Questions Flashcards
(116 cards)
1
Q
One has a legal obligation to inform his/her patient that implants can fail. It is wise to get a written consent.
A
Both statements are true
2
Q
Implant stability is determined by:
- Volume of bone
- Quality of bone
- Diameter and length of implant
- All of the above
A
All of the above
3
Q
T/F: Diagnostic models and photographs are vital in EVERY implant case
A
False
4
Q
All of the following measurements are critical for implant placement except one, which is the exception?
- 1 mm from sinus/nasal floor
- 5 mm anterior to mental foramen
- 2 mm superior to mandibular canal
- All of the measurements are correct
A
All of the measurements are correct
5
Q
There should be 1.5 mm between an implant and an adjacent tooth. There should be 4 mm between adjacent implants
A
both statements are true
6
Q
An immediate implant is one that is placed:
A
At the time of extraction
7
Q
Indications of failed implants include
- Persistant pain
- Mobility
- Recurrent infections
- Bone loss
- All of the above
A
All of the above
- Persistant pain
- Mobility
- Recurrent infections
- Bone loss
8
Q
Clinical expression of stressed implants includes
- Persistant pain
- Mobility
- Recurrent infections
- Bone loss
- All of the above
A
All of the above
- Persistant pain
- Mobility
- Recurrent infections
- Bone loss
9
Q
Causes of implant failure include
- poor treatment plan
- compromised fixture placement
- infection
- compromised restorations
- poor coordination
- All of the above
A
All of the above
- poor treatment plan
- compromised fixture placement
- infection
- compromised restorations
- poor coordination
10
Q
Patients reports a loose implant-supported crown. A reasonable assessment would include which sequence?
A
Loose abutment screw
Fractured abutment screw
Abscess
Fractured porcelain
11
Q
T/F: Implants should be splinted to adjacent teeth
A
False (no PDL)
12
Q
T/F: when a single implant is attached to a natural tooth, biting forces on the natural tooth and pontic may cause stress to be concentrated at the superior portion of the implant
A
True
13
Q
T/F: During the placement of an implant, bone heating is NOT an important factor
A
False
14
Q
T/F: the ideal crown: implant ratio is > 1:1
A
True
15
Q
T/F: during the prosthetic treatment planning, the anterior posterior (AP) spread is the distance measured between a line drawn through the middle of the anterior implant and a line drawn through the distal of the posterior implant
A
True
16
Q
T/F: contusion is a soft tissue injury without a break in the surface, representing hemorrhage subcutaneously or submucosally
A
True
17
Q
T/F: The Andreasen Classification is the most widely used and includes a description of injuries to the teeth, supporting structures, gingiva and oral mucosa
A
True
18
Q
Which one shows the correct steps for laceration treatment
- Cleanse, debride, hemostasis, closure
- Debride, cleanse, hemostasis, pressure
- Debride, cleanse, hemostasis, closure
- Cleanse, debride, hemostasis, pressure
A
Cleanse, debride, hemostasis, closure
19
Q
T/F: basic principles of management of maxillofacial trauma patients with overlying soft tissue injury is to repair the soft tissue FIRST
A
False
20
Q
T/F: It is correct to say that abrasion is a lesion presenting usually as a superficial denuding epithelium
A
True
21
Q
T/F: When repairing lacerations from facial trauma, work from the outside inwards
A
False
22
Q
T/F: A laceration is more commonly called a bruise and indicates that some amount of tissue disruption has occurred within the tissues, which resulted in subcutaneous or submucosal hemorrhage without a break in the soft tissue surface
A
False - contusion
23
Q
A panorex x-ray is a good screening radiograph for all of the following situations except?
A
Symphysis or midline fractures of the mandible
24
Q
Concussion?
A
reaction to percussion in BOTH horizontal and vertical directions
25
Subluxation?
Occur when there is an injury to the tooth supporting structure that causes abnormal loosening; however, there is no clinical or radiographic displacement of the involved tissue
26
Treatment of subluxated tooth?
