
# Define a cerebral vascular accident (CVA)
a) Sudden loss of consciousness due to a decreased contractility of the cardia
b) Loss of brain function due to disruption of blood supply to the brain
c) Intermittent spasms of blood vessels interrupting blood flow to the brain
d) Neurologic dysfunction due to diminished blood flow to the cranium
b) Loss of brain function due to disruption of blood supply to the brain
97
The term blue bloater refers to
a) Decreased erythropoietin production therefore decreased 02 carrying capability of the
RBC
b) Polycythemia and cyanosis from right ventricular failure
c) Cyanosis due to decreased RBC production
d) Increased BP due to high blood volume or fluid overload
b) Polycythemia and cyanosis from right ventricular failure
98
Bronchitis is
a) Results from a breakdown in the normal lung defence mechanisms
b) Destruction of alveolar
c) Due to enlarged terminal non respiratory bronchioles and alveolar walls
d) History of daily productive cough that last at least 3 months, for 2 years
a) Results from a breakdown in the normal lung defence mechanisms
99
Emphysema is characterised by
a) Fat people due to decreased activity tolerance
b) Unproductive cough and pursed lip breathing
c) Pursed lip breathing and productive cough
d) Blue bloater, normal skin colour and rapid respirations
b) Unproductive cough and pursed lip breathing
100
• Pursed lip and diaphragmatic breathing
a) Calms the anxious client
b) Speed up slow respirations and used to promote effective coughing
c) Prevents bronehiolar collapse and air trapping
d) Encourages longer inhalation and faster exhalation
c) Prevents bronehiolar collapse and air trapping
101
• Diabetes is
a) An exocrine disorder
b) Decreased production of insulin by the liver
c) An endocrine disorder
d) Decreased secretion of insulin by the alpha cells in the pancreas
c) An endocrine disorder
102
Angina is
a) Caused by a sudden blockage of one of the coronary arteries
b) Caused by anaerobic metabolism exciting pain receptors
c) Causes cardiac tissue necrosis and scaring
d) Interferes with cardiac contractility
a) Caused by a sudden blockage of one of the coronary arteries
103
• Manifestations of an MI are a) Bradycardia
b) Necrosis of a portion of the myocardium
c) Treated only by bypass surgery
d) Not seen on an ECG for 24 hours
b) Necrosis of a portion of the myocardium
104
Problems associated with CRF are
a) Polycythemia
b) Metabolic alkalosis
c) Accentuated sex drive
d) Reduced healing, susceptibility to infections
d) Reduced healing, susceptibility to infections
105
Side effects of radiotherapy include
a) Burns, lethargy
b) Alopecia
c) Increased rate of cell division
d) Increased WBC production
a) Burns, lethargy
106
Cancer clients pain is assessed by
a) The doctor
b) The health care team
c) The client
d) The family
b) The health care team
107
If paracetamol is no longer effective in the treatment of malignant pain
a) Strong opioids are prescribed
b) The end is near
c) Weak opioids and/or NSAIDS may be prescribed
d) The client needs hospitalisation for pain control
c) Weak opioids and/or NSAIDS may be prescribed
| d) The client needs
108
Uraemia is a clinical syndrome associated with
a) Retention of urea and other nitrogenous wastes
b) The presence of urine in the blood
c) The presence of blood in the urine
d) High ammonia excretion
a) Retention of urea and other nitrogenous wastes
109
```
• The fluid outside the vascular system, which surrounds tissue cells, and which includes lymph
is called
a) Interstitial fluid
b) Extracellular fluid
c) Intravascular fluid
d) Intracellular fluid
```
a) Interstitial fluid
110
• When there is a decrease in blood volume (as in dehydration or blood loss), the body reacts
by retaining sodium and thus water. This occurs mainly as a result of adrenal gland secretion
of
a) Aldosterone
b) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
c) Cortisol
d) Parathyroid hormone
a) Aldosterone
111
```
• The nurse should assess carefully for hypervolaemia, (fluid volume excess) when working
with the client with
a) Nausea and vomiting
b) Kidney failure
c) Decreased fluid intake
d) Blood loss
```
b) Kidney failure
112
The optimal position for the comatose patient is
a) Prone
b) Supine
c) Semi fowlers
d) Side lying
e) High semi fowlers
d) Side lying
113
• When caring for a patient with aphasia, you should
a) Talk loudly so she can hear you
b) Refrain from giving explanations about procedures
c) Provide as much environmental stimuli as possible to prevent feelings of isolation
d) Consider the type that the person has and adapt communications methods accordingly
d) Consider the type that the person has and adapt communications methods accordingly
114
Miss blake has suddenly had a cardiac arrest. What is the critical time period that the nurse
must keep in mind before irreversible brain damage occurs
a) 1-3 minutes
b) 8-10 minutes
c) 2-4 minutes
d) 4-6 minutes
d) 4-6 minutes
115
When you answer the clients call light, you note that he has suffered a wound evisceration.
