Questions with Answers Flashcards by Jacqueline Menzel

To the secondary lymphoid tissues and organs does not belong:

a) appendix
b) MALT
c) thymus
d) Peyer´s plaques

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The differentiation of immune cells from pluripotent stem cells is:

a) prenatally in the liver
b) prenatally in the spleen
c) in the late gestation and postnatally in the bone marrow
d) in the thymus

A,B,C

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Antigen-specific mechanisms:

a) are activated in defense response as the first
b) are adaptive
c) have immunological memory
d) are congenital

B,C

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The cellular component of antigen-nonspecific mechanisms are:

a) NK cells
b) NK-T cells
c) mast cells
d) monocytes

A, D

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

All of the following characteristics of the antigenic epitopes are correct except:

a) on the antigen molecule can occur the same epitope several
times
b) epitopes determine the antigenic specifity of molecules
c) the size of each epitope corresponding to about 50 kDa
d) antigen epitope reacts specifically with antibodies paratope

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

IgM function is

a) neutralization of antigen
b) opsonization
c) complement activation
d) ADCC

A,C

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The lowest serum IgG levels in children we find:

a) shortly after birth
b) about 6 weeks after birth
c) between 3 and 6 months after birth
d) between 1 and 2 year after birth

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The human immunoglobulin heavy chains are encoded:

a) on chromosome 2
b) on chromosome 6
c) on chromosome 14
d) on chromosome 22

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The human immunoglobulin kappa light chain is coded:

a) on chromosome 2
b) on chromosome 6
c) on chromosome 14
d) on chromosome 22

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Antagonist

a) is antigenic peptide, which generates a full response of T cells
b) is a peptide that induce a qualitatively different response than
the agonist
c) is a peptide that induce quantitatively different response than
the agonist
d) competes with the agonist

B,D

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The proinflammatory cytokines include:

a) IL-8
b) TNF-alpha
c) TGF-beta
d) IFN-alpha

A,B

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Important role in regulation of isotype switching plays:

a) IL-2
b) IL-4
c) IL-8
d) IL-10

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

For development of Th precursor to Th2 are necessary signals via:

a) TCR, CD28, receptor for IL-4
b) TCR, CD28, receptor for IL-12
c) TCR, CD80, receptor for IL-4
d) TCR, CD80, receptor for IL-12

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Tumor associated antigen (TAA) is:

a) carcinoembryonic antigen
b) antigen HER2/neu
c) clonotyping BCR
d) complexes of MHC gp with fragments from oncogenic viruses
proteins

A,B

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

True statement:

a) tumor-associated antigens (TAA) are used as an auxiliary
diagnostic markers for cancer
b) tumor specific antigens (TSA) are used as an auxiliary
diagnostic markers for cancer
c) TAA are also presented in healthy individuals
d) TSA are also presented in healthy individuals

A,C

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Interferon-alpha:

a) has an antiviral effect
b) is produced by cells infected with a virus
c) is used in treatment of certain hepatitis
d) is used in treatment of some cancers

A,B,C,D

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Specific immunosuppression:

a) is used in the treatment of certain tumors
b) is induced by allergen immunotherapy
c) is induced by administration of antibodies against antigen
d) is used in treatment of certain autoimmune diseases

B,D

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Tolerance of the fetus by mother is ensured by these mechanisms:

a) classical MHC gp class I are expressed on trophoblast
b) nonclassical MHC gp class I are expressed on trophoblast
c) clasical MHC gp class II are expressed on trophoblast
d) nonclassical MHC gp class II are expressed on trophoblast

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Graft transferred between different individuals of the same species is known as:

a) syngeneic
b) allogeneic
c) autologous
d) heterogeneous

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

For the HLA typing of the patient’s is used:

a) the patient’s serum
b) the patient’s leukocytes
c) patient monocytes
d) a sample of patient skin

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Graft-versus-host (GvH) disease:

a) means that the recipient lymphocytes react against donor tissue
b) means that the donor lymphocytes react against the recipient
tissues
c) may occur after bone marrow transplantation
d) may have fatal outcome

B,C,D

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Severe primary humoral immunodeficiency most often manifest:

a) in newborn
b) between 6 month and 2 year of life
c) between 15 and 20 year of life
d) in old-age

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In the treatment of autoimmune diseases using:

a) nonspecific immunostimulation
b) thymic hormones
c) a bone marrow transplant
d) immunosuppressive therapy

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Patients with antibody immunodeficiency often suffer from:

a) otitis
b) cancer
c) sinusitis
d) abscesses

A,C

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

For Bruton agammaglobuliemia is typical: a) is linked to chromosome X b) normal numbers of B cells, completely absent IgG and IgA c) very low numbers of B lymphocytes, the deficit of all classes of immunoglobulins d) occurs more frequently in boys

A,C,D

Skin prick tests are not performed in: a) food allergy b) contact allergy c) patients who cannot discontinue the treatment with antihistamines d) in patients with bronchial asthma

Provocation test: a) is always performed in patients with suspected allergy b) is performed repeatedly to monitor the status of allergy c) is performed by the administration of specific IgE to patient d) is a diagnostic possibility in food allergies

