Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What is the DOC of the TWR and APP frequencies?

A
Approach = 25NM & 10,000ft
Tower = 10NM & 4000ft
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2
Q

What are the weather standby criteria?

A

Prevailing viz = 1000m or less
Wind = 20kts or more in excess of 45 degrees off RWY centreline
Cloud = SCT/BKN/OVC 500ft or worse

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3
Q

In respect of RSIVA, when can standard separation be reduced?

A

(1) - Adequate separation can be provided by the aerodrome controller when each aircraft is continuously visible to the controller
(2) - Each aircraft is continuously visible to the pilots of the other aircraft concerned and the pilots report that they can maintain their own separation.
(3) - When one aircraft is following another, the pilot of the succeeding aircraft reports that he has the other aircraft in sight and can maintain own separation.

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4
Q

What are the specific responsibilities of the aerodrome controller?

A

(1) - Notifying emergency services as per the local instructions;
(2) - Informing aircraft its control of any depletion in aerodrome emergency services;
(3) - Providing an approach control service when carrying out functions delegated by approach control

(4) - Supplying the following information to approach control:
(a) Pertinent data on IFR, Special VFR and VFR traffic including departures, missed approaches and overdue aircraft
(b) Appropriate items of essential aerodrome information

(5) - Informing the aerodrome operator when it becomes apparent that there is a deterioration in the state of the aerodrome or associated facilities for which the aerodrome operator is responsible
(6) - Initiating overdue action at aerodromes where no approach control unit is established

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5
Q

When would you take overdue action?

A

Preliminary - 30 Minutes after the ETA

Full - 1 Hour after the ETA (Unless there is reason to believe it is needed earlier e.g. full known to be exhausted)

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6
Q

What are the dimensions of Runways 02/20?

A

1036m x 18m

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7
Q

What is the phraseology for essential aerodrome information?

A

Caution…(Item of essential aerodrome information)

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8
Q

What are the 9 items of Essential Aerodrome Information?

A

(1) - Construction work or maintenance on the manoeuvring area
(2) - Rough portions of the manoeuvring area and whether or not they are marked
(3) - Failure or irregular functioning of the aerodrome lighting system. Defects must be passed to pilots in the form that they have been reported to the controller. Controllers should not make assumptions that a particular defect renders an associated aid unserviceable or not available. The pilot is responsible for deciding his course of action
(4) - Failure or irregular function of approach aids
(5) - Aircraft parked close to the runways or taxiways and aircraft engaged in ground running of engines
(6) - Water, snow, slush, ice or frost on a runway, a taxiway or an apron
(7) - In snow and ice conditions, information concerning the sweeping and or sanding of the manoeuvring area.
(8) - Bird formations or large individual birds observed on or above the manoeuvring area or in the vicinity.
(9) - Information on the location an operational status of any arrester gear installation

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9
Q

What are the 3 emergency squawks and their uses?

A

7700 - General Emergency
7600 - Radio Fail
7500 - Hijack/Unlawful Interference

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10
Q

Which airspace classifications are deemed Controlled Airspace?

A

A, B, C, D, E - Controlled

F & G - Uncontrolled

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11
Q

What are the objectives of an Air Traffic Service?

A

(1) - Prevent collisions between aircraft
(2) - Prevent collisions between aircraft on the manoeuvring area and obstructions on that area
(3) - Expedite and maintain and orderly flow of air traffic
(4) - Provide advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flights
(5) - Notify appropriate organisations regarding aircraft in need of search and rescue aid and assist such organisations as required.

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12
Q

What is the minimum wake turbulence separation between a departing C152 following an A400M making a low approach?

A

3 Minutes

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13
Q

What is the minimum wake turbulence separation between a light following a Small aircraft on approach?

A

4NM

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14
Q

What is the transition altitude used at Shoreham?

A

6000ft

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15
Q

How would you calculate an RVR value for Shoreham at night?

A

Met vis x 1.5

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16
Q

What is the procedure used when the B1 CCTV camera fails?

