Questions and Answers - General Flashcards

Question

When must performance figures be recalculated?

Answer 1

* +LMC and TOGA take off planned or * +LMC >250kg or * TOWCG >2% • +LMC<250kg, reduce FLEX by 1°C

Answer 2

9.5qt + 0.5qt per hour

Answer 3

* Cruise FL above FL250 or | * MFA anywhere above 14,000ft

Answer 4

If carried out position duty WITHIN a Flying Duty Period containing a claimed split duty, position journey will be counted as a sector when calculating allowable FDP

Answer 5

Yes. FDP must consist of two or more sectors, separated by less than (normal) minimum rest period. The FDP may be extended by: • Less than 3 hrs rest: no extension • 3-10 hrs rest: period equal to half of the rest taken

Answer 6

* 100 hours in 28 consecutive days | * 900 hours in 12 months

Answer 7

* 55 hours in 7 consecutive days * 95 hours in 14 consecutive days * 190 hours in 28 consecutive days

Answer 8

* Single sector/prior to last sector of multi-sector: 3 hours * Two or more sectors: 2 hours

Answer 9

Minimum 10 hours in suitable accommodation

Answer 10

* Reduction of rest by more than 1 hour * When an FDP extension exceeds 2 hours * When Commander extends cumulative limits

Answer 11

* Be responsible for the safety of all crew, passengers and cargo * Be responsible for the safety and operation of the aircraft * Have the authority to offload any persons or cargo that may represent a potential hazard to the safety of the aircraft or its occupants * Ensure all passengers have been briefed on the location of emergency exits and the location and use of relevant safety and emergency equipment * Not allow a person to be carried in the aircraft who appears to be under the influence of alcohol or drugs to the extent that the safety of the aircraft or its occupants is likely to be endangered * Have the right to refuse transportation of inadmissible passengers, deportees or persons in custody if their carriage increases the risk to the safety of the aircraft or its occupants * Decide on acceptance of the aircraft with unserviceabilities in accordance with the configuration deviation list (CDL) or the minimum equipment list (MEL) * Ensure that the pre-flight inspection has been carried out; * Be satisfied that relevant emergency equipment remains easily accessible for immediate use.

Answer 12

``` • Max crosswind: 20kt • Min RVR for take-off: 400m • No contaminated or slippery runway • No reported windshear • Approach minima: CAT 1 ILS, published NPA minima, circling 5000m vis • Min runway width: 45m • 3* FO: no FLAP 3 landings no tailwind landings ```

Answer 13

* Advise ATC - this could affect decision making * Advise MOC – they will arranger for engineering inspection on arrival * Complete Tech Log with relevant information * Submit ASR via SafetyNet. Include additional fields that are required in lieu of the CAA Birdstrike Form CA1282

Answer 14

``` As long as there is no: • Structural damage (deformation or cracking) • Unusual odour reported in the cabin • Impact closer than 1m to (REPPS)  Radome  Engine  Pack inlet  Pitot head  Static port ```

Answer 15

• easyJet: OM-A, OM-B, OM-C, OM-DF, CSPM, • Airbus: FCOM, FCTM, MEL, CDL, QRH

Answer 16

* When performance requires a TOGA take-off * When runway is contaminated * Flight planned with gear extended * Windshear reported

Answer 17

* 2nd segment: 2.4% gross * Final segment: 1.2% gross * Engine out case accounted for

Answer 18

* Approach climb: 2.1% * Landing climb: 3.2% * Low visibility climb: 2.5%

Answer 19

H: 30kt X: 20kt (no sharklets/sharklets without automatic rollout) 15kt (sharklets with automatic rollout) T: 10kt

Answer 20

``` • 125m/125m/125m • Lighting: HI REL spaced 60m or less HI CL spaced 15m or less • Other conditions: multiple RVRs LVPs in force 90m visual segment available from the cockpit (a/c design req) ```

Answer 21

A 90 m visual segment (6 lights) is available from the cockpit at the start of the take-off run. (This is an aeroplane design requirement. All easyJet aeroplanes are compliant.) CAUTION: displaced t/holds may have lighting of spacing > 15m. In this instance, move to where light spacing is 15m before assessment of visual segment.

Answer 22

Usually required for take-off Otherwise only required if RVRs are relevant (I.e. speed is 60kt or more) If third segment not available for take-off, the runway length may be reduced by 1/3 and performance be calculated for an equivalently shorter runway

Answer 23

RVRs are required: Crew must ensure that a meteorological visibility to RVR/CMV conversion is NOT used for take-off, for calculating any other required RVR minimum less than 800 m, or when reported RVR is available

Answer 24

Ceiling at or below 200ft, RVR at or below 600m

Answer 25

No company policy related to this. It would be prudent to take as much as is required for expected delays/holding due to restrictions on arriving traffic

Answer 26

Min RVR for take-off 150m

Answer 27

Continue and sort the failure. You can continue beyond 1000ft provided: • ECAM complete • New minima have been inserted in PERF APPR page • Approach rebriefed • Reported RVRs acceptable given system downgrade

Answer 28

* Alpha floor activation * AP failure (manual GA) or ATHR failure * Engine failure * AMBER CAUTION * Capability downgrade (triple click) except ISIS failure

Answer 29

* 1000ft: Stability criteria met, approach ban respected * 800RA: LDG INHIBIT * 700RA: FMGC data lock * 500RA: Stability criteria met * 350RA: LAND FMA announced by CM1. Check inbound course * 200ft: Below this, GA for RED AUTOLAND LIGHT * 100ft: ALERT HEIGHT * DH+100: 100 ABOVE announced by CM2 * DH: CONTINUE or GA/FLAPS announced by CM1 * 100RA: 100 announced by CM2 * 40RA: FLARE announced by CM2 * 30RA: Monitor thrust reduction entering flare * 10RA: CM1 retard thrust levers to IDLE, monitor lateral guidance * Touchdown: CM1 disengage AP

Answer 30

* 10% of aircraft capacity * A319: 16 * A320: 18 * 2 infants per accompanying adult

Answer 31

Disconnect the AP and remove the FDs at the latest before starting the descent toward the runway

Answer 32

• Carriage of human remains is not permitted

Answer 33

* Carriage of ashes IS permitted | * Death certificate and cremation certificate required

Answer 34

• Yes, provided they fit in the overhead lockers. • Larger instruments (e.g. cellos) must have a seat purchased for them to travel on, and centre of mass should be not more than 30cm above top of seat cusion  Window seat  Not a restricted seat

Answer 35

* Front row: A B C D * Overwings * Back row: C D

Answer 36

