Questions from Mock Exams Flashcards
(172 cards)
CONCEPT: Standard Deviation
Your client, Alice, owns the following four different diversified mutual funds:
Growth fund - $45,000
Emerging market fund - $14,000
Government bond fund - $50,000
Corporate bond fund - $35,000
Alice is concerned about overall portfolio risk. She is concerned about standard deviation and other factors. Due to a recent inheritance, she has additional money to invest. To which among her currently held mutual funds do you suggest she add money?
The emerging market fund currently represents is the smallest percentage of the portfolio allocation and likely has the lowest correlation coefficient relative to the other funds. Reducing correlation coefficient would reduce the portfolio’s overall risk. The correlation coefficient to be highly important for the exam. (Somewhat subjective.)
QUESTION: When, if ever, can a corporation that issues qualified stock options (ISOs) receive a tax deduction for the ISOs?
A. Never
B. Always
C. Yes, if the ISO is disqualified
D. Yes, if the ISO is qualified
E. Yes, if no more than $100,000 worth of ISO stock is granted that vests in a specific year
ANSWER: C. If the stock that was acquired under the option (right to buy) is sold before the two year /one year holding period, the excess of the fair market value of the shares at the time of exercise over the exercise price is treated as compensation to the option holder. That creates a corresponding deduction for the issuing corporation.
QUESTION: Todd wants to defer the distributions from the money purchase plan in which he participates for as long as possible. He works for RJ, Inc. RJ wants him to continue working for it beyond the plan’s stated retirement age 65. If he continues to work beyond 72 and contribute to the plan, what is the latest time when he can take his first distribution and not be penalized?
A. When he attains age 72
B. By April 1st of the year after he turns 72
C. When he retires from his job with RJ, Inc.
D. By April 1st of the year following the year when he retires from his job with RJ, Inc.
ANSWER: D. Todd is a rank-and file-participant in the money purchase plan and clearly not a 5% owner. Thus, he may delay his required beginning date (RBD) from the plan until April 1 of the year following the year when he retires from service with this employer.
QUESTION: When you met with John and Jodi Adams for your regular monitoring meeting, they provided you with information about new developments in their lives. After you congratulate them they ask you to help them prioritize the reasons for making changes to the original financial plan that you wrote for them. How would you rank the changes listed below in order of importance from highest to lowest?
I. They inherited money from Jody’s mother
II. Jody is expecting a second child in 2 months
III. John just received new job promotion which entails a move to an adjacent state (50 miles away).
IV. The adjacent state has a high state income tax
A. I, II, III, IV
B. II, III, IV, I
C. III, I, IV, II
D. IV, II, I, III
ANSWER: A. Identify the most important and the least important reasons to modify the original plan. The Adams’s will need a plan for the inherited money. The state level income tax differential is likely to be small. If the Adams’s itemize, it may produce an itemized deduction. Because the new baby is a second child, they have already considered the financial planning that accompanies parenting. (In ranking questions, identifying the “most” and “least” generally leads you to the answer: The middle choices are often too similar to differentiate.
QUESTION: You are a CFP® certificant and Todd and Belinda Harding are your new clients. During the initial interview Todd excuses himself for a restroom break. Belinda whispers to you that Todd is a compulsive gambler. She confides in you that she has managed to squirrel away a significant amount of cash that at the moment is in a money market account. Belinda asks you not to tell Todd about the account and says that she wants to call you the following morning to discuss allocation options for the money. How should you best handle this awkward situation?
A. When Todd returns to the room and as you begin to gather data step, act as if you have no awareness of the account that Belinda mentioned.
B. Speak with Belinda the following morning to discuss asset allocation choices.
C. Terminate the relationship before you proceed to the data gathering step in the financial planning process.
D. When Todd returns from the bathroom tell him about the account.
ANSWER: The correct answer is C. Who is the client? The presumption was that both Todd and Belinda would become your clients (not just Belinda). This is the initial interview (going to be clients). Regarding Answer D Belinda makes clear that she does not want her compulsive gambler husband to know about the account. Further, without the disclosure of the value of assets –including the money market account, the data is too vague for meaningful financial planning.
QUESTION: Your client, Dennis Hart explains to you that he wants a reasonable level of income but also some long-term growth. If you believe that he can address both of his investment objectives, which of the following securities would you suggest to Dennis?