A

Runway 02: A1 used. One aircraft at a time taxied via B1 to line up

Runway 20: Aircraft asked to report runway vacated is using Bravo

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17
Q

Dedicated low level CCTS are allowed on which runways and at what height?

A

24 LHC
06 RHC

750ft

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18
Q

What are the code words used for the Royal Train?

A

GROVE - Royal Train

DEEPDEENE - Semi-Royal Train

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19
Q

A pilot is required to file a flight plan for…?

A

(1) - Any flight or portion thereof to be provided with an air traffic control service
(2) - Any IFR flight operating in advisory airspace
(3) - any flight within or into areas, or along routes designated by the authority, to facility the provision of flight information, alerting and search and rescue services
(4) - Any flight within or into areas designated by the authority, established to prevent the need for interception
(5) - Any flights across international boundaries

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20
Q

How would a controller file an overload report?

A

By filling an MOR with the words “Overload Report” in the title.

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21
Q

In the vicinity of aerodromes, the standard separation minima may be reduced if…?

A

(1) - Adequate separation can be provided by the aerodrome controller when each aircraft is continuously visible to this controller.
(2) - Each aircraft is continuously visible to the pilots of the other aircraft concerned and the pilots report that they can maintain their own separation
(3) - When one aircraft is following another, the pilot of the succeeding aircraft reports that he has the other aircraft in sight , and can maintain own separation

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22
Q

How should a category of flight be marked?

A

The category letter should be written in Box M, as a capital letter and circled.

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23
Q

What is the definition of a runway incursion?

A

Any occurrence at an aerodrome involving the incorrect presence of an aircraft, vehicle or person on the protected area of a surface designated for the landing and take-off of aircraft.

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24
Q

What initial action would you take if you where involved in an AIRPROX whilst on duty?

A

(1) - Wherever possible the controller(s) concerned should be withdrawn from operational duty and interviewed formally to establish the basic facts.
(2) - If it is likely that the controller(s), ATC procedures or equipment are implicated, telephone the Regional Manager ATS Safety Regulation, giving immediately available details of the incident.

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25
Q

What is the definition of a regional pressure setting?

A

The forecast of the lowest QNH value within an altimeter setting region

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26
Q

In which ASR does Shoreham lie?

A

Chatham (Adjacent to Portland)

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27
Q

Line-up instructions may be issued to multiple aircraft at different points on the same or crossing runways provided that…?

A

(1) - It is during daylight hours
(2) - All aircraft are continuously visible to the aerodrome controller
(3) - All aircraft are on the same RTF frequency
(4) - Pilots are advised of the number that they are in the departure sequence, and the position/runway from which the aircraft before them will depart
(5) - The physical characteristics of the runway do not render the preceding aircraft in the departure sequence invisible to the succeeding aircraft on the same runway.

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28
Q

What is the definition of night?

A

The time between half an hour after sunset and half an hour before sunrise

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29
Q

In which conditions must aerodrome lighting be displayed?

A

By day: Visibility less than 5km and the cloud base is less than 700ft

By night: Irrespective of weather conditions

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30
Q

What are the five types of runway surface state?

A

(1) - Dry
(2) - Damp
(3) - Wet
(4) - Water Patches
(5) - Flooded

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31
Q

What is the published DOC of the Distress and Diversion Cell?

A

2000ft amsl within 40nm of EGLL and 3000ft elsewhere

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32
Q

What are the widths of taxiways Alpha and Kilo?

A
Alpha = 11m
Kilo = 7.5m
33
Q

An aerodrome control unit shall provide what types of service?

A

(1) - Aerodrome control Service
(2) - Basic Service
(3) - Alerting Service

34
Q

What RFFS Category is promulgated at Shoreham?

A

RFFS Cat 2

35
Q

What should be done in the event of a windshear report on final approach?

A

(1) - Be prepared for a go-around
(2) - Provide enhanced traffic information
(3) - Warn all following aircraft of the presence of windshear, until it is reported that the windshear is no longer present.
(4) - Append the windshear warning to the ATIS

36
Q

How would an Alleged Breach of Air Navigation Legislation (ABANL) be reported.