``` C – Children under 16 years H – Hearing, sight or other disability I – Infants on laps P – Pregnant, prisoners P – Physical size E – Elderly if frail D – Deportees ```

Answer 37

• Persons requiring special conditions, assistance and/or devices when carried on a flight shall be considered as SCPs • persons with reduced mobility (PRMs) whose mobility is reduced due to  any physical disability  sensory or locomotory  permanent or temporary, intellectual disability or impairment  any other cause of disability  age • infants and unaccompanied children • deportees, inadmissable passengers or prisoners in custody

Answer 38

OMA 9.1 Exceptions are (shown in OMA 9.1.3): • Items for airworthiness or operating reasons • To provide, during flight, medical aid to a patient

Answer 39

The MAX REC FL is the lowest of the maximum altitude that: • gives a buffet margin of at least 0.3g • can fly in level flight at MAX CRZ rating • can maintain V/S of 300fpm at MAX CLB thrust • can fly greater than GD speed and less than VMO/MMO MAX REC FL should be considered the upper cruise FL A higher CRZ FL may be entered, provided the buffet margin doesn’t reduce below 0.2g. If unable, message “CRZ ABOVE MAX FL”

Answer 40

* Cruise level for minimum cost when flying ECON MACH * Only meaningful if wind and temperature profiles have been accurately entered * Function of Cost Index

Answer 41

Boarding can commence with one less than normal crew provided: • One flight crew member is on the flightdeck • The operating SCCM is present • Pre-flight safety briefing has been completed • Pre-flight cabin checks (SEP and security) have been completed • No fuelling is taking place • When refuelling, 4 crew members are required. • Electrical power is available • One crew member is at each of the forward and aft doors • MAXIMUM 50 passengers per cabin crew members present may board. The remaining passengers may board when the final crew member is present. • In case of evacuation, Flight Crew member will assist at the front of the cabin

Answer 42

* One less than normal crew * Reduction must be authorised by the Duty Pilot or Network Duty Manager * Can only be used to enable return to originating base OR a base where a substitution can be made * Passengers may be reduced to ensure 50 passengers per operating cabin crew member (this excludes infants and removed cabin crew member)

Answer 43

Replace with another SCCM if one is on board Otherwise… • Next most senior crew member will become acting SCCM • Acting SCCM will be nominated by the Captain • Acting SCCM will have MIN 12 months experience and 20 sectors on type • Acting SCCM will familiarise themselves with their duties and procedures prior to departure and satisfy the Captain that their knowledge is adequate • Captain will submit an ASR

Answer 44

* Is she conscious? Do we need to divert? * Does she require immediate medical attention? Ask for doctor of medicine. * Is she fit to continue operating? This sector? Next sector? * If unfit – determine who will replace her as SCCM. Brief them on the requirement to now act as SCCM. * Alert OCC. If going to a crewed base, another SCCM will be available. Otherwise, consider operating next sector reduced crew (implications…) CSPM: • If during a flight a cabin crew member becomes incapacitated due to sickness or injury they will no longer be able to continue with their duties. • If the cabin crew member is not fit enough to complete an in-flight service they are not fit enough to perform safety related duties. If this is the case the affected cabin crew member must not sit in their allocated crew seat for landing. • If there is a free passenger seat in the cabin they should occupy this providing it is not a restricted seat. • If there are no free passenger seats the Commander must decide on the best available option.  Consider the Crew Member using the jump seat if their condition will not impair operations on the flightdeck. • The incapacitated crew member must not operate any further sectors and must be either offloaded or passenger back to base. • If crew are required to operate with a crew complement below normal the procedure for operation with reduced cabin crew must be followed before the next departure. • If the crew member’s condition improves during the course of the flight and they feel fully fit and able to carry out all safety related duties then they may continue with their duty and sit in their crew seat for landing. In this situation the crew member must confirm that they are also able to carry out any further sectors and complete their duty day and that they will not be offloaded after landing. • The Cabin Manager must determine that the crew member has recovered sufficiently and is fully fit and able to carry out all safety related duties. • If the incapacitated crew member is the Cabin Manager the Commander must make this decision.