Your response will be to
a) Call the physician immediately for offers. Do not touch the wound
b) Cover the wound with sterile dressing, call the lab to do a culture and then call the
physician
c) Cover the wound with sterile, saline soaked towels and immediately notify the physician
d) Take the clients vital signs, cover the wound with a sterile towel and call the physician
c) Cover the wound with sterile, saline soaked towels and immediately notify the physician
116
Leg exercises are taught to clients in order to increase venous return and prevent
thrombophylebitis. Which step of this procedure is incorrect
a) Alternately dorsiflex and plantar flex toes
b) Flex and extend the knee
c) Raise and lower each leg
d) Repeat exercise every one to two hours
b) Flex and extend the knee
117
If morphine is given intravenously, regularly as post operative analgesia for 10 days to a
multiple trauma patient, what is the possibility that this patient would become addicted to the
narcotic
a) Almost never
b) Sometimes
c) Often
d) Almost always
c) Often
118
• During chemotherapy, soreness of the mouth and anus may develop because
a) The effects of the chemotherapeutic agents concentrate in these body areas
b) These tissues normally divide rapidly and are damaged by chemotherapeutic agents
c) The entire GI tract is involved because of the direct irritating effects of chemotherapy
d) The tissues have become damaged from prolonged vomiting and diarrhoea
b) These tissues normally divide rapidly and are damaged by chemotherapeutic agents
119
```
Which of the following should be considered in order to avoid skin reactions following
radiotherapy
1 not to apply ointments or lotions
2 not to vigorously dry the skin
3 to apply powder p.r.n
4 to keep the skin area dry and open to air
5 to avoid exposure to sunlight
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2, 3 and 5
c) 3, 4 and 5
d) 1, 2, 4 and 5
e) 2, 3, 4 and 5
```
d) 1, 2, 4 and 5
120
• Mrs graham is an active, retired 62 year old. She has been admitted for investigation of
possible renal calcili. Which of the following investigations would be most useful in
confirming Mrs G’s provisional diagnosis of renal calculi
a) Cystoscopy
b) Intravenous pyelogram
c) Renal biopsy
d) Urinary electrolytes
b) Intravenous pyelogram
121
```
• Which of the following peripheral pulses is the most common site for obtaining a pulse in an
emergency
a) Carotid artery
b) Radial artery
c) Brachial artery
d) Temporal artery
```
a) Carotid artery
122
the criteria for determining the effectiveness of nursing actions are based on the
a) nursing diagnosis
b) expected outcome
c) clients satisfaction
d) nursing interventions
b) expected outcome
123
the nursing care plan is
a) a written guideline for implementation and evaluation
b) a documentation of client care
c) a projection of potential alterations in client behaviours
d) a tool to set goals and project outcomes
a) a written guideline for implementation and evaluation
124
Debbie a 16 year old student, is admitted in a semi conscious state with a history of a 58
pound weight loss in 3 months. Preliminary diagnosis is acute anorexia nervosa. Which of the
following admissions lab values should the nurse caring for Debbie consider to most critical
a) Glucose 80
b) Potassium 3.0
c) Sodium 144
d) Haemoglobin 10
d) Haemoglobin 10
125
• Michelle is placed on suicide precautions, which include constant observation. When the
nurse accompanies her to the bathroom. Michelle complains, I cant believe this. I cant even
go to the bathroom without being watched. How would you like to have me watching you go
to the toilet. Which response by the nurse is best
a) Im sure I wouldn’t like it very much, but then I didn’t try to hurt myself
b) Im sorry but these are the rules. Someone must be with you at all times
c) If its more comfortable for you, I can stand right outside as long as the door is open.
