Questions (Gyne) Flashcards
Which ages do cervical smears occur if they are being repeated every 3 or 5 years? [2]
Every 3 years: 25-49
Every 5 years: 50-69
You dx a patient with PMS.
She smokes 35 cigarettes a day.
You encourage excercise and weight loss but this hasn’t helped.
You want to prescribe a medication. What could you give and when should you tell the patient to take this medication? [1]
Newer combined oral contraceptive pills (COCPs) can be considered in PMS but this is CI as she smokes.
Sertraline during the LAST 14 days of her cycle
A patient has CIN 2 found and treated.
Describe how cytology is performed after this [1]
After cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) 2 has been treated, patient will be referred back to colposcopy if HPV smear is positive on re-screening after 6 months, regardless of cytology.
NB: Re-screening in 12 months is indicated after CIN 1 is indicated on colposcopy/biopsy, or following a positive initial HPV smear screening and negative cytology result. This is not appropriate in this case as the patient’s results are from a re-screening after an excision of CIN 2.
A 48-year-old woman presents with perimenopausal symptoms. Apart from suffering from migraines with aura, she does not have any relevant medical history. She has a family history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The patient’s last menstrual periods are irregular, the last one being 3 months ago. She is not currently on any contraception
Which option for HRT would be the most suitable? [1]
Topical cyclical combined HRT
- Migraine with aura is NOT a contraindication for HRT, unlike with the combined oral contraceptive pill, however, topical preparations are preferred rather than oral
HRT contraindicated
The correct answer is: Topical cyclical combined HRT 26%
Migraine with aura is not a contraindication for HRT, unlike with the combined oral contraceptive pill, however, topical preparations are preferred rather than oral.
This patient has a uterus, so combined oestrogen and progesterone treatment is required. The oestrogen replaces the oestrogen deficiency that occurs during menopause but also causes endometrial hyperplasia. Using progesterone with the oestrogen protects against this.
As the patient has a family history of DVT, topical HRT is preferred here as there is no increased DVT risk compared to oral preparations.
Menopause is defined as amenorrhea for >1 year, where a continuous regime can be used (oestrogen and progesterone daily).
This patient has not yet achieved her menopause, so a cyclical regime should be used (oestrogen daily, but progesterone used for a few weeks in the cycle).
Describe the pathophysiology of androgen insensitivty syndrome [1]
How do they present? [4]
Androgen-insensitivity syndrome occurs when an individual has XY chromosomes (male sex), but their body does not respond to the androgen hormones that drive the development of the male body
Present with externally female characteristics but no female reproductive organs:
* primary amenorrhoea
* lack of secondary sexual characteristics (except for breast development),
* absence of female reproductive organs
* short vagina (sometimes described as ‘blind ending’).
A 55-year-old woman presents with mood swings and night sweats for the last few years which she has managed herself. She reports her last period was over 1 year ago but reports some vaginal bleeding a few days ago. She is not on any contraception.
What is the most suitable HRT option? [1]
HRT contraindicated
- Undiagnosed vaginal bleeding is a contraindication. This woman has achieved her menopause as she has been amenorrheic for over 1 year, but per vaginal bleeding post menopause warrants further urgent investigation.
Why can breast development still occur in androgen-insensitivity syndrome? [1]
Breast development still occurs because testosterone can be converted to oestrogen in the periphery to drive breast development, but it is not present in the reproductive system.
A 49-year-old patient presents with hot flushes and mood swings. She has no previous medical history or family history. She has been amenorrheic since her Mirena (levonorgestrel) coil was placed 2 years ago. She would like to consider HRT with the least side effects.
What is the best option for HRT? [1]
Oestrogen patch
The patient requires combined HRT as she has a uterus, so requires progesterone for protection of the endometrial lining against estrogen. However, the patient has a Mirena coil in situ, which is the only form of contraception licensed to be used as the progesterone component in HRT. It is licensed for 4 years if used as HRT.
Therefore the patient only requires oestrogen preparation only.
Transdermal oestrogen such as patches and gels do not have an increased risk of deep vein thrombosis, compared to oral oestrogen preparations.
Which of the following is a well-recognised possible outcome of tubal ligation?
Sexually transmitted infections (STIs)
Weight gain
Depression
Ectopic pregnancy
Increased abdominal cramps during menstruation
A 24-year-old female presents with high fever, headache, vomiting, and diffuse erythroderma. She has high fever (temperature 39.5 °C), hypotension (blood pressure 80/50 mmHg), tachycardia (heart rate 120 bpm) and a diffuse erythematous rash. She had been using a menstrual cup for the first time in the past two days. Blood cultures grew methicillin-sensitive Staphylococcus aureus.