Answer 45

* GREEN: A threat assessed as non-credible * AMBER: Ground only, a threat of doubtful credibility * RED: A credible and specific threat requiring immediate protective measures

Answer 46

* Disembark all passengers and crew with all cabin bag/baggage in controlled circumstances * Give “security problem” as the reason for the disembarkation. * Escape slides should only be used in extreme emergencies where steps or jetbridge are not available. * Remove passengers to an area separated from other passengers. * Inform ground staff and all other staff working around the area and the foot print of the aircraft to vacate the area. * Remove the aircraft to a remote location and quarantine the aircraft. * If there is sufficient time before estimated time of explosion carry out a search of the aircraft. * Once “ALL CLEAR” has been given by Police, carry out a full search of the aircraft and catering and ensure all passengers, cabin and hold luggage is screened again and passengers reconciled to baggage before any re-embarkation is permitted

Answer 47

* Advise airfield and passengers of a “security problem” * Request details of remote parking requirements and immediate availability of passenger steps * Advise airfield of the need to remove passengers from the vicinity of the aircraft to at least 200m in an upwind direction as quickly as possible * Disembark passengers using steps making sure that they take all their cabin bag/baggage with them * Only use escape slides if steps are not available, in which case use normal evacuation procedures

Answer 48

* If a specific threat is received in-flight, declare an emergency and divert to the nearest suitable airfield * The choice of airfield should take into account landing performance requirements, approach aids, emergency facilities and the proximity of the approach paths over densely populated areas * If a specific threat is received in-flight, follow the QRH checklist as if a bomb was found on board. * If the threat is received in the climb, stop the cabin altitude from rising further and, if possible, discontinue the climb. * Even though a threat has been assessed as RED, the likelihood of an explosive device being on board is low. Therefore, unless a suspicious article or explosive device has been found, the aircraft should be flown as normally as possible, in accordance with the requirements of the checklist and striking a reasonable balance between the need for a rapid landing and the risk arising from undue haste. * Brief Cabin Crew to make a discreet search of aircraft toilets and galleys for any suspicious articles. * If an immediate landing cannot be made, consider briefing the Cabin Crew to conduct a full search of the passenger cabin. If a suspicious item is found – see OMA 10.7.7. * If operationally possible, reduce the cabin differential pressure by descending the aircraft to the cabin altitude. Do not raise the cabin altitude. Maintain this cabin altitude until top of descent. When MSAs and range considerations permit, descend aircraft to below 10000 ft. * Minimise manoeuvres and try to avoid turbulence. * Consider carefully the choice between flying fast to minimise airborne time and flying slowly to minimise air loads and damage in the event of fuselage rupture. In most cases the turbulent air penetration speed will be a reasonable compromise * Announcements concerning return or diversion should indicate that the threat is to the airline and, although most likely a hoax, must be treated seriously. * On landing, follow same procedures for threat received on taxiing

Answer 49

* SCCM reports the flightdeck or interphone immediately | * Other crew await instructions (secure trollies etc)

Answer 50

A landing where under normal circumstances an evacuation will not be necessary after landing. After landing, crew will remain in their seats and await further instructions from the Commander – this will be either normal operations, SCCM to the FD, or evacuation.

Answer 51

Pre-planned Pre-planned – less than 10 minutes Unplanned Calls for pre-planned: @ 2000ft: “CABIN CREW TAKE UP LANDING POSITIONS” @ 500ft: “BRACE, BRACE” Calls for unplanned: “ATTENTION CREW, BRACE, BRACE”

Answer 52

• If there is an obvious, immediate life threatening situation i.e. catastrophic, any cabin crew member can initiate an evacuation, e.g.:  Ditching (landing on water)  Uncontrolled cabin fire/smoke  Severe structural damage to the aircraft (hole through fuselage)  abnormal aircraft attitude possibly accompanied by the sound of severe scraping as the aircraft comes to a stop). • If there is no communication from the pilots in an emergency situation, after the aircraft has come to a complete stop, and if the senior cabin crew member finds the pilots incapacitated then the senior cabin crew member can initiate an evacuation.

Answer 53

Start: 725°C MCT: 915°C TOGA: 950°C TOGA 2 engines: 5mins, TOGA 1 engine: 10mins

Answer 54

A380: 3 mins Heavy: 2 mins Add one minute for departure from intermediate position