Occlusal adjustment on opposing dentition, light wire or composite stabilization for 1-2 weeks, soft diet, vitality monitoring
27
Treatment of concussion
Relieve occlusion, palliative and soft diet, monitor pulp vitality
28
Intrusive luxation when tested with percussion responds with a dull sound. Erupting teeth respond with a "ting"
Both statements are false (intrusion = high pitched ting, eruption = dull sound)
29
Pulpal necrosis following luxation injuries to the dentition is most common in which type of injury?
Intrusion (96%)
30
T/F: Horizontal root fractures have a better prognosis than vertical root fractures
True
31
All of the following involving an invulsed tooth are true except:
- Unlikely to be associated with pulpal necrosis
- More commonly seen in the maxilla
- A primary tooth may impinge on the tooth bud if the permanent successors in a buccal-occlusal position
Unlikely to be associated with pulpal necrosis
32
T/F: A root fracture near the alveolar crest needs immediate endodontic therapy and stabilization or extraction
True
33
Avulsion is all of the following except:
- Is not painful
- Is painful
- Does not cause scarring
Is not painful
34
Regarding tooth avulsion treatment, which is incorrect?
- Sterilized teeth
- irrigate tooth with saline
- don't re=implant deciduous teeth
- do not scrape teeth
Sterilize teeth
35
Success in maintaining a re-implanted tooth that is an ex-articulated or avulsion injury is greatest when the time of implantation is:
Less than 30 minutes
36
T/F: regarding tooth avulsion treatment, success of reimplantation is inversely related to the length of time the tooth is out of the socket
True
37
T/F: Evidence supports closed reduction as the primary treatment modality for condylar fractures regardless of the degree of displacement
True
38
T/F: A mandibular tooth with a horizontally favorable fracture line resists upward displacing forces, such as the pull of the masseter and temporalis muscles on the proximal fragment when viewed in the horizontal plane
True
39
T/F: A graft can be defined as "transplanted tissue that is expected to become part of the host?
True
40
Which of the following transplant descriptions is not correct?
- Alloplast - self
- Allograft - same species
- Xenograft - different species
- Alloplast - synthetic
Alloplast - self =WRONG
Autograph = self
41
T/F: osteoconduction is formation of new bone from osteoprogenitor cells along a biologic and alloplstic scaffold
True
42
T/F: Osteogenesis is new bone formation from osteocompetent (bone-forming) cells
True
43
T/F: Osteoinduction is formation of new bone by guided differentiation of stem-cell precursors into osteoblasts by bone inductive proteins (BMP)
True
44
Management of root fracture
Purchase point, reflect flap, remove bone as needed
45
T/F: Osteoid forms within the first 2 weeks
False
| - synthesis of osteoid is during weeks 2-6
46
Which of the following is NOT essential for a graft?
