QUESTIONS KNOWLEDGE Flashcards

(193 cards)

1
Q

What ECG change is seen in hypothermia?

A

J waves

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2
Q

What additional sound is heard on auscultation in LVF?

A

3rd heart sound

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3
Q

What disorder are associated with mitral regurg?

A

Collagen disorders

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4
Q

What is Quinkes sign?

A

Nailed pulsation

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5
Q

What is Quinkes sign seen n?

A

Aortic regurgitation

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6
Q

What is trifascular block?

A

RBBB + 1st degree heart block + LV strain

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7
Q

What is c-ANCA used for?

A

Wegenetz (GPA)

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8
Q

What are Call-Exner bodies seen in?

A

Granulosa cell tumour

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9
Q

What are transitional cells seen in (ovarian)?

A

Brenner tumour

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10
Q

What are endocervical looking cells seen in (ovarian)?

A

Mucinous cystadenoma

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11
Q

When can amniocentesis be done from?

A

15 weeks

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12
Q

When can CVS be done?

A

11-13+6 weeks

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13
Q

What is cotton wool calcification seen in?

A

Paget’s and chrondrosarcoma

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14
Q

What does supraspinatus do?

A

Initiates abduction

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15
Q

What does teres minor do?

A

Adduct and laterally rotate

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16
Q

What does infraspinatus do?

A

Lateral rotation

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17
Q

What does subscapularis do?

A

Adduct and medially rotate

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18
Q

What type of pulse is seen in aortic regurgitation?

A

Collapsing

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19
Q

What type of pulse is seen in aortic stenosis?

A

Slow rising pulse

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20
Q

What is given in a high risk injury for tetanus (with a clear and complete vaccination history)?

A

IM immunoglobulin

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21
Q

What is given in a high risk injury for tetanus (with an unclear and incomplete vaccination history)?

A

IM immunoglobulin + booster

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22
Q

How is tetanus managed?

A

Supportive + metronidazole

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23
Q

What is tetanus caused by?

A

Tetanospasmin exotoxin released from bacteria prevents GABA release

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24
Q

What immunisations are given at 2 months?