Answer 55

A380: 7NM Heavy: 5NM Upper-medium: 4NM Medium: 3NM

Answer 56

FL290-FL410 inclusive | Vertical separation 1000ft

Answer 57

``` • 2 ADR + 2 DMC • 1 transponder • 1 autopilot • 1 FCU channel (for altitude target selection and OPEN CL/OP DES mode selection) • 2 PFD (for altitude indication) 1 FWC (for altitude alert function) ``` List is in FCOM PRO-SPO-50

Answer 58

• The Commander shall ensure that all snow, ice, frost or slush is removed from the aeroplane before take-off except as permitted by the manufacturer and as specified in the type-specific manuals OMB/FCOM (clean aircraft concept) • The exceptions to compliance with the clean aircraft concept, subject to FCOM PRO-SUP-91-30 alleviations, provisions and restrictions, include:  A coating of frost up to 3mm thick is permitted on wing lower surfaces, in the area cold soaked by fuel  Thin hoarfrost is acceptable on the  fuselage,  radome, and  engine cowl  Surface features (lines or markings) must be distinguishable. This must not be confused with rime ice, which may form on windward surfaces in freezing fog.

Answer 59

Mechanical methods only (brush)

Answer 60

• The Commander shall ensure that all snow, ice, frost or slush is removed from the aeroplane before take-off except as permitted by the manufacturer and as specified in the type-specific manuals OMB/FCOM (clean aircraft concept)

Answer 61

* At or below one-engine out acceleration altitude | * (usually 1000ft AGL)

Answer 62

Climb, cruise: icing conditions exist or are anticipated, TAT less than 10°C and greater than -40°C SAT Descent: icing conditions regardless of temperature, even if below -40°C

Answer 63

* Air: WING A.ICE should be used to prevent ice formation or remove ice accumulation from the wing leading edges. WING A.ICE should be selected ON whenever there is indication that airframe icing exists, as evidenced by ice accumulation on the visual ice indicator * Ground: WING A.ICE ON will run a 30s test sequence, then automatically switch off

Answer 64

• SAT: Static air temperature – the temperature that would be read off a thermometer (ambient) TAT: Total air temperature – the temperature of air brought to a rest in a freestream flow. The air is compressed and experiences an adiabatic increase in temperature. Therefore total air temperature is higher than the static (or ambient) air temperature

Answer 65

• If there is evidence of significant ice accretion and to take account of ice formation on non-heated structure, the minimum speed should be:  CONF FULL: VLS+5kt  CONF less than FULL: VLS+10kt • If there is evidence of ice accretion on de-iced parts of the airframe, with WING A.ICE inoperative, or unusable due engine fire, the minimum speeds should be:  CLEAN: VLS+15kt  CONF 1, 2, 3 or FULL: VLS+10kt

Answer 66

Crosswind above 20kt • PF apply FULL forward stick • PF set 50% N1 • Rapidly increase thrust to 70% N1 • Progressively increase thrust to achieve TO thrust by 40kt • Maintain FULL forward stick until 80kt, release to NEUTRAL by 100kt

Answer 67

Above 100ft AGL

Answer 68

10NM either side

Answer 69

Up to and including 5000ft: 1000ft clearance | More than 5000ft: 2000ft clearance

Answer 70

Yes. Corrections for wind speed should be applied in addition to the standard corrections for pressure and temperature, and ATC should be advised.

Answer 71

Category C

Answer 72

Category B, B restricted | Self-briefing is recorded by signing the OFP

Answer 73

OMA 8.1.2: Criteria for Determining Usability of Aerodromes OMA 8.1.7: Determination of the Quantities of Fuel and Oil OMC 12: Aerodrome Categorisation for Flight Crew Competence Qualification

Answer 74

72kt | however, for MAX AUTOBRAKE to function, spoilers must be extended and speed must be > 40kt

Answer 75

Ground spoilers armed: idle | Ground spoilers not armed: at least one thrust lever in reverse

Answer 76

No, revert to alternate brakes are automatically following system downgrade (failure etc.)

Answer 77

Yes, provided the NWS & ASKID switch is not set to OFF, and provided there is no power failure, BSCU failure, or G+Y hydraulic fault

Answer 78

1) Normal braking 2) Alternate braking with antiskid 3) Alternate braking without antiskid 4) Parking brake

Answer 79

``` Electrically: NWS & ASKID switch is set to OFF, power failure, BSCU failure, Hydraulically: Low G+Y hydraulic pressure ```

Answer 80

MEL: dispatch requirements QRH PER-32: landing distance for ASKID FAULT in flight QRH PER-C: landing speed for ASKID FAULT in flight

Answer 81

Check crosswind limits using QRH PER-C Runway Condition Assessment Matrix for Landing (POOR = 15kt) Check LDG PERF using CODE 1 for POOR BA

Answer 82

``` Initial actions: ENG MODE SEL…IGN THRUST LEVERS…IDLE OPT RELIGHT SPD…300KT LDG STRATEGY…DETERMINE EMER ELEC PWR…MAN ON ``` @ 300kt, aircraft flies 2NM per 1,000ft From 38,000ft range is ~76NM – aim for airfield within 70NM if possible

Answer 83

Go. Advise ATC Check engine indications/ask crew if there are any smells from air conditioning If suspect birdstrike with no indications, continue – contact MOC If suspect birdstrike with damage/smell/abnormal indications – consider return

Answer 84

There is no difference between OPEN CLB and CLB, apart from constraints being respected in CLB mode

Answer 85

Same of A319 and A320: below FL200 – 250kt FL200-FL320 – 275kt above FL320 – M0.76

Answer 86

• Aircraft: SIGNS… ON AUTOPILOT… KEEP ON AUTOTHRUST… when thrust changes become excessive, DISCONNECT • Cabin: “CABIN CREW AND PASSENGERS BE SEATED IMMEDIATELY” • ATC: Advise

Answer 87

Inform ATC of anything above moderate turbulence. | During severe turbulence over prolonged periods, tell ATC you are unable RVSM

Answer 88

Mode reversion to V/S | Maintains current rate

Answer 89

When climbing or descending with V/S mode engaged, at high altitude or if the selected V/S value is excessive, the FMGS maintains the V/S target, and allows the airspeed to decrease in climb or increase in descent. At high altitude this may rapidly result in a mode reversion whereby speed is protected at VLS (climb case) or VMAX (descent case).

Answer 90

• VHF1: At all times, appropriate ATC frequency • VHF2: in flight – 121.5 or when required ATIS/VOLMET/FIS/handling agent on ground – handling agent frequency * When obtaining an ATC clearance, headsets must be worn by both crew members * When obtaining a DCL, both pilots must verify the printed clearance and confirmation

Answer 91

* CREW INCAPACITATION * EGPWS * Immediate actions of EMER DESCENT * Immediate actions of UNRELIABLE SPEED INDICATION/ADR CHECK PROC * LOSS OF BRAKING * STALL RECOVERY * STALL WARNING AT LIFT-OFF * TCAS * WINDSHEAR * WINDSHEAR AHEAD

Answer 92

* Talk about where the runway will appear in the windscreen * Warn against the tendency to point the nose at the runway then drift off LOC * Fly on the instruments – fly the diamonds on the ILS * Talk about the wind magnitude reducing down the approach – maintain LOC * Talk through the crosswind landing technique * If gusty – talk through actions in the event of a windshear warning

Answer 93

In case of strong or gusty crosswinds up to 20kt, VAPP should be at least VLS+5kt. This may be increased to VLS+15kt at crew’s discretion

Answer 94

a) VLS+5kt b) Up to VLS+15kt at the crew’s discretion c) CONF3: VLS+10 (LDF 1.15) CONF FULL: VLS+5 (LDF 1.10)

Answer 95

• Fail operational: In the event of a failure below Alert Height, the approach, flare and landing can be completed automatically. Following a failure, the automatic landing system operates as a fail passive system. • Fail passive: In the event of a failure the landing is not carried out automatically. The pilot takes control of the aircraft after the failure.

Answer 96