A. Convertible bonds
B. Preferred stocks
C. Blue chip stocks
D. Corporate commercial paper
ANSWER: The best answer is A. Most logical investors will accept a lower interest rate in exchange for the potential price appreciation from converting the bond if the prices of the issuers’ stocks rise above the bond’s conversion price. Preferred stock is regarded as a fixed income investment with little growth potential. Many blue-chip stocks distribute small dividends and they can be skipped in a profit-less year.
QUESTION: Smokestack Inc. voluntarily terminated its defined benefit plan. Your client, Homer Connors, age 61, has been a long-time employee of Smokestack, Inc. and a participant in this pension. The “termination” has made Homer quite anxious. What might you tell Homer that may make him feel less anxious?
A. The 10% penalty (59½ year rule) will not apply to distributions.
B. The account balance must be rolled over into an IRA account.
C. Homer is 100% vested.
D. The plan is fully funded. There is no need to worry.
ANSWER: C. The 10% penalty will not be imposed on Homer because he is over age 59½ and is a possible answer. The plan is fully funded at normal retirement age, not necessarily at a premature termination. Homer would get the account balance that is attributable to him and be fully vested.
QUESTION: Mrs. Smith, age 80, is comparing different investment portfolios. The thought of losing principal makes her very uncomfortable. While she would appreciate some income from her investments, that is a secondary concern. After listening to her carefully, which of the following portfolios would you suggest?
A. 10% money market mutual funds, 10% blue chip common stocks, 80% long-term bonds
B. 50% bank issued CDs, 50% long-term investment grade corporate bonds
C. 10% money market mutual funds, 10% blue chip common stocks, 80% investment grade short-term bonds
D. 10% money market mutual funds, 40% bank issued CDs, 50% investment grade long-term bonds
ANSWER: The best answer is C. Due to their high durations, the long-term bonds carry significant principal risk if interest rates rise. The short-term bonds (80%) along with only 10% in quality common stock seems reasonable given her fear of principal loss and desire for income.
QUESTION: Your client, Jane Thompson is divorced. Her ex-husband Alex Thompson is now remarried to Lola, age 25. Lola is an exotic dancer. Since he married Lola, Alex has been a bit tardy on making alimony payments. Jane wants you, her financial planner, to meet with Alex. Jane is willing to pay for your services and Alex is willing to meet with you. What should you do?
A. Tell Jane that you cannot meet with Alex because there is a conflict of interest.
B. If you do see Alex, do not discuss Jane’s financial affairs with him.
C. Tell Jane that Lola needs to be included in the conversation.
D. Tell Jane that the best solution is to refer Alex to another financial planner.
ANSWER: The best answer is D. Jane and Alex want help but you don’t want to be in an awkward situation. Answer D does provide help regarding the situation. Lola is not a party to the alimony agreement between Jane and Alex.
QUESTION: You, a CFP certificant, are having a first meeting with Will, an energetic, young client. He is 28 and a promising entrepreneur. He says, “I do not want a whole song and dance, I just want to invest some money. Can you help me with that?” What should you do next?
A. Create an asset allocation model for Will.
B. Because he has a business, recommend that he open an IRA.
C. Check that his insurance coverages are adequate.
D. Calculate and analyze his cash flow.
ANSWER: D. While Answer C may be arguable, D is a better choice. If Will turns out to have negative cash flow, he should be addressing that before he invests. Answer A depends on Answer D. The insurance answer is too vague, especially without knowing more about Will’s family situation.
QUESTION: Sally donates several bags of old clothes to the Salvation Army. Which statement below best reflects the documentation that Sally would need in order to claim a charitable income tax deduction?
A. Deduction of up to $250 does not require a receipt.
B. Deduction of $250 but less than $1,000 must be documented.
C. The deduction is the lesser of fair market value or the donor’s basis (substantiated).
D. The deduction is limited to basis (unsubstantiated).
ANSWER: The best answer is C. For charitable gifts of less than $250, a dated receipt is proof for purposes of an income tax deduction. The receipt should c include a description of the property. A written receipt would list the items donated with a corresponding value. Sally should keep records showing the fair market value and her cost basis. For charitable gifts exceeding $250 Sally must substantiate the deduction by written acknowledgement from the charity. Cash donations up to $300 single/$600 joint do not have to be documented for 2021 if you take the standard deduction.
A CFP® professional meets a prospective client who is prepared to discuss his retirement accounts that were provided through a former employer. The client is concerned that the investments in those accounts are too aggressive. He states that he and his wife would like to retire when they are 65 and that they have recently been writing many checks from their account to support their adult son who can’t seem to find a job. After further analysis, the CFP® professional determines that the client does not have enough cash flow to retire when they turn 65 while continuing to support their son. How should the CFP® professional proceed?