Drug of the first choice in the developed anaphylactic shock is: a) inhaled corticosteroid b) epinephrine (adrenaline) c) theophylline d) antihistamine

In anaphylactic shock: a) immediate type of hypersensitivity plays a role b) delayed type of hypersensitivity plays a role c) vasoconstriction occurs d) bronchodilation occurs

Immunogen lacks the ability to: a) induce cellular immune responses b) react with products of the immune response c) induce antibody responses d) opsonize particles for phagocytosis

The chemotactic active substance is not: a) MIP-1 b) IL-7 c) IL-8 d) TNF-alpha

A,B

Phagocytes are attracted to the site of inflammation by: a) CRP b) C3b c) bacterial products d) TNF-alpha

C,D

Low-molecular substance that can react with antibody, but could not induce its production is called: a) immunogen b) hapten c) idiotyp d) antigen

Hapten has all the features except: a) is immunogenic b) can bind to the antigen-specific receptors c) is a low molecular substance d) induces an immune response after the binding to high molecular carrier

IgM function is a) neutralization of antigen b) opsonization c) complement activation d) ADCC

A,C

IgG function is not a) neutralization of antigen b) opsonization c) complement activation d) ADCC

B cell surface markers are a) surface IgM and IgD b) CD16 c) CD19 d) CD20

A,C,D

``` In which part of APC binds antigenic peptide to MHC gp class II molecule: a) in endoplasmic reticulum b) in Golgi apparatus c) in endosomes d) in the proteasome ```

Important role in regulation of isotype switching plays: a) IL-2 b) IL-4 c) IL-8 d) IL-10

CD3 is: a) co-receptor for binding of MHC gp II b) complex of proteins associated with TCR c) necessary for the signal transduction to the cell nucleus d) complex of proteins associated with BCR

B,C

For development of Th precursor to Th1 are necessary signals via: a) TCR, CD28, receptor for IL-4 b) TCR, CD28, receptor for IL-12 c) TCR, CD80, receptor for IL-4 d) TCR, CD80, receptor for IL-12

Bacterial lipopolysaccharide in humans: a) can cause septic shock b) can cause anaphylactic shock c) induces the release of TNF d) binds to monocytes via CD14

A,C,D

Cytotoxic T lymphocytes are important: a) for the elimination of extracellular bacteria b) for the elimination of intracellular bacteria c) in defense against viral infections d) in defense against mycotic infections

B,C

Importance of antibodies in antiviral defense: a) neutralizing antibodies prevent viral entry into host cells b) activate classical pathway of complement, which can lyse enveloped viruses c) agglutination of viral particles and facilitation the phagocytosis d) opsonization of viruses for phagocytosis

A,B;C;D

Viral infections are typical for individuals with disorders of: a) Tc cells b) Ts cells c) phagocyte functions d) NK cells

In examination before transplantation is performed: a) Cross Match - lymphocytotoxic test b) determination of T lymphocytes subpopulations c) blast-cell transformation d) mixed lymphocyte test

A,D

Graft versus host disease (GvH) may occur: a) after a blood transfusion to immunodeficient recipient b) after transplantation of hematopoietic stem cells c) months or years after transplant d) in the case of inappropriate choice of donor

A,B,C,D

Rh incompatibility of mother and fetus: a) in the case of Rh incompatibility of mother and fetus, the mother immunizes by fetal erythrocytes already during the first pregnancy - after 8 weeks of gestation b) if the fetus is RhD+ and mother who is RhD- creates antibodies against the RhD factor, may arise hemolytic disease of the newborn c) if the fetus is RhD+ and mother RhD-, the mother gets after the birth anti-RhD immunoglobulin d) ) if the fetus is RhD- and mother RhD+, the mother gets after the birth anti-RhD immunoglobulin

B,C

Immunopathological reaction type III occurs in: a) haemolytic disease of the newborn b) rheumatoid arthritis c) serum sickness d) cryoglobulinemia

B;C;D

Primary immunodeficiency: a) affects more girls b) affects more boys c) manifesting at an early age d) manifesting at any time during the life

B,C

Receptor for HIV on T lymphocytes is: a) TCR-CD3 complex b) CD4 c) CD8 d) CD28

For common variable immunodeficiency (CVID) is typical: a) immeasurable numbers of T lymphocytes and very low levels of immunoglobulins b) is manifested only in adulthood c) treated with bone marrow transplantation d) manifests after birth

A,B

``` Allergens not relevant for immunopathological reaction type I are: a) nickel b) pollen c) mites d) chromium ```

A,D

After activation of mast cells and basophils: a) reactive oxygen intermediates are produced b) histamine is released c) IFN-gamma is secreted d) prostaglandin PGD2 is synthetized

B,D

In the allergic reaction significant role play: a) IgE antibodies b) IgM antibodies c) mast cells d) eosinophils

A,C,D

Antigen: a) is usually greater than 5 kDa b) is able to induce specific immune response only after binding to macromolecular carrier c) to evoke an immune response must be greater than 40 kDa d) is also known as a hapten

A,C

Which complement components participate in the opsonization: a) C3a b) C3b c) C5a d) C5b