```  Both AUTOPILOTS fail (manually flown GA)  Excessive beam deviation  LOC/GS transmitter OR receiver fail  Loss of LOC > 15ft  Loss of GS > 100ft  RA difference ≥15ft sensed ```

Answer 97

In flight, do not reengage a CB that has tripped by itself, unless the Captain judges it necessary to do so for the safe conduct of the flight. Only one reengagement should be attempted, and only as a last resort.

Answer 98

On the ground, do not reset the CB of fuel pumps, for any tank

Answer 99

* SFCC * ECU * EEC * EIU

Answer 100

* Abort the start by setting the engine master to OFF | * Dry crank for 30s

Answer 101

* Heavy precipitation * Turbulence * Standing water * Contaminated runway * Emergency descent

Answer 102

* No, GS is not available * When landing gear down, straight to DIRECT LAW and AP lost * Consider non-standard configuration (FLAP 3 then GEAR DOWN) to minimise trim required in DIRECT LAW * No callouts

Answer 103

No on the aircraft, | Yes in the sim

Answer 104

* Arm APPR * V/S -1500 initially * ALT in FCU above aircraft altitude * Once on GS, set GA alt in FCU

Answer 105

``` • RNAV1 (PRNAV): Terminal airspace, including below MFA RNP 1.0nm • RNP-1: Similar to RNAV1 but requires GNSS and onboard alerting Allows RF legs • RNAV5 (BRNAV): Enroute and terminal airspace above MFA RNP 5.0nm • RNP APCH (RNAV (GNSS) or (GPS) Approach RNAV final approach with straight segments only RNP 0.3nm ```

Answer 106

* IRS only navigation * NAV ACCUR DOWNGRADE on MCDU * PROG page shows ACCUR LOW

Answer 107

* Pass: less than or equal to 3NM | * Fail: more than 3NM

Answer 108

• On aircraft equipped with GPS PRIMARY, no nav accuracy check is required as long as GPS PRIMARY is available

Answer 109

* Manually tune VOR (VOR/DME or ADF) to a station that is within range on the RAD NAV page, and select associated needles on the ND. * Check that the needle (raw data) overlies the corresponding blue navaid symbol (FM computed) and that the DME distance is equal to the distance showing between the aircraft symbol and the navaid symbol on the ND. * Alternatively, insert a VOR/DME ident in BRG/DIST TO field on the PROG page and compare the computed BRG (DIST) with the raw data on the ND. This method allows the FM error to be quantified.

Answer 110

QRH Supplementary Information – Low Visibility Operations

Answer 111

• GREEN: Flaps, slats, landing gear, normal braking, reverser 1, ailerons, elevator, THS, rudder, spoilers • YELLOW: Flaps, alternate braking, NWS, parking brake, reverser 2, Elevator, THS, rudder, spoilers • BLUE: Slats, emergency gen, ailerons, elevator, rudder, spoilers

Answer 112

* Lighter load users have hydraulic priority. If a system has low hydraulic pressure, the heavy load users are isolated from the system to protect the other users. * The heavy load users include FLAPS, SLATS and EMER GEN * FLAPS and SLATS will have a backup hydraulic supply from another hydraulic system, so will still operate, albeit at half speed

Answer 113

To preserve GREEN HYD system integrity | GREEN will be working hard with FLAPS/SLATS amongst other GREEN users

Answer 114

PTU inhibited: • during first engine start • Parking Brake ON and only one ENG MASTER ON • Parking brake OFF with NWS in towing position and one ENG MASTER ON • YELLOW ELEC PUMP is OFF and the CARGO DOOR is being operated (inhibited for 40s after door operation is complete). This prevents inadvertent pressurisation of the flight control systems and activation of the NWS system • PTU switch is OFF

Answer 115

The final approach segment may not be continued beyond: • 1000ft AAL or • into the final approach segment in the case where the DA/H or MDA/H is more than 1000ft above the aerodrome If the reported RVR is below the published minima for the required tranmissometers a missed approach must be flown. After 1000ft, if the RVR becomes lower than the minima, the approach may be continued

Answer 116

• An instrument approach may be commenced regardless of the reported RVR/VIS. • If the reported RVR/VIS is less than the applicable minimum the approach shall not be continued:  Below 1000 ft above the aerodrome; or  Into the final approach segment in the case where the DA/H or MDA/H is more than 1000 ft above the aerodrome. • Where the RVR is not available, RVR values may be derived by converting the reported visibility in accordance with OMA 8.1.3.9, “Runway Visual Range”.

Answer 117

* Issued in the UK, complies with the new EASA rules & will be revalidated as an EASA licence once it expires. Has to be revalidated every 5 years. * Contains a valid Type Rating which is valid for 1 year. I’m required to pass a proficiency check each year to keep this current (LPC) & this also satisfies the requirements for a valid IR. * The check can be carried out within the 3 month period preceding the expiry of the rating. * A valid Class 1 medical is required in order to exercise the privileges of the license, the medical is also renewable every year.

Answer 118

The greater of • The length of the preceding duty • 12 hours

Answer 119

When away from base in the case when the rest period earned by a crew member is 12 hours, and suitable accommodation is provided by easyJet, then that rest period may be shortened by one hour. This shortening of the rest period may be planned or implemented by easyJet and does not require the use of Commanders discretion.

Answer 120

* Airport SBY: max FDP calculated from start of ASBY * SBY: max FDP calculated from report time plus time spent on SBY, reduced by time spent on standby in excess of 6 hours, if applicable

Answer 121

Normal runway: Dry: 38kt Wet: 38kt Contaminated: 25kt Narrow runway: Dry: 38kt Wet: 33kt Contaminated: 10kt

Answer 122

Autoland on narrow runways is not allowed

Answer 123

Yes, as long as the cleared width exceeds 30m and the LPC landing performance allows landing assuming the contaminant has not been cleared Depending on the heights of snowbanks, the Commander may decide against normal operations on this sort of runway though

Answer 124