What is the most appropriate treatment?
Clindamycin + vancomycin
- This patient has toxic shock syndrome secondary to menstrual cup use
- The causative agent is methicillin-sensitive S. aureus. As such, the combination of clindamycin plus vancomycin is indicate
A 32-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with fever, headache, muscle pain and increased shortness of breath. Two weeks before, she had given birth to her first child, with an uncomplicated delivery. On assessment, she looks unwell. Her blood pressure is 90/44 mmHg, her heart rate is 112 bpm, and her oxygen saturation is 91% on room air. Her abdomen is slightly tender, and a diffuse, erythematous rash is observed over her extremities. Her neurological examination is normal. Her chest is clear on auscultation.
What is the most likely diagnosis? [1]
Toxic shock syndrome
- There is an established association between surgical procedures (for which vaginal delivery is considered) and toxic shock syndrome
- While the presenting symptoms can be vague and non-specific, toxicity is an early feature, making rapid diagnosis and treatment essential. Toxic shock syndrome can occur at any site and in patient groups outside the typical ‘menstruating females using tampons’ group.
Why do you measure ‘day 21’ progesterone to assess fertility? [1]
Serum progesterone testing must be performed 7 days before the end of the menstrual cycle, as a rise in progesterone indicates that the corpus luteum has formed
Describe the treatment options for fibroids to treat
- menorrhagia [4]
- to shrink fibroid size [2]
Menorrhagia:
- levonorgestrel intrauterine system (LNG-IUS)
- NSAIDs - e.g. mefenamic acid
- tranexamic acid
- combined oral contraceptive pill
- oral progestogen
To shrink fibroids medically:
- GnRH agonists may reduce the size of the fibroid but are typically used more for short-term treatment due to side-effects
To shrink fibroids surgically:
- myomectomy: this may be performed abdominally, laparoscopically or hysteroscopically
- hysteroscopic endometrial ablation
- hysterectomy
The Mirena coil works via which mechanism? [1]
Release of progesterone only
What is the aim of HRT? [1]
Describe how you treat menopausal symptoms in a women with a uterus [2]
The aim of treating symptoms of menopause is to replace oestrogen (hormone replacement therapy).
However, in a woman with a uterus, an additional source of progesterone is needed to counter the action of unopposed oestrogen on the womb, increasing the risk of endometrial hyperplasia and malignancy.
When is tranexemic vs mefanamic acid indicated for menorrhagia? [2]
Painless menorrhagia - Tranexamic acid
PainFul menorrhagia - MeFenamic acid
Woman aged > 30 years with dysmenorrhoea, menorrhagia, enlarged, boggy uterus → [1]
Woman aged > 30 years with dysmenorrhoea, menorrhagia, enlarged, boggy uterus → ?adenomyosis
How do you distinguish endometriosis from adenomyosis on TVUS? [2]
Adenomyosis:
- enlarged, boggy uterus
Endometriosis:
* A transvaginal scan would either show nothing or would show clumps of tissue (endometrial tissue) growing in places away from the endometrium.
If an incomplete miscarriage has occured - what do you give for medical management? [1]
Medical management of an incomplete miscarriage involves giving vaginal misoprostol alone
Don’t need mifepristone if the cervical os is open
[] is associated with a decreased incidence of hyperemesis gravidarum
Smoking is associated with a decreased incidence of hyperemesis gravidarum
What is the most significant risk of prescribing an oestrogen-only preparation rather than a combined oestrogen-progestogen preparation for a women with a uterus?
Increased risk of venous thromboembolism
Increased risk of ovarian cancer
Increased risk of endometrial cancer
Increased risk of breast cancer
Increased risk of colorectal cancer
What is the most significant risk of prescribing an oestrogen-only preparation rather than a combined oestrogen-progestogen preparation for a women with a uterus?
Increased risk of venous thromboembolism
Increased risk of ovarian cancer
Increased risk of endometrial cancer
Increased risk of breast cancer
Increased risk of colorectal cancer
Ovarian cancer initially spreads by local invasion to where first? [1]
What are the presenting features? [4=
Para-aortic lymph nodes
- Older women presenting with vague gastrointestinal symptoms like bloating, early satiety, and weight loss raise suspicion of ovarian cancer.
- Nulliparity, early menarche, and late menopause are additional risk factors. A palpable mass in the left adnexa also suggests ovarian malignancy. Ovarian cancer tends to spread locally first to the para-aortic lymph nodes, which drain the ovaries and fallopian tubes.
Ectopic pregnancy localised to the [] increases the risk of rupture
Ectopic pregnancy localised to the isthmus increases the risk of rupture