NK cells have a) TCR alpha and beta b) TCR gamma and delta c) CD16 d) CD56

C, D

IgA a) passes through the placenta b) is contained in breast milk c) is the cause of allergic reactions d) applies primarily in defense against metazoan parasites

Elimination of autoreactive B cell clones a) is at the stage of pre-B lymphocyte b) is at the stage of immature B cells c) is at the stage of mature B lymphocytes d) is at the stage of memory cell

Mast cells degranulation is activated a) after IgE binding to high affinity IgE receptor b) after IgA binding to high affinity IgA receptor c) after C5a binding to the complement receptor d) after binding of multivalent antigen through IgE

A,C,D

In response to T-dependent antigens a) form a memory cells b) occur no somatic mutations in B lymphocytes c) occurs isotype switching d) occur affinity maturation of antibodies

A,C,D

To the T cell surface markers does not belong: a) TCR b) CD3 c) CD80 d) CTLA-4

Non-specific immunosuppression: a) is used in patients with secondary immunodeficiecy b) is used in patients after transplant c) is used in patients with SLE d) is used in patients with SCID

B,C

``` Extracellular bacterial infections are typical for individuals with disorders of: a) Tc cells b) NK cells c) phagocyte functions d) antibody production ```

C, D

During the immunopathological reaction type II: a) is activated complement b) are not activated phagocytes c) are activated basophils and mast cells via IgE d) are activated NK cells

A,D

Types of post-transplantation rejections are: a) acute rejection caused by antibodies b) chronic rejection caused by humoral and cellular mechanisms c) hyperacute rejection caused by antibodies d) acute rejection caused by reactions of cellular immunity

C,D

Hyperacute rejection: a) is caused by antibodies that don't activate complement b) is caused by preformed antibodies c) is caused by autoantibodies d) is caused by antibodies that bind to Fc receptors on phagocytes and NK cells

``` Among the external factors involved in the development of autoimmune diseases doesn't belong: a) UV b) association with HLA-B 27 c) infectious diseases d) cancer ```

These diagnoses are not autoimmune diseases: a) Hashimoto's thyroiditis b) myasthenia gravis c) rheumatoid arthritis d) Di George syndrome

In the diagnosis of contact dermatitis is to perform: a) determination of IgE antibodies in the serum b) skin prick tests c) patch tests d) immunofluorescence examination of the skin

In the case of Graves-Basedow disease: a) there are antibodies anti thyroglobulin b) there are antibodies against TSH receptor c) is reduced thyroid function !!hyperfunct d) is one of manifestation exophthalmos

A, B, D

Systemic lupus erythematosus: a) in SLE is affected only the skin and kidneys b) in SLE produce immune complexes, which are stored in the tissues c) in SLE is a typical butterfly rash on the face d) in SLE occurs glomerulonephritis

B,C,D

Hereditary angioedema is treated by: a) administration of antihistamines b) administration of C1 inhibitor c) administration of fresh plasma d) administration of androgen hormones

A,B

Immunopathological reaction type II occurs in: a) the antiphospholipid syndrome b) Rheumatoid arthritis c) autoimmune thrombocytopenia d) Bruton's agammaglobulinemia

Immunopathological reaction type II occurs in: a) allergic rhinitis b) serum sickness c) myasthenia gravis d) contact dermatitis

Incompatibility in the ABO system means in transplantation the risk of: a) hyperacute rejection b) accelerated rejection c) acute rejection d) chronic rejection

A,B

. The mechanisms of tumor resistance to the immune system include: a) sialylation of tumor cell surface proteins b) the increased expression of MHC gp class I c) high variability of tumor cells d) the expression of Fas L

A,C, D

IL-4 is mainly produced by: a) Th1 lymphocytes b) Th2 lymphocytes c) B lymphocytes d) macrophages

In which part of APC binds antigenic peptide to MHC gp class I molecule: a) in Golgi apparatus b) in proteasome c) in endoplasmic reticulum d) in endosomes

IgA function is a) opsonization b) complement activation c) neutralization of antigen d) protection of mucous membrane

A,C,D

MHC genes are not a) autosomes b) the X-linked c) codominant d) polymorphic

ADCC - antibody dependent cell mediated cytotoxicity - depends on antibody isotope a) IgM b) IgM and IgG c) IgG d) IgA

Contact allergy: a) is a type I hypersensitivity reaction b) can occur after contact with metals c) can cause eczema d) is diagnosed by patch tests

B,C,D

In defense against metazoan parasites are applied: a) mainly IgA antibodies b) mainly IgE antibodies c) eosinophils d) mast cells

B,C,D (?)

Carcinoembryonic antigen: a) is typical for hepatom b) occurs on metastases c) occurs in ovarian cancer d) is typical for colon carcinoma

Among complement inhibitors does not belong: a) C1 inhibitor b) C3 inhibitor c) MIP-1 d) MCP

C,D

Synthesis of acute phase proteins is induced by: a) IL-3, IL-4, IL-5 b) IFN-gamma c) IL-1, IL-6, TNF-alpha d) IL-10, TGF-beta