``` Passenger doors: 65kt Cargo doors: 40kt Aircraft nose oriented into wind or cargo door on leeward side: 50kt Must be closed before: 65kt ```

Answer 125

1) 7kt, no tiller limit 2) 3kt, 30° tiller input limit 3) no taxi permitted

Answer 126

1) applicable minima 2) 160ft 3) 0ft 4) circling minima – 100ft

Answer 127

* Brake fans ON: 150°C | * Brake fans OFF: 300°C

Answer 128

FCOM LIM-35: Cockpit Fixed Oxygen System

Answer 129

* 3 starter cycles | * Cooling period between 3 cycles: 60mins

Answer 130

* 4 cycles, each 2 mins * 20s pause between attempts * Cooling period after 4 attempts: 15 mins

Answer 131

Gear: 25,000ft | Flaps/slats: 20,000ft

Answer 132

1) 280kt/M0.67 2) 250kt 3) 220kt

Answer 133

* CONF 1: 230 * CONF1+F: 215 * CONF 2: 200 * CONF 3: 185 * CONF FULL: 177

Answer 134

• Predictive windshear  Part of the weather radar system  Operates when PWS switch is in the AUTO position  ATC is switched to ON or AUTO or XPDR  An engine is running  Aircraft is below 2300ft • Reactive windshear  Provided by FAC in T/O and approach phases, below 1300ft  If predicted energy levels fall below a given threshold, warning is issued  FAC uses data from ADIRS and other sources to determine this energy level

Answer 135

a) Local anaesthetic: 24hrs b) General anaesthetic: 48hrs c) Alcohol consumption: 10hrs d) Deep sea diving deeper than 10m: 48hrs, any scuba diving: 24hrs e) Blood donation: 24hrs

Answer 136

Met Vis can be converted to RVR using the table at OMA 8.1.3.10 provided: Only used for landing • Only used to calculate a required RVR > 800m • Not used if RVR is reported Day / Night HI appr and rwy lighting x 1.5 / x 2.0 Any other lighting x 1.0 /x 1.5 No lighting x 1.0 /n/a

Answer 137

* Use for landing only * Required RVR must be > 800m * RVRs must not be available

Answer 138

• Yes, only in the following circumstances:  UK police and protection officers escorting members of the British Royal Family, some Government Ministers and certain persons meriting personal protection, are authorised to carry firearms loaded with ammunition in the cabin of easyJet aircraft  Protection officers accompanying foreign Heads of State or State Officials holding recognized office in a foreign country are permitted to carry firearms and ammunition provided written permission is obtained from the easyJet Security Manager or their deputy.  On all other occasions the firearms and ammunition shall be stowed in the hold of the aircraft and treated as standard processes for dealing with firearms or, with the approval of the Commander in a location which is inaccessible to passengers on the aircraft. • Firearms may be carried in the cargo hold • Limitations on ammunition: no more than 5kg per person for own use

Answer 139

* Position error of the IRS position | * Tolerances can be found in OMB 2.3.22.2: Shutdown

Answer 140

• Full align:  before first flight of the day  When there is a crew change  When GPS is not available and navaid coverage is poor on the expected route  When GPS is not available, and the expected flight time is more than 3 hours • Quick align:  When a full alignment is not required  When the IRS position deviates from the GPS position by 5NM or more

Answer 141

* Full align: ADIRS selector off for 5 secs, then NAV | * Quick align: ADIRS selector off for less than 5 secs, then NAV

Answer 142

* When the deviation of the IRS (in NM) exceeds a pre-determined limit based upon the number of hours NAV TIME in operation. See OMB 2.3.22.2 * Anything above 5NM, check the manual * This is covered by Parking SOP: IRS PERFORMANCE…CHECK

Answer 143

* PFD vs PFD: 20ft * PFD vs airfield elevation:@ 25ft * PFD vs ISIS: 100ft

Answer 144

No – first flight of the day only

Answer 145

Select TA ONLY for: • Engine failure • Flight with gear down • At specific airports where nuisance RAs are to be avoided – eg closely spaced parallel runways

Answer 146

* Ensure ATHR SPEED mode | * To avoid conflicting visual instructions from the F/Ds

Answer 147

Temperatures below -10°C

Answer 148

Children 13 years and younger need to travel with an accompanying adult who is at least 16 years old and will take responsibility for them