Would you agree to that
d) I would probably feel uncomfortable too, but ensuring your safety is my first priority. I
must stay in the room with you
c) If its more comfortable for you, I can stand right outside as long as the door is open.
Would you agree to that
126
Megans behaviour in this situation illustrates the use of which defense mechanism
a) Splitting
b) Reaction formation
c) Conversion
d) Repression
a) Splitting
127
Megans doctor resumes her regular dosage of amitriptyline. Which effect of this medication
might the staff and patient expect to see first
a) Elevated mood
b) Improved reality testing
c) Improved sleep pattern
d) Fewer hallucinations and delusions
c) Improved sleep pattern
128
John is a 32 year old man with a 5 year history of psychiatric admissions. He is escorted to
the mental health unit by the police. He is dishevelled, confused and his records state that he
has been diagnosed as chronic undifferentiated schizophrenic. The nurse observes john sitting
in th hall looking frightened. He is curled up in a corner of the bench with his arms over his
head and covering his face. How should the nurse approach the patient
a) Walk over to the bench, sit beside him quietly, and place an arm around his shoulders,
then say im the nurse and wait for a response
b) Allow him to remain alone on the bench, where he can observe the unit for a half hour or
so until he is more comfortable
c) Greet him warmly saying hi im the nurse. This is a very nice unit. I think youll like it
here. Let me show you around
d) Sit about 3 or 4 feet from him on the bench and say hello john im a nurse on this unit.
You appear frightened then wait for a response
d) Sit about 3 or 4 feet from him on the bench and say hello john im a nurse on this unit.
You appear frightened then wait for a response
129
John responds to the nurse by curling up on the bench even tighter. His arms still cover his
head and his hands are clasped tightly over his ears. The nurse should
a) Show acceptance of johns behaviour by remaining with him and reassuring him, gently
stroking his arms and shoulders
b) Tell john that she will leave him for a while and will return later when he feels more
relaxed
c) Say gently john ill just sit here quietly with you for a while then remain seated nearby
d) Say john, most people feel uncomfortable in hospitals. You shouldn’t be afraid. Im here
to help you
c) Say gently john ill just sit here quietly with you for a while then remain seated nearby
130
• Henry is brought to the mental health unit by his wife who states for the past week her
husband has refused all meals and accused her of poisoning him, he has become withdrawn,
forgetful and inattentive and has frequent mood swings. Henry appears suspicious. His speech
which is only partly comprehensible reveals that his thoughts are controlled by delusions of
possession by the devil. He claims the devil told him that people around him are trying to
destroy him. The doctor diagnoses paranoid schizophrenia. Schizophrenia is best described as
a disorder characterised by
a) Disturbed relationships related to an inability to communicate and think clearly
b) Severe mood swings and periods of low to high activity
c) Multiple personalities, one of which is more destructive than the others
d) Auditory and visual hallucinations
d) Auditory and visual hallucinations
131
When communicating with henry the nurse should initially
a) Remain silent and wait for henry to speak first
b) Talk with henry as one would talk with a healthy person
c) Allow henry to do all the talking
d) Speak to henry using simple, concrete language
b) Talk with henry as one would talk with a healthy person
132
• The drugs used to treat parkinsons disease act by
a) Increasing cholinergic activity and increasing dopamine
b) Reducing cholinergic activity and increasing dopamine
c) Increasing cholinergic activity and reducing dopamine
d) Reducing cholinergic activity and reducing dopamine
b) Reducing cholinergic activity and increasing dopamine
133
• Before administering a dose of digoxin the patients pulse (apex beat) should be taken. Which
is the correct action for the nurse to take if the pulse is found to be under 60 beats per minute
a) Give the drug and take the pulse again an hour later
b) Give the drug and notify the staff nurse that the pulse is slow
c) Do not give the drug and report the slow pulse to the doctor
d) Omit the drug and make a note on the nursing care plan
c) Do not give the drug and report the slow pulse to the doctor
134
Mrs adams suffers from dementia and requires a dressing to a shin wound. The nurse suspects
the wound is the result of a non accidental injury. What is the main cause of non accidental
injury in an elderly person suffering from dementia
a) A dependent person being more prone to injury
b) A long standing pattern of domestic violence
c) The home not being a suitable place for a dependent person
d) The increased stress in caring for a dependent person at home
a) A dependent person being more prone to injury
135
• Which is the major pathophysiological abnormality occurring in asthma
a) Cardiac arrhythmias
b) Bronchiole dysplasia