A

6 in 1 (DTaP, IPV polio, HiB, Hep B), rotavirus, PCV + men B

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25
What immunisations are given at 3 months?
6 in 1, rotavirus
26
What immunisations are given at 4 months?
6 in 1, PCV + men B
27
What immunisations are given at 12-13 months?
HiB+men C, MMR, PCV + men B
28
What immunisations are given at 3yrs and 4 months?
DTaP/IPV booster, MMR
29
What immunisations are given at 12-13 years in females?
HPV
30
What immunisations are given at 14 years?
Td/IPV booster, Men ACWY
31
Which vaccines are live?
``` BCG measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) influenza (intranasal) oral rotavirus oral polio yellow fever oral typhoid ```
32
Where does a branchial cyst originate from?
Second pharyngeal arch
33
What does the gallbladder do to bile?
Stores and concentrates it
34
What do you do for bone pain in cancer patients?
Radiotherapy, IV bisphosphonates
35
What heart defects do you get in Turners?
Coarctation of aorta and other aorta stuff
36
What do Leydig cells?
Produces testosterone
37
What do Sertoli cells do?
Produces androgen binding protein
38
How do you diagnose Sickle cell?
Hb electrophoresis
39
What dose of ferrous sulphate do you give to correct and iron deficiency?
600mg
40
What does of ferrous sulphate do you give as prophylaxis for iron deficiency?
100mg
41
What is a phase 1 study for?
To determine half-life
42
What is a phase 2 study for?
Drug dose
43
What is a phase 3 study for?
Side effects (common)
44
What is a case-control study for?
Aetiological factors
45
When do you x-ray a scaphoid fracture?
14 days after
46
What is the presentation of CJD?
Urinary incontinence + gait + memory
47
What is the first line management of a gastric MALT lymphoma?
eradicate H pylori
48
What causes a metabolic ketoacidosis (normal/low BG)?
Alcohol
49
What is a Hill-Sachs lesions seen in?
Glenohumeral dislocaition
50
When can you get pregnant after stopping methotrexate?
3 months
51
What is the management of pneumocystis jiroveci?
Co-trimoxazole
52
What CD4 count corresponds to pneumocystis jiroveci?
CD4 < 200
53
What drugs cause erythema nodosum?
COCP, penicillins, sulphonamides (trimethoprim)
54
What is a dinner fork deformity?
Colles
55
What do you give for magic mushroom overdose?
Activated charcoal
56
What is the management of dermatitis herpetiformis?
Oral dapsone
57
What Ig is seen in acute disease?
IgM
58
What Ig is seen in chronic disease?
IgG
59
What would cause the following presentation: refractory PUD,, watery diarrhoea, weight loss?
Gastrinoma
60
How is gastrinoma?
Octreotide
61
Which bacteria antibody is a serological marker for Crohn's?
Anti-s cervisiae
62
How is haemachromatosis inherited?
Autosomal recessive
63
How is Marfan's inherited?
Autosomal dominant
64
How is OI inherited?
Autosomal dominant
65
How is achondroplasia inherited?
Autosomal dominant
66
What is the most common brain tumour in kids?
Medulloblastoma
67
What is the membrane attack complex composed of?
C5, 6, 7, 8, 9
68
What does C3b do?
Opsonisation
69
What are side effects of amiodarone?
Thyroid dysfunction, corneal deposition, pulmonary fibrosis, liver cirrhosis, slate grey appearance
70
What do you do for retained products after day 1?
Exam under anaesthesia
71
What do you do for blood matching for a lap chole?
Group & save
72
What do you do for blood matching for a total gastrectomy?
X-match 2-6 units
73
What do you do for blood matching for a C section?
G & S
74
Which drugs exhibit first order kinetics?
Phenytoin, alcohol, high dose aspirin, heparin
75
What do you do for late decelerations on a CTG?
Fetal blood sampling; ph < 7.2 = deliver
76
What type of CBT do you use for anorexia?
Family based therapy
77
What is the tumour marker for breast ca?
CA 15-3
78
What do you monitor is extremes of weight and on LMWH?
Anti-Xa
79
What is used to prevent attacks in Menieres?
Betahistine
80
How is osteomyelitis diagnosed?
MRI
81
What is stage 1 ovarian ca?
Confined to ovary
82
What is stage 2 ovarian ca?
Within pelvis
83
What is stage 3 ovarian ca?
Within abdomen
84
What is stage 4 ovarian ca?
Distant metastases
85
What is the management of constipation of children?
Advice on diet + movicol
86
Which is painful, scleritis or episcleritis?
Scleritis
87
What is SAAG for?
Determines if ascites is caused by portal hypertension
88
How can IVDUs with endocarditis present?
Discitis
89
How do you investigate the C-spine?
CT
90
What is croup caused by?
Parainfluenza virus
91
What haem thing is nephrotic syndrome associated with?
Hypercoaguable state due to loss of antithrombin III
92
What is the presentation of pellagra?
Dermatitis, dementia/delusions, diarrhoea
93
What can CLL transform to?
high grade lymphoma
94
How do you calculate breakthrough dose?
1/6th daily morphine dose
95
How do you manage HOCM?
Implantable defibrillator
96
What signs will a raised ICP cause?
Hypertension + bradycardia
97
What are the conditions of doing a urease breath test?
No antibiotics in 4 weeks, no PPI in 2 weeks
98
What is used for diffuse axonal injury?
MRI
99
What happens to iodine uptake in graves?
Increased
100
What do you give pregnant women who've had a previous VTE?
LMWH antenatally and 6 weeks postnatally
101
When should clopidogrel be stopped before surgery?
7 days
102
What is a marker of early labour?
High fibrinonectin
103
When should warfarin be stopped before surgery?
5 days
104
Which vitamins are fat soluble?
ADEK
105
How long should you be seizure free before driving with no diagnosis?
6 months
106
How long should you be seizure free before driving with a diagnosis?
12 months
107
When does diffuse proliferative GN?
Post-strep, SLE
108
What do you give a pregnant women less than ten days after chickenpox exposure who is non-immune?