- mobility
- placement into healthy tissue
- adequate blood supply at recipient site
- appropriate bone-graft contact
- Immobility
Mobility
47
Platelet rich plasma advantages
- Enhances bone and soft tissue regeneration
- is autologous
- easy to process
- all of the above
All of the above
- Enhances bone and soft tissue regeneration
- is autologous
- easy to process
48
Platelet rich plasma disadvantages
- Is not osteogenic
- Is not osteoinductive
- All of the above
All of the above
- Is not osteogenic
- Is not osteoinductive
49
T/F: xenografts are derived from inorganic portion of bone from a species that is genetically different than recipient
True
50
T/F: Bone grafting is completed after stabilization and intermaxillary fixation and/or rigid fixation
True
51
T/F: Traditionally, the length of IMF (intermaxillary fixation) used for adult mandibular fractures have been 6 to 8 months
False
6-8 weeks
52
An advantage of xenograft is that there is no additional site required. A disadvantage is that there is a lack of osteocompetent cells
Both statements are true
53
T/F: Autographs are immunocompatible
True
54
T/F: there is no need for a second surgery when an autograft is utilized
False (need 2nd site)
55
T/F: AN allograft has osteoconduction but minimal osteoinduction
True
56
T/F: Bovine is the most common xenograft material
True
57
T/F: with sinus augmentation, it is necessary/vital to ensure continuity of Schneiderian membrane
True
| must keep sinus membrane intact
58
Prevents the inward growth of fibrous tissue
Guided bone regeneration/bone graft
59
T/F: cancellous graft composition is considered the "gold standard" when compared with cortical bone
True
60
T/F: examination of the C-spine radiographically should always occur when a patient presents with potential maxillofacial trauma
True
61
T/F: The most frequent mandibular fractures occur in the coronoid process
False
62
T/F: Tugging on a mandible with bilateral non-displaced condylar fractures will elicit pain
True
63
Adults need _____ of time for stabilization for dentoalveolar fractures using a segmental arch bar
4-6 weeks
64
Treatment of alveodental fractures includes all of the following except
- Stabilization for 1-2 weeks
- occlusal adjustments
- Vitality monitoring
Stabilization for 1-2 weeks
needs to be stabilized for 4-6 weeks w/rigid bar
65
Unilateral condylar fracture on a patient may register as a deviation at rest or upon opening. In both instances, this is toward the side of the fracture and is a result of the ramus and less of the effect of lateral pterygoid musculature
First statement true
| second statement false
66
Deviation of the jaw on the ____ side of the fracture
Deviate = same side
67
T/F: a patient presents with a subcondylar fracture. On opening, the mandible frequently shifts more toward the side of the fracture as a result of decreased translation of the condyle on the injured side
True
68
T/F: Regarding a condylar fracture in children, it is correct to say that fragments of highly vascularized osteogenic material that are dispersed throughout the joint space may increase the incidence of ankylose
True
69
Horizontal mandibular fractures resist upward forces of masseter/temporalis. A vertical mandibular fracture resists the medial pull of the medial pterygoid
Both statements are true
70
Mandibular limitation on opening is indicative of:
Injury to bony skeleton, perhaps with severely depressed zygomatic arch
71
Displaced right condylar neck fracture of the mandible is classified as an ____
unfavorable ocmpound
72
A patient with significant facial injury has upper lip paresthesia. Which CN is involved?
CN V2
73
Which CN has been damaged leading to left orbital rim paresthesia?
If paralysis = CN VII (7)
| If paresthesia = CN V2
74
Evaluation of facial injuries in young children should always include the possibility that the child is being abused. Frequent visits to the ER for injuries to a child can sometimes be revealed by reviewing the patients chart
Both statements are true
75
T/F: One factor in evaluating pain characteristics are those situations that aggravate as well as those that relieve pain
True
76
T/F: Bruising NEVER exists intraorally
False
77
The maxilla up is most stable and mandible forward is least stable
First statement true
| Second statement false (Maxilla wider = least stable)
78
The parotid gland is largest salivary gland and produces 70% of saliva
```
First statement true
Second false
(only produces 25%)
```
79
The parotid gland is associated with the highest incidence of tumors including pleomorphic adenoma
Bothe statements are true
80
T/F: The submandibular gland produces just 3-4% of daily saliva
False
81
Sialoliths are associated with all of the following except:
- swelling
- difficulty opening
- palpable bulges
- purulence
difficulty opening
82
T/F: Most salivary gland tumors present bilaterally
False - only 2% bilateral
83