c) Spasm of the smooth muscles of the bronchi
d) Inflammation of the alveoli
c) Spasm of the smooth muscles of the bronchi
136
Eczema is the term used to describe a (n)
a) Acute, contagious inflammation of the skin
b) Non contagious inflammatory response of the skin
c) Fungal infection more commonly seen in childhood
d) Condition marked by the appearance of erythematous wheals
b) Non contagious inflammatory response of the skin
137
• Which statement best describes ‘vesicle’
a) Reddened, pinprick like rash
b) Small round area of discolouration
c) Small area of swelling on the skin
d) Small blister filled with serous fluid
d) Small blister filled with serous fluid
138
• Your neurologic assessment indicates increased ICP (intracranial pressure), so you raise the
head of the bed 15 to 30 degrees in order to
a) Improve arterial flow to the brain
b) Promote venous drainage from the brain
c) Improve respirations
d) Increase cardiac output
c) Improve respirations
139
Which of the following is most important for mr march to succeed in a rehabilitation
programme
a) Knowledge of the services available to him
b) Familys encouragement
c) Personal goals
d) His relationships with the health team
c) Personal goals
140
A rehabilitation programme for mr march should begin with
a) Strengthening his weak side
b) Teaching him to walk
c) Utilising the movement he still has
d) Establishing speech
c) Utilising the movement he still has
141
There is evidence that mr march suffers a mild degree of expressive aphasia. This would be
evidenced by which of the following behaviours
a) Mr march has difficulty in understanding what is spoken to him although he can verbally
express his needs appropriately
b) Mr march has difficulty in both understanding what is spoken to him and in verbally
communicating with others
c) Mr march understands what is spoken to him but has difficulty in forming and expressing
words
d) Mr march has difficulty interpreting sensory stimuli causing him to respond
inappropriately
c) Mr march understands what is spoken to him but has difficulty in forming and expressing
words
142
Mr march is enthusiastic about his excersie programme. He exercises should be
a) Frequent and of short duration
b) Twice daily and extensive
c) Carried out in the physiotherapy department
d) Confined to the affected side
a) Frequent and of short duration
143
The first priority in caring for a person whose tissues have insufficient blood supply is to
a) Prevent and relieve symptoms
b) Promote the development of collateral circulation
c) Protect the tissues from any injury
d) Relieve the pain associated with vasodilation
c) Protect the tissues from any injury
144
• Carl comes to the mental health clinic where you work because of nervousness. He tells you I
have butterflies in my stomach most of the time. I haven’t missed work but it is getting harder
to concentrate on things for a long time. What level of anxiety is carl most likely experiencing
a) Mild
b) Moderate
c) Severe
d) Panic
b) Moderate
145
Which of the following explains the major differences between normal anxiety and the
syndrome associated with anxiety reactions
a) Normal anxiety is constant; an anxiety reaction is intermittent and rather short lived
b) Normal anxiety is free floating; in an anxiety reaction there is an impending sense of doom
c) An anxiety reaction is seldom controllable and usually must run its course
d) Normal anxiety is a fact of life and rarely becomes an anxiety reaction
b) Normal anxiety is free floating; in an anxiety reaction there is an impending sense of doom
146
Carl compains of severe inner left arm and neck pain during the last few days. This pain
probably the result of
a) Vasoconstriction because of arterial spasms
b) Myocardial ischemia
c) Fear of death
d) Irritation of nerve endings in the cardiac plexus
a) Vasoconstriction because of arterial spasms
147
Mrs green a 22 year old primigravida is attending prenatal clinic. Mrs greene is concerned
because she has read that nutrition during pregnancy is important for proper growth and
development of the baby. She wants to know something about he foods she should eat. The
nurse should
a) Give her a list of foods so she can better plan her meals
b) Assess what she eats by taking a diet history
c) Emphasise the importance of limiting salt and highly seasoned foods
d) Instruct her to continue eating a normal diet
b) Assess what she eats by taking a diet history
148
• Which part of the hands is most affected in cases of primary irritant dermatitis
a) Between the fingers
b) Flexor aspects of the fingers
c) Medial aspects of the hands
d) Back of the hands
d) Back of the hands
149
The lesions of primary irritant dermatitis appear as tiny fluid filled elevations called
a) Vesicles
b) Macules
c) Papulses
d) Nodules
a) Vesicles
150
Of the following approaches to the treatment of alcoholism, which has been found to
be the most effective to date
a) Membership in alcoholics anonymous
b) Family systems approach
c) Treatment alcoholism as a chronic disease
d) Individual psychotherapy
b) Family systems approach
151
Tom a 38 year old businessman, voluntarily admits himself to a detoxification unit.