VZIG
109
What do you do for someone who is less than 55 and has a stroke?
AI and thrombophilia
110
When does gestational hypertension occur?
> 20 weeks gestation
111
From which day postpartum can you get pregnant if not breastfeeding?
Day 21
112
What is contraindicated in less than six weeks postpartum?
COCP
113
What is the adrenaline dose for anaphylaxis?
0.5ml in 1 in 1,000 IM
114
What is the adrenaline dose for anaphylaxis?
10ml of 1 in 10,000 IV
115
How is AF lasting more than 48 hours managed?
Anticoagulate + rate control for 3 weeks then electrically cardiovert
116
What is N meningitides?
Gram -ve diplococci
117
What risk do SSRIs in the first trimester cause?
Small risk of congenital heart disease
118
What is Rovsings sign positive in?
Appendicitis
119
Is it safe for women with Hep B to breastfeed?
Yes
120
What is tamoxifen a RF for?
Endometrial cancer
121
What does loss of haustrations on ba enema indicate?
UC
122
What are features of rubella?
SNHL, 'salt and pepper' chorioretinitis
123
How is croup managed?
Dexamethasone
124
What is the gene translocation in Burkitts?
c-myc
125
What is the TEL-JAK2 mutation seen in?
Myelofibrosis
126
What is common post-viral gastroenteritis?
Transient lactose intolerance
127
What is factor V leiden?
Activated protein C deficiency
128
What can be used to differentiate between seizure and pseudo seizure?
Prolactin
129
When does bow legs usually resolve by?
4 years
130
What do you give for status epilepticus?
IV lorazepam 4mg --> phenytoin --> GA
131
What do you give for neutropenic sepsis?
IV taz and pip
132
What does wasting of the hypothenar eminence indicate?
Ulnar nerve damage
133
What is used for cryptococcal meningitis?
India ink staining
134
What do exercise induced desaturations indicate?
Pneumocystis jiroveci
135
What is neonatal hypotonia associated with?
Downs, prader willi
136
What is a Colles fracture?
Distal radius fracture with dorsal displacement
137
What is a Smiths fracture?
Distal radius fracture with volar displacement
138
What is the pharmacological management of postural hypotension?
Fludrocortisone
139
How do NSAIDs impact lithium levels?
Increase them
140
How do you manage no ACS + Hb > 70?
Oral iron
141
What do you give post breast cancer surgery?
Radiotherapy
142
What is whirlpool sign seen in?
Ovarian torsion
143
How is primary PPH managed?
IV syntocinon, ergometrine, syntocinon infusion, carboprost, mifopristol
144
What is the commonest cause of blood stained nipple discharge?
Intraductal papilloma
145
What a gastrograffin enema good for?
Anastomotic leak
146
What is Plummer-Vinson?
Post-cricoid web due to iron deficiency
147
What does laxative abuse cause?
Melanosis coli
148
What ECG change is seen in hypothermia?
J waves
149
What ECG change is seen in hypocalcaemia?
U wave
150
What is the investigation of choice for pericarditis?
Echo
151
What would you look for in an ECG of a long standing diabetic with autonomic neuropathy?
Bradycardia (type 1 HB)
152
What do you give for someone with heart failure who's already on an ACEi and diuretic?
B blocker
153
What would you give someone who's on an ACEI and gets hyperkalaemia (HF)?
Isosorbide mononitrate
154
What do you do if you give someone fluids and they rapidly deteriorate?
Stop fluids and give Iv frusemide
155
How do you monitor someones progression after being treated for pneumonia?
CRP
156
What do dot and blot haemorrhages indicate?
Diabetic retinopathy
157
What do you give to people who won't tolerate a colonoscopy?
CT colonography
158
What is hyoscine hydrobromine for?
Travel sickness
159
What is hyoscine butyl bromide for?
Abdo cramps
160
What is the MOA of cyclising?
Antihstamine
161
What is the mechanism of ondansetron?
5Ht receptor antagonist
162
What is the MOA of domperidone/prochlorperazine?
Antidopamine
163
What are the features of Plummer Vinson?
Dysphagia and anaemia
164
What juice should be avoided if on a statin?
Grapefruit
165
What type of mouth disease do people with Crohn's have?
Aphthous ulcers, angular chelitis
166
What is Dukes A?
Confined to mucosa
167
What is Dukes B?
Tumour spread to serosa, no LN
168
What is Dukes C?
Same as B with nodes (C1 local, C2 distant)
169
What is Dukes D?
Widespread mets
170
How much water is absorbed in small intestine?
90%
171
How is ascites managed?
Spironolactone
172
What is the anatomy of a femoral hernia?
Inferolateral to pubic tubercle
173
What is the anatomy of a direct inguinal hernia?
Superomedial to pubic tubercle
174
What is the anatomy of an indirect inguinal hernia?
Superolateral to pubic tubercle
175
What type of insulin is given once a day?
Basal (lantus)
176
Which diabetic drug is weight neutral?
DPP4 inhibitors
177
What is the cause of polyuria in diabetes?
Osmotic effect of glucose
178
How does acarbose work?
Binds to glucose
179
What is the most common type of renal stone?
Calcium oxalate
180
How do you diagnose RAS?
Angiography
181
What passes through the cell membrane most readily?
Cations
182
Which nerve supplies biceps reflex?
C5
183
Which nerve supplies knee reflex?
L4
184
Which nerve supplies ankle reflex?
S1
185
which nerve can be damaged by doing an IM injection in the butt?
Sciatic nerve
186
Which column is first to go in diabetic neuropathy?
Dorsal
187
Alzheimers has what NTM defect?
Low 5-hydroxytryptamine
188
Headache after sex
Benign coital cephalgia
189
What is section 2 of MHA?
short term detention
190
What is section 3 of MHA?
CTO
191
What is section 5.2 of MHA?
Emergency certification
192
What is section 5.4 of MAH?
Similar to emergency but senior nurse can detain for up to 6 hours
193
How do you manage psychosis in a diabetic patient?
Typical antipsychotics