A. Communicate to the clients that their retirement goals are unrealistic: that they should plan to work until age 70, and that they should stop giving money to their son.
B. Help the clients to review and prioritize goals.
C. Review the client’s current and potential income streams to identify ways to solve the immediate cash flow shortfall.
D. Recommend a conservative asset allocation model to reduce the risk in his retirement accounts and suggest that they stop giving money to their son.
ANSWER: B. The CFP Board would feel that it is important to encourage the client to reassess priorities before making specific recommendations. Answer C is wrong because it assumes the client has established new goals. Answers A and D are arguable.
Your married clients, Adam and Jane Smith, have provided you with the following tax information for the current year.
Adam’s salary (net of his 401(k) deferral) - $135,000
Jane’s income (from babysitting) - 1,000
Real estate income (active participation) - 5,000
Dividends - 1,000
Adam’s IRA contribution - 6,000
Jane’s IRA contribution - 6,000
What is the amount of their current year AGI?
A. $124,000
B. $130,000
C. $136,000
D. $142,000
ANSWER: C.
Adam $135,000
Jane 1,000
Real estate 5,000
(income) Dividend income 1,000
IRA - 6,000
AGI - $136,000
Adam has a 401(k) and is above phase out ($109K - $129K) for IRA deductibility. However, Jane can contribute and deduct the $6,000. The spousal IRA phase out is at $204,000.
QUESTION: Mrs. Spellman has come to you for advice. Her current net worth is about $450,000. She says she could use “more spending money.” Which of the following techniques would increase Mrs. Spellman’s cash flow?
A. Take an equity loan against her home ($150,000 FMV with a basis of $30,000)
B. Sell her vacation home and invest the net proceeds in municipal bonds
C. Sell investment property that is producing minimum net income ($8,000/yr.). ($200,000 FMV, original cost $100,000 but fully depreciated)
D. Sell non-income producing land ($100,000 FMV, basis $150,000)
ANSWER: B. In Answer A, the loans produce negative cash flow because they carry interest. The sales of the home and the investment property do not increase cash flow. We do not know how the money will be invested. The question focuses on increasing cash flow.
If a taxpayer is subject to AMT, which of the following could reduce the AMT payable?
I. Exercise nonqualified stock options
II. Take short-term capital gains
III. Delay until next year the payment of a property tax bill
IV. Exercise and sell an ISO in the year of exercise
Answers:
A. I, II, III, IV
B. II, III, IV
C. III, IV
D. II and III
E. I and IV
ANSWER: Increasing taxable income (Answers I and II) for regular tax purposes until it reduces or eliminates AMT exposure. Delaying certain itemized deductions such as medical expenses, charitable gifts and local property tax creates more regular income. An ISO exercise adds to AMT income, but that addition is nullified by a disqualifying disposition such as a sale in the year of exercise).
QUESTION: Sidney is very displeased with a particular CFP® practitioner’s recommendations. He strongly believes that they were unsuitable and resulted in unnecessary losses. Further, Sidney later learned that the planner did not provide him with adequate disclosure of conflicts of interest and other matters. To which the following parties should Sidney send his letter of complaint?
Answers:
A. The CFP® Board
B. The planner’s supervisor
C. FINRA
D. The SEC
ANSWER: A. We know that the planner is a CFP®. Nothing in the question indicates FINRA registration. Nor does the question indicate that the planner is a federal covered advisor regulated by the SEC. The planner may or may not have a direct supervisor. The culture of the exam is that CFP Board wants to know of the complaints, then they can investigate them.
QUESTION: An employer can self-fund certain benefits under a 501(c)(9) voluntary employees’ beneficiary association (VEBA). Which of the following may be funded?
I. Death benefits
II. Medical benefits
III. Unemployment benefits
IV. Retirement benefits
V. Deferred compensation benefits
A. I, II, III, IV
B. I, II, III
C. I, II
D. IV, V
E. All of the above
ANSWER: B. Retirement and deferred compensation benefits may not be funded through a VEBA.
QUESTION: George Hallas owns 80% and his daughter, Georgina 20% of Hallas, Inc. (a corporation). Hallas, Inc. grosses approximately $20 million in a typical year. George and his daughter also own a general partnership worth $5 million. George owns a $3 million life insurance policy outright under which he is the named insured. He wants to remove the life insurance policy from his estate. What do you recommend?