He admits to drinking one large bottle of vodka each day. Which of the following ego
defence mechanisms is a top and continuing priory in dealing with alcoholic clients
a) Dependency
b) Denial
c) Paranoia
d) Projection
b) Denial
152
Stanley progresses well. His chest tube is removed. He still does not have much of an
appetite and is concerned about his diet. Which of these responses would be of help
a) Eat three large meals a day that are high in carbohydrates
b) Eat three large meals a day that are high in protein
c) Eat six small meals a day that are high in carbohydrates
d) Eat six small meals a day that are high in protein
c) Eat six small meals a day that are high in carbohydrates
153
Blake a 65 year old kaumatua (elder) is admitted with urinary retention. He is quiet
and appears withdrawn. Blake‟s whanau arrived. A female doctor tells them he needs
a urinary catheter inserted. Blake‟s son refuses to have a young woman doctor
catheterise his father. What is your most appropriate response
a) Let us talk about this together
b) I will contact the Maori support person for you
c) I will inform the doctor of your decision
d) Tell him that this is the only doctor available
a) Let us talk about this together
154
Maori communities are encouraging Maori to be involved in health research with their
own people. What is the most likely reason for this
a) That ownership of the information will remain with Maori
b) Previously there has been little feedback which has been useful to Maori
c) Non Maori promote themselves on Maori research
d) Non Maori researchers are unaware of Maori values
a) That ownership of the information will remain with Maori
155
The internal migration of Maori people from rural to urban life since the mid 1940s
has adversely affected Maori health. What is the most likely reason for this
a) Overcrowding within urban communities
b) Increased exposure to infectious diseases
c) Dietary changes from naturally produced to processed food
d) Loss of cultural, social, and spiritual ties
d) Loss of cultural, social, and spiritual ties
156
Which of the following represents a recommended weight gain during pregnancy
a) 6-11 kgs
b) 11-16 kgs
c) 13-18 kgs
d) 18-20 kgs
b) 11-16 kgs
157
Which of the following statements can be used as a guideline for planning diets
during pregnancy
a) A increase of 300 calories per day beginning in the first trimester
b) A ten percent increase in protein above daily requirements
c) Iron supplementation is recommended for women whose diets are lacking in iron
d) The requirement for folic acid is increased by 50 percent
c) Iron supplementation is recommended for women whose diets are lacking in iron
158
On discharge what is the most important piece of information you must give to Mr. p
a) Report any flu like symptoms immediately
b) Ensure no doses of clozapine are missed
c) Don‟t take clozapine with alcohol
d) Visit your GP regularly
b) Ensure no doses of clozapine are missed
159
Mr P a new client on the ward, allows himself to be escorted to the day room.