Answer 149

• High speed Above VMO/MMO AP disconnects, nose up command to reduce speed • High AoA Between alpha prot and alpha max Below Valphaprot, stick released returns to alpha prot Alpha will not exceed alpha max (force maintained on stick) • Load factor Clean -1g to +2.5g, configured 0g to +2g • Bank angle Full stick 67 degrees, hands off 33 degrees Above 45 degrees, AP disconnects and FD bars disappear • Pitch attitude Config 0-3: 30 degrees NU, 25 degrees NU low speed, 15 degrees ND Config full: 25 degrees NU, 20 degrees NU low speed, 15 degrees ND Above 25 degrees NU/13 degrees ND, FD bars disappear

Answer 150

• Top of tape: Black/red barbers pole: VMO/MMO Green ticks at VMO+6 • Bottom of tape: Top of amber hollow bar: VLS – lowest selectable speed Top of amber and black bar: V alpha prot – min AoA/speed hands off Top of red bar: V alpha max: min AoA/speed sidestick held back

Answer 151

* High speed (with reduced protections) | * Low speed (with reduced protections)

Answer 152

Pitch alternate law degrades to pitch direct law when the landing gear is extended to provide feel for flare and landing, since there is no flare mode when pitch normal law is lost

Answer 153

Outboard 3 slats (3,4,5)

Answer 154

Wing anti-icing is not allowed to be used. AVOID ICING CONDITIONS If unable, consider incrementing speeds so that min speed is not below: Clean: VLS+15 CONFINGURED: VLS+10

Answer 155

• SEARCH: Cold Aircraft (regardless of location) - On boarding a search must be completed prior to departure even if aircraft has been left with authorised ground staff • TIDY/SEARCH: Turnaround in the UK, Jersey, Russia and GIB OR after flights inbound from NON-EU countries OR prior to departure to TLV/AMM • TIDY: Turnarounds outside the UK (except arrivals from NON-EU countries and in GIB) End of duty

Answer 156

* Commercial: used when a diversion is likely (weather at destination close to minima), and are priority numbered. * Fuel: used when a diversion is deemed unlikely. Lowest fuel requirement. This is the usual case

Answer 157

• Captain: completion of type conversion, type refresher or command course 100 flying hours and 50 sectors within 120 days of final line check First recurrent simulator check successfully passed • F/O: 100 flying hours and 50 sectors within 120 days of final line check Completion of continuation training

Answer 158

Predictive W/S warning may be disregarded if: • There are no other signs of possible windshear • Reactive windshear system is operational Reactive windshear CANNOT be ignored

Answer 159

Pitch limits (landing gear compressed) A319: 13.9°, A320: 11.7° (landing gear extended) A319: 15.5°, A320: 13.5° “PITCH” callout to be made when attitude reaches or exceeds 10°

Answer 160

During daylight VMC conditions, with terrain and obstacles clearly in sight, the alert may be considered cautionary.

Answer 161

FL250 (FL275 on some aircraft)

Answer 162

Vis: 5000m, ceiling: 2500ft (tbc)

Answer 163

* < 4 hours: FDP based on time band of original report time, FDP & DP begin at actual report time. * ≥ 4 hours: Max FDP based on most limiting time band & FDP & DP start 4 hours after original report time

Answer 164

* Male: 93kg * Female: 75kg * Child: 35kg * Infant: nil

Answer 165

* Laterally: min 20NM (upwind side) | * Vertically: min 5000ft

Answer 166

No more than TWO successive approaches may be flown when there has been a go-around due to weather conditions unless: • there has been a significant improvement to the weather, or • a state of emergency exists. In exceptional circumstances, a third approach may be flown when a go-around has been carried out for non-weather related reasons providing the Commander is satisfied that landing is assured

Answer 167

• Assuming outer tanks are balanced, the inner tanks may have an imbalance of:  1500kg if heavy tank is full (heavy tank @ 5500kg, other tank@ 4000kg)  1600kg if heavy tank is @ 4300kg (heavy tank @4300kg, other tank @ 2700kg)  2250kg if heavy tank is @ 2250kg (heavy tank @2250kg, other tank @ 0kg) * The outer tanks may have an imbalance of: 690kg * Some aircraft have additional limitations for takeoff. Check FCOM for MSN specific limitations.

Answer 168

* Based upon the protected area, which is defined by 4.2nm arcs drawn from the threshold of every runway and tangentially linked (PANS-OPS). * Any obstacles in the protected area must be cleared by at least 400 ft.

Answer 169

* Approach Climb: One engine inoperative, gear up & approach configuration * Landing Climb: All engines operating, gear down & landing configuration. • Approach climb 2.1% gross (LPC LDG Perf. gives this, hence Single Engine Case considered by the LPC.) • LOW VIS climb 2.5% gross (More stringent version of approach climb applied if DH < 200 feet.) • • Landing Climb 3.2% gross (Less limiting for 2 eng aircraft than the Approach Climb, hence APPR CLB considered.) * These gradients are calculated for certification purposes only & are thus academic. Practically, all LIDO Plates are designed with a 2.5% gradient in the Go-Around & if different the gradient will be stated on the plate. * LPC takes into account the single engine case, thus this is the Approach Climb (more restrictive for 2 engine aircraft.)

Answer 170

On ground: Offload the dangerous goods In flight: • Keep flight deck door locked. • Consider use of appropriate aircraft emergency procedures for fire, smoke or fume removal – SEE QRH. • No smoking sign on. • Seatbelt sign on. • If appropriate, consider landing as soon as possible. • Consider turning off non-essential electrical power. • Determine source of smoke fumes fire. • For dangerous goods incidents in the passenger cabin, refer to Cabin Crew checklist and coordinate flight deck and Cabin Crew actions. • If possible determine emergency response drill code. • If situation permits, seek guidance from OCC to help deal with incident. • If situation permits, notify ATC of the dangerous goods being carried. After Landing • Disembark passengers and crew before opening any cargo hold doors. • Inform ground personnel emergency services of nature of dangerous goods and where stowed. • Make appropriate entry in maintenance log.

