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Quiz 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What type of blood cell is this?

A

neutrophil

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2
Q

What type of blood cell is this?

A

Eosinophil

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3
Q

What type of blood cell is this?

A

Basophil

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4
Q

What type of blood cell is this?

A

Monocyte

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5
Q

What type of blood cell is this?

A

Lymphocytes

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6
Q

Name the blood cell:

  • granular cytoplasm and mulilobulated nuclei
  • clear granules
A

Neutrophils

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7
Q

Name this blood cell: large, pink granules and their sausage-shaped nucleus. Observe the slender connecting link (arrowhead) between the two lobes of the nucleus

A

Eosinophil

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8
Q

Name this blood cell: Dense, dark, large granules and nucleus with two dark lobes

A

Basophils

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9
Q

Name this blood cell: large size; acentric, kidney-shaped nucleus; and lack of specific granules.
Biggest leukocytes

A

Monocytes

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10
Q

Name this blood cell: small cells that possess a single, large, acentrically located nucleus and a narrow rim of light blue cytoplasm.

A

Lymphocytes

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11
Q

How big are Neutrophils?

A

10-12um

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12
Q

How big are Eosinophils?

A

10-12um

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13
Q

How big are Basophils?

A

10-12um

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14
Q

How big are Monoccytes?

A

12-20um

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15
Q

How big are Lymphocytes?

A

7um; the same size as a red blood cell

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16
Q

Percentage of each white blood cell?

A

Neutriphil 60%

Lymphocyte 25%

Monocyte 10%

Eosinophil 3%

Basophil 1%

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17
Q

the cell that results forms from the union of the female oocyte and a male sperm during fertilization.

A

zygote

The zygote is the first stage in the development of a human being.

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18
Q

the stage of development that extends from fertilization to the end of the eighth week of development (day 56). By the end of this period, all major structures are present.

A

embryonic stage of development

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19
Q

the stage of development that begins on day 57 and extends until the fetus is born. This is a period of growth and differentiation of tissues and organs formed in the embryonic period.

A

fetal stage of development

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20
Q

a complex sequence of events that begins with the male sperm contacting the female oocyte and results in the intermingling of egg and sperm chromosomes

A

fertilization

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21
Q

a series of mitotic cell divisions of the zygote that result in the formation of the early embryonic cells called blastomeres. The size of the cleaving zygote remains unchanged because at each division the blastomeres become smaller.

A

cleavage divisions

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22
Q

the stage of development that begins after the developing embryo (called the morula at this stage) enters the uterus and a fluid filled cavity develops inside it. The developing embryo is now called a embryoblast.

A

blastocyst

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23
Q

a group of centrally located blastomeres that will give rise to the embryo

A

inner cell mass (embryoblast)

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24
Q

a thin outer cell layer which gives rise to the embryonic portion of the placenta

A

outer cell mass (trophoblast)

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25
Q

the internal layer of the uterus, formed by simple columnar epithelium with a connective tissue stroma. The layers of the _____ can be distinguished microscopically as the functional layer (shed during menstruation and parturition) and basal layer (stem cell layer). During pregnancy the functional layer of the endometrium is called the decidua.

A

endometrium

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26
Q

Following attachment to the endometrium the trophoblast proliferates rapidly to form the two cell layers. Name the mitotically active inner layer.

A

cytotrophoblast

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27
Q

the outer mass of the trophoblast consisting of a multinucleated mass in which no cells boundaries are observed

A

syncytiotrophoblast

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28
Q

structure formed by extraembryonic mesoderm, syncytiotrophoblast and cytotrophoblast. It contributes to the fetal portion of the placenta.

A

chorion

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29
Q

Implantation of the blastocyst outside of the uterus, most commonly in the ampulla of the oviduct.

A

ectopic pregnancy

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30
Q

Changes occur in the embryoblast (inner cell mass) during the second week of development that result in the formation of flatplate of cells called the ….

A

bilaminar disc

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31
Q

the thick, dorsal aspect of the bilaminar disc, consisting of high columnar cells related to the amniotic cavity

A

epiblast

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32
Q

the ventral layer of the bilaminar disc located below the epiblast. Also called primitive endoderm, the small cuboidal cells are related to the yolk sac formation and extraembryonic mesoderm, but do not contribute to the tissues of the embryo.

A

hypoblast

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33
Q

the ventral structure lined by hypoblast cells, below the hypoblast layer. Important functions include origin of primordial germ cells, early blood cell development and regulation of nutrients to the embryo.

A

yolk sac

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34
Q

the cells that separate from the epiblast to form the upper cavity. This cavity surrounds the embryo and fetus and contains liquid that is critical to the health of the developing embryo.

A

amnion and amnionic cavity

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35
Q

the thickened band of epiblast cells appearing at the beginning of week three in the caudal, dorsal aspect of the bilaminar disc. The epiblast cells will migrate through this streak to form endoderm and mesoderm during gastrulation.

A

primitive streak

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36
Q

the important period of epiblast proliferation, migration and differentiation. It is the process by which the three germ layers develop.

A

gastrulation

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37
Q

the three basic cell layers of ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm that give rise to all of the cells, tissues and structures of the embryo

A

germ layers

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38
Q

the portion of ectoderm from which the outer surface of the body arises

A

surface ectoderm

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39
Q

the portion of ectoderm from which