A. Sell the policy to the corporation for buy-sell purposes.
B. Sell the policy to the partnership for buy-sell purposes.
C. Transfer the policy to the partnership for buy-sell purposes.
D. Gift the policy to his daughter.
ANSWER: D. If the corporation owns the policy, the proceeds may be considered in valuing the decedent’s interest for federal estate tax purposes unless there is valid agreement fixing the price that would reflect an arms-length sale to an unrelated party (questionable because the buyer and seller are daughter and father, respectively. Answers B and C create a similar problem. When George dies the partnership dissolves. The ownership of the policy after that point would be uncertain and possibly flow through to George’s estate.
QUESTION: Joe Jones works for “Take-A-Boat” boat rentals. The company has a SIMPLE plan in which Joe participates. As he approaches 72, plans on working fewer hours. He would still like to participate in the SIMPLE plan. Which of the following can you accurately tell Joe?
A. You cannot contribute to a SIMPLE IRA after age72; but you can contribute to a non-deductible IRA
B. You can continue to contribute to a SIMPLE.
C. Since you are a more than 5% owner you must start to take distributions from the SIMPLE when you reach 72 and then stop contributing.
D. You can contribute to a Roth IRA.
ANSWER: B. We do not know Joe’s AGI. AGI affects Answer D. If Joe’s AGI is over the threshold, he may not contribute to a Roth. As an employee, Joe must take distributions from the SIMPLE when he reaches 72, however, he can still contribute. (Yes, money is flowing out and into Joe’s account in the same year(s).
QUESTION: Baker, Inc. provides a qualified retirement plan (employer funded). The plan falls under numerous ERISA rules. The plan lost 50% due to poor investment decisions in the previous year. What recourse can the employees take?
A. Sue the plan officials for 100% of the investment losses.
B. Sue the plan officials for 50% of the 50% loss.
C. Do nothing: qualified plan investment managers are not required to make profits.
D. Sue the plan officials for 100% of the losses plus punitive damages
E. Sue the plan officials for losses to the plan
ANSWER: E. Errant plan officials can be held personally liable for losses to the plan as well as other factors. ERISA prohibits monetary punitive damages for claims.
QUESTION: Pension contributions are based on compensation. Which of the following is generally considered to be compensation to an employee?
I. Salary
II. Bonus
III. Business expense reimbursement
IV. Incentive stock options
V. Contributions to a deferred compensation plan
A. All of the above
B. I, II, IV
C. I, II, III
D. I, II
E. I, IV
ANSWER: D. Salaries and bonuses are clearly compensation. A reimbursement pays the employee back for business expenses incurred but is not compensation. An ISO is a right to buy the employer’s stock and is not compensation. However, if the ISO becomes disqualified because the stock is exercised and sold in the same calendar year, the employee may be required to recognize any profits as compensation. Deferred compensation is not treated as compensation until it is constructively received. For tax purposes, compensation is considered current when it is paid no later than 2½ months after the year in which it is earned. For a more-than-50% owner, the compensation must be paid by year end. Deferred compensation is not compensation for tax purposes until it is constructively received.
QUESTION: Duggan is a 70-year-old man about to retire. If he annuitizes the current account balance from the retirement plan in which he has participated throughout his long career, which of the following annuity options will provide Pat with the highest payment in his first year of retirement?
A. Life income with a 5-year period certain
B. A life annuity
C. Joint lifetime income with his son (age 49)
D. Joint life income with his wife (age 71)
ANSWER: B. The life annuity always produces the highest payout. A life annuity may also be called as a pure life annuity or a straight life annuity.
QUESTION: Which of the following statements is true a regarding a QPRT if the grantor dies during the retained-interest term?
A. The value of the remaining term will return to the grantor’s gross estate.
B. It leaves the grantor’s estate with no greater tax liability than had the QPRT had not been established.
C. The applicable credit amount plus any gift tax actually paid on the original transfer are lost.
D. The present value of the retained income interest is brought back into the gross estate.
ANSWER: B. The full value of the home generally reflecting date of death FMV is brought back into the gross estate. Let’s say you transferred a home worth $1 million under a 10-year QPRT. Had the QPRT never been established the estate would have the same tax exposure because the property would appear in the gross estate at FMV.
QUESTION: A premature distribution penalty tax applies to which one of the following IRA distributions?
A. A distribution made to the owner ($10,000 lifetime limit) for the primary residence
B. A distribution made to the owner for qualified higher education expenses furnished to the owner personally
C. A distribution made to a 50-year-old beneficiary after the death of the owner
D. A distribution attributable to the owner’s disability
ANSWER: A. Don’t get tricked! The distribution must be for the purchase of a first home, not necessarily a primary residence.