However he does not speak in response to you. The most therapeutic nursing
intervention is to
a) Ignore his silence and talk about superficial topics such as the weather
b) Involve him in group psychotherapy so other patients can encourage him to talk
c) Point out that he is making others uncomfortable with his silences
d) Plan time to spend with him, in silence, if that is his choice
b) Involve him in group psychotherapy so other patients can encourage him to talk
160
```
Which measure would be least effective in relieving the signs and symptoms of mild
pre eclampsia
a) Low salt diet
b) Period of bed rest
c) Balanced diet with protein
d) Relaxation techniques
```
d) Relaxation techniques
161
The primary pathophysiologic basis for the clinical manifestations of pregnancy
induced hypertension (PIH) is
a) Fluid retention related to excessive salt intake
b) Ineffective excretion of fluid by the kidneys
c) Cardiac decompensation
d) Ineffective dilatation of the vascular network to accommodate the expanding
blood volume of pregnancy
d) Ineffective dilatation of the vascular network to accommodate the expanding
blood volume of pregnancy
162
A pregnant woman at 30 weeks gestation exhibits a rise in her baseline systolic blood
pressure of 32mmHg, a weight gain of 4 kgs since last week and difficulty removing
rings she normally wears. This is suggestive of
a) Gestational hypertension
b) Pre eclampsia
c) Eclampsia
d) Elevated liver enzymes
b) Pre eclampsia
163
The newborn would respond most effectively to feeding in which state
a) Drowsy
b) Quiet alert
c) Active alert
d) Crying
d) Crying
164
At birth the major cause of heat loss is by
a) Evaporation
b) Radiation
c) Conduction
d) Convection
a) Evaporation
165
The foetal presenting part is described as vertex when the
a) Face enters the pelvis first
b) Buttocks emerge with legs extended over the abdomen
c) Flexed head enters pelvis first
d) Foetal lie is longitudinal
c) Flexed head enters pelvis first
166
For people with diabetes mellitus polyuria is the result of
a) Increased glomerular permeability due to generalized vascular damage
b) Increased glomerular filtration due to decreased serum albumin concentration
c) Increased volume of glomerular filtrate due to elevated blood pressure
d) Decreased water resorption due to high tubular osmotic pressure
d) Decreased water resorption due to high tubular osmotic pressure
167
Characteristically, respirations of the client in diabetic acidosis are
a) Shallow and irregular
b) Uneven in rate and depth
c) Deep, rapid, with acetone breath, (kussmaul)
d) Rapid and shallow
c) Deep, rapid, with acetone breath, (kussmaul)
168
Which of the following actions of a breastfeeding mother indicate the need for further
instruction
a) Holds breast with four fingers along the bottom and thumb at the top
b) Leans forward to bring breast towards the baby
c) Stimulates the rooting reflex than inserts nipple and areola into newborns open
mouth
d) Puts her finger into newborns mouth before removing breast
b) Leans forward to bring breast towards the baby
169
The nurse would recognise that a new mother understood breastfeeding instructions
when she explains
a) I feed my baby every two hours around the clock
b) I always start feeding on my right breast, as my baby feeds best on that breast
c) I use both the football and the traditional positions for feeding
Page 110 of 203
d) I let my baby continue to suck for a while on the second breast once its empty
d) I let my baby continue to suck for a while on the second breast once its empty
170
During the transition from foetal to neonatal circulation, the newborn cardiovascular
system accomplishes which of the following anatomic and physiologic alterations
1. Closure of the ductus venosus
2. Closure of the foramen ovale
3. Closure of the ductus arteriosis
4. Increased systemic pressure and decreased pulmonary artery
pressure
a) 1,2,3 and 4
b) 1,2 and 3
c) 2,3 and 4
d) 1,3 and 4
a) 1,2,3 and 4
171
The patency of the trachea is maintained by
a) Incomplete rings of cartilage
b) Circular smooth muscle fibres
c) Thickly layered pseudo stratified epithelium
d) Elastic connective tissue
a) Incomplete rings of cartilage
172
. A definition of cor pulmonale is
a) L) sided heart failure secondary to disease of the lungs
b) L) sided heart failure secondary to R) sided heart failure
c) R) sided heart failure secondary to severe lung disease
d) Disease of the lungs secondary to R) sided heart failure
c) R) sided heart failure secondary to severe lung disease
173
The risk for constipation in the postpartum period is related to all except
a) Tenderness of the episiotomy
b) Decreasing levels of oestrogen
c) Decreased abdominal muscle tone
d) Fear of pain and of ripping sutures during a bowel movement
b) Decreasing levels of oestrogen
174
A primiparous woman, one day postpartum, calls the nurse into her room the woman
explains that while breastfeeding, she experienced uterine cramps and a heavy gush
that soaked through her pad to the bed. The nurse should
a) Palpate the woman‟s fundus
b) Tell the woman that this often happens when breastfeeding
c) Administer PRN ergometrine medication
d) Assist the woman with perineal care and changing her pad
a) Palpate the woman‟s fundus
175
Which of the following signs would a person admitted to hospital with an acute attack
of asthma present with
a) Dyspnea, tachycardia, anxiety
b) Dyspnea, bradycardia, frothy sputum
c) Tachycardia, chest pain, pallor
d) Increased anxiety, sweating, chest pain
a) Dyspnea, tachycardia, anxiety