Answer 171

``` • Downwind: 1500ft AAL, GREEN DOT MAX GA altitude in FCU TRK/FPA downwind TRK, FLAP 1 • Abeam threshold: Start timing: 3s per 100ft AAL (45s for 1500ft) • End of downwind: FLAP 2 Set inbound TRK and turn base (20 degree bank angle) Start descent 300-400fpm • Once FLAP 2: GEAR DOWN FLAP 3 FLAP FULL • 500ft RA Stable criteria met ```

Answer 172

* Domestic: 11 kg * EU: 13 kg * Other: 13 kg * Int’cont: 15 kg

Answer 173

Every 6 months

Answer 174

FCOM PRO-SPO-51

Answer 175

• Less than 4 hours: FDP based on time band of original report time. FDP and DP begin at actual report time • 4 hours or more: Max FDP based on most limiting time band FDP and DP begin 4 hours after original report time

Answer 176

* Thrust lock: Occurs when autothrust disengaged (levers in CL or MCT) by pressing ATHR FCU button, or due to failure. Thrust is locked at setting at disconnect time. THR LK flashes in AMBER on FMA. * Alpha floor: TOGA thrust is commanded when AoA reaches a threshold, regardless of thrust lever position. Requires ATHR and NORMAL LAW. When clear of the Alpha Floor condition, thrust mode is TOGA LOCK. * TOGA lock: When Alpha Floor condition is removed, TOGA thrust is locked at TOGA LOCK * Alpha/Speed lock: Inhibits flap retraction at high AoA or low airspeed. This is NOT an ATHR function.

Answer 177

a) Batteries only will supply the electrical network. AC ESS, DC ESS, HOT BUS 1 and HOT BUS 2 are connected. AC ESS SHED and DC ESS SHED are lost b) AC SHED, DC SHED are lost. DC BAT BUS automatically connects c) AC ESS BUS is lost, leading to loss of all display units

Answer 178

* When calculating the IFLD on the LPC as it defaults to MAX reverse for both WET & DRY runways. * None if using the QRH. Apply as many as required using the LPC.

Answer 179

* Take-off: DRY * Landing – dispatch: WET * Landing – Inflight: (5) GOOD

Answer 180

• • Take-off (whole runway): ICY if OAT equal to or below 5C STANDING WATER (12.7mm) if OAT >5C • Take-off (portions): WET • Landing – dispatch (whole runway): STANDING WATER • Landing – dispatch (portions): WET • Landing – Inflight (whole runway): (3) MEDIUM • Landing – Inflight (portions): (5) GOOD

Answer 181

* Ground speed mini concept has been defined to prevent the aircraft energy from dropping below a minimum level during final approach. * The purpose of the "ground speed mini function" is to take advantage of the aircraft inertia when the wind conditions vary during the approach. * It does so by providing the flight crew with an adequate indicated speed target. * The lowest speed target is limited to VAPP and its upper limit is VFE of next configuration in CONF 1, 2, 3 and VFE-5 in CONF FULL.

Answer 182

RIGHT hand DOME LIGHT LEFT MAIN INSTRUMENT PANEL light SBY COMPASS/ICE INICATOR light

Answer 183

That portion of the standby duty when undertaken at home, or in suitable accommodation provided by easyJet, which takes place during the period 2200 to 0800 local time, when the crew member can take undisturbed rest and is not called out for duty.

Answer 184

A landing is assured if, in the judgement of the flightcrew, it can be completed in the event of any forecast deterioration in the weather and plausible single failures of ground and/or airborne facilities (e.g. CATII/III to CATI) In general this means that Cat I minimas must be available at Cat III equipped aerodromes and non-precision minimas must be available at Cat I equipped aerodromes

Answer 185

* Sum the total length of all the runway sections notified as MAY BE SLIPPERY WHEN WET * Select SINGLE RWY COMPUTATION and MODIFY RWY * Subtract affected length from total runway length * (Decreased runway length from runway start) * Apply appropriate condition to the remainder of the runway

Answer 186

* Company NOTAMS, Crew Alerts and Crew Bulletins * Notices to crew (NTC) – Operational information, which are specified as superseding Operating manuals * OEB's * Operations Manuals * FCOM * FCTM Captains Never Owe Others Fuel Fee

Answer 187

• Load factor LIMITATION (with and without reduced protections Similar to NORMAL LAW Clean -1.0g – 2.5g, configured 0g – 2.0g • Low speed stability (with reduced protections) Active 5-10kt above VSW Gentle nose down force to maintain VSW+5-10kt Audio stall warnings: ‘crickets’ and “STALL” voice close to stall margin • High speed stability (with reduced protections) Activated above VMO/MMO Nose up demand reduces speed Aural overspeed warning

Answer 188

* Following an accident or serious incident, the Captain should stop the CVR by pulling the associated circuit breaker after landing, this will prevent the recording being overwritten. * (The FDR will stop recording automatically after the second engine is shutdown and requires no flightcrew action)

Answer 189

* The ground alignment of the IRS has been demonstrated to be acceptable between 73°N and 73°S * Flights using the NAV mode are prohibited north of 73°N and south of 60°S

Answer 190

* Periodically in the cruise | * 10,000ft in the descent