A

A report should be made with from CA939 and the SATCO/MgrATS should be informed of the action taken.

37
Q

What is the tolerance on a slot time?

A

-5 and +10 minutes either side of the CTOT

38
Q

What are the 4 criteria for allowing 2 helicopters to use the HTA W circuit at once?

A
  1. Both helicopters have instructors on board
  2. Both helicopters conform to the same CCT direction
  3. No Hover or general handling details are permitted
  4. HTA Q still available
39
Q

What 7 Weather warnings does EGKA receive?

A
Thunderstorm
Strong wind
Gale
Snow
Hail
Fog
Frost
40
Q

What class is the Shoreham VDF and what accuracy is this?

A

Class Bravo

+/- 5°

41
Q

What is the true bearing of Runway 20?

A

202°

42
Q

What is the true bearing of Runway 02?

A

022°

43
Q

What is the true bearing of Runway 06?

A

064°

44
Q

What is the true bearing of Runway 24?

A

244°

45
Q

What is the true bearing of Runway 13?

A

125°

46
Q

What is the true bearing of Runway 31?

A

305°

47
Q

What is the elevation of the 20 threshold?

A

7ft amsl

48
Q

What is the elevation of the 02 threshold?

A

7ft amsl

49
Q

What is the elevation of the 20G threshold?

A

6ft amsl

50
Q

What is the elevation of the 02G threshold?

A

6ft amsl

51
Q

What is the elevation of the 13 threshold?

A

7ft amsl

52
Q

What is the elevation of the 31 threshold?

A

6ft amsl

53
Q

At what angle are the 20 PAPIs set?

A

4.5°

54
Q

At what angle are the 02 PAPIs set?

A

3.5°

55
Q

What is the frequency and DOC of the SRH DME?

A

109.95MHz
10nm
5500ft

56
Q

What is the frequency and range of the SHM NDB?

A

332KHz

Range 10nm

57
Q

Describe the airspace around Shoreham?

A

Immediately surrounding the airfield is class G

4NM north - Class A Airspace 4500ft

9NM north - Class A Airspace 2500ft

58
Q

Describe the helicopter operations a Shoreham?

A
  1. Helicopter circuits from HTAs ‘W’ and ‘X’ are frequently active below the fixed-wing ‘dead-side’ and ‘live-side’ circuit patterns subject to the runway(s) in use. All helicopter circuits shall be not above 600 FT QNH (unless otherwise authorised) and negative RTF but maintaining a listening watch:HTA ‘W’ - Runway 02 in use - Left hand circuit, remain west of 02/20 runway strip.HTA ‘W’ - Runway 20 in use - Right hand circuit, remain west of 02/20 runway strip.HTA ‘X’ - Runway 06 in use - Left hand circuit, remain north of Runway 06/24 strip and cross Runway 02/20 strip as required.HTA ‘X’ - Runway 24 in use - Right hand circuit, remain north of Runway 06/24 strip and cross Runway 02/20 strip as required.
  2. A sloping ground training area is situated adjacent to the northern windsock on the northwestern side of the aerodrome.
  3. All helicopter arrivals and departures shall enter/depart the ATZ not above 600 FT QNH unless otherwise authorised and request specific clearance to cross any runway strip.
  4. Helicopters should avoid overflying built up areas that are adjacent to the arrival/departure routes and should not fly along the river from the harbour entrance, but shall remain on the coast to the southeastern corner entry route of the aerodrome.
  5. Confined helicopter training area (HTA ‘Q’) is situated NNW of HTA ‘W’. Not to be used by solo/student pilots.
59
Q

In GRF, what are the 4 reporting terms used for runway surface conditions?

A
  1. Dry
  2. Wet
  3. Slippery Wet
  4. Contaiminated
60
Q

What are the 8 runway surface condition descriptors?

A
  1. Compacted Snow
  2. Dry Snow
  3. Frost
  4. Ice
  5. Slush
  6. Standing Water
  7. Wet Ice
  8. Wet Snow
61
Q

Where can guidance for the operation of lasers, seachlights and fireworks be found?