T/F: stones in mandibular salivary ducts are more common than stones in the parotid duct
true
84
T/F: mucocele formation results in an elevated, thinned, and stretched overlying mucosa that appears as a vesicle filled with a clear or blue/gray mucus. The Patient frequently relates a history of the lesion filling with fluid, rupture of the fluid collection, and refilling of the lesion
True
85
When removing a mucous retention phenomenon (mucoceles), underlying anatomy often dictates the direction of the incision. The closer the mucocele is to the vermillion border, the greater the concern for cosmetic repair
Both statements are true
86
The parotid gland is split into superficial and deep lobes by _____
CN VII (innervated by CN 9)
87
A common complaint of patients experiencing obstructive salivary gland disease is swelling when eating. Salivary gland obstruction usually dissipates over several hours after meals
Both statements are true
88
Mucoceles are best treated by ___
Surgical excision including the salivary glands surrounding it
89
T/F: the incidence of stone formation varies, depending on the specific gland involved. The submandibular gland is involved in 85% of cases, which is more common than all other glands
True
90
Patient exposed to an oral bisphosphonate more than 4 years may want to consider discontinuing BPs for 2 months prior and _____ following elective invasive dental surgery in patients or until osseous healing has occured
3 months following
91
Muscle and nerve cells have _______ to radiation
little sensitivity
92
Germinal and lymphoreticular cells are the _____ to radiation
Most sensitive
93
Endothelial and fibroblast cells are most important in healing. They have intermediate sensitivity to radiation
Both statements true
94
Radiation caries causes degeneration of odontoblasts including dentin and DEJ
Both statements are true
95
T/F: The "3-H issue" refers to tissues that become hypocellular, hypovascular and hypoxic due to radiation
true
96
T/F: HBO oxygenates tissue outside the hemoglobin delivery system and is able to generate enhanced oxygen gradients throughout the irradiated tissues and especially between the irradiated and non-irradiated tissues
True
97
T/F: RANK ligand inhibitors are anti-resorptive agents that exist as a fully humanized antibody against RANK ligand (RANK-L) and inhibits osteoclast function and associated bone resorption
True
98
Bisphosphonates are internalized by the osteoblast causing disruption of osteoclast-mediated bone resorption. They work by inhibition of osteoclast recruitment, diminishing the osteoclast life span and inhibition of osteoclast activity at the bone surface
First statement false
| second statement true
99
The "golden window" for treatment refers to _____ and tooth extraction can be done without HBO
The first 4 months after radiation therapy
100
T/F: After the 4 month window, standard protocol of HBO is recommended for elective surgery in irradiated tissues
True
101
Osteoradionecrosis is bone death caused by radiation and is an active infection
First statement true
| Second statement false
102
T/F: Radiation-induced trismus is not a result of the effects of radiation on the TMJ but rather the radiation fibrosis
True
103
T/F: regarding radiotherapy in head and neck tumors, a common protocol is to field radiate the neck and the tumor or surgical bed to 5,000 cGy and to provide an additional 2,000 - 2,200 cGy "boost" at the primary site or surgical site
True
104
T/F: Regarding the resolution of oral bisphosphonates induced osteonecrosis, it is correct to say that more than 50% of these cases will resolve with a drug holiday alone
True
105
T/F: In cephalometric analysis, points SNA describes the skeletal relationship of the mandible to the cranial base
False
106
T/F: In cephalometric analysis, vertical assessment is measured by SNGoGn
True
107
Bilateral sagittal split osteotomy (BSSO) cutting through inferior alveolar nerve
greater risk
108
T/F: One advantage of the BSSO is that rigid fixation can eliminate intermaxillary fixation
true
109
T/F: The intra oral vertical osteotomy (IVRO) can be used to treat patients presenting a mandible class II occlusion
False
110
T/F: A BSSO required an extraoral incision
False
111
T/F: One requirement of a BSSO is the complete detachment of the masseter and medial pterygoid muscles bilaterally
False
112
LeFort I _____ used in mandibular orthognathic surgery
Not used!
Genioplasty and BSSO can be used for mandibular surgery
113
T/F: most surgeons now utilize a bilateral sagittal split osteotomy (BSSO) for both anterior and posterior repositioning of the mandible
True
114
Which of the following is not an advantage of SARPE (surgical assisted rapid palatal expansion)?
Future need of dental extractions
115
Which bone is not selected in a down fracture technique of the maxilla?
Ethmoids
116
T/F: Recent advances in post-down fracture osteotomy stabilization include mini-plates
True