A

CAP 736

62
Q

When do the guidelines stated in CAP 736 apply to lasers, search lights and fireworks?

A

When the display is within 500 metres of either side of the extended cetreline within 10nm of the aerodrome reference point.

Within 3 nm, the same guidelines apply but with the addition that the lights should not stray towards the aerodrome or extended centreline.

63
Q

What is the vertical limit for a firework display?

A

1500ft

64
Q

Within what range to an aerodrome can a firework display take place without having to comply with specific guidance?

A

3nm

65
Q

When may standard separation be reduced in the vicinity of an aerodrome?

A
  1. When adequate separation can be provided by the aerodrome controller when each aircraft is continuously visible to this controller
  2. Each aiurcraft is continuously visible to the pilots of the other aircraft concerned and they can maintain their own separation
  3. When one aircraft is following another, the pilot of the succeding aircraft reports the other aircraft in sight and can maintain their own separation.
66
Q

What is the definition of an Aircraft Accident?

A

Aircraft Accidents which have occurred, or are inevitable on, or in the vicinity of, the aerodrome.

67
Q

What is the definition of an Aircraft Ground Incident?

A

Where an aircraft on the ground is known to have an emergency situation other than an accident, requiring the attendance of emergency services.

68
Q

What is the definition of a Full Emergency?

A

When it is known that an aircraft in the air is, or is suspected to be, in such
difficulties that there is a danger of an accident.

69
Q

What is the definition of a Local Standby?

A

When it is known that an aircraft has, or is suspected to have, developed some defect but the trouble would not normally involve any serious difficulty in effecting a safe landing.

70
Q

What is the definition of a Weather Standby?

A

When weather conditions are such as to render a landing difficult or difficult to observe.

71
Q

What are the operational procedures for LVPs

A
  1. Only one aircraft will be permitted between conscutive holding points at once.
  2. Formation departures and arrivals are not permitted
  3. Runway and Taxiway lighting shall be illuminated before any aircraft taxis and 15 minutes prior to the ETA (when known to be airbourne)
  4. If an aircraft requests assistance for taxi, a follow-me should be made available
  5. No aircraft should be able to enter or cross the runway when another has reported at the final approach fix or equivalent distance
72
Q

What are the criteria for entering LVPs

A
  1. visibility falls below 1000m
  2. is forecast to fall below 600m, or
  3. If holding points K1 or A1 are not visible from the VCR
73
Q

What size is the cleared and graded area of Runway 02/20?

What code is the runway?

A

40M from the centreline

Runway Code 2: 800m-1199m

74
Q

What are the current S/Is for CAP413 (2024 check)

A

7 in total:

  1. RMZ’s - Getting an LoA if no radio inside the RMZ
  2. Flight Priorites - Rescue priorities
  3. GRF - Introduction and Guidance
  4. Police, HEMS and SAR callsigns
  5. RNPs at aerodromes with AGCS
  6. Special Use Airspace crossings
  7. Cooperative ATS surveillance systems in FIS
75
Q

What conditions are conducive to windshear?

A
  1. The presnece of frontal/sqall/thunderstorm activity in the vicinity of the aerodrome
  2. The precence of low level inversions
  3. Local terrain or buildings
76
Q

What is the definition of windshear?

A

Windshear is a sustained change in the wind velocity along the aircraft flight path which occurs significantly faster than the aircraft and accelerate or decellerate.

77
Q

What should a windshear report to pilots contain?

A
  1. A warning of the presence of windshear
  2. The height or band where the shear was encountered
  3. The time at which it was encountered
  4. Details of the effect of the windshear on the aircraft.
78
Q

When should an aerodrome inspection be made?

A
  1. Before the first flight of the day
  2. Before night flying
  3. Cessation of work on the manoeuvring area
  4. Following an aircraft accident
  5. Following a rejected takeoff by a turbine engined aircraft due to engine malfunction or any aircraft due to a burst tyre
  6. During snow and ice conditions
  7. When the ATCO deems it necessary
79
Q

For what duration should be UPS keep the ATCO desk active?

A

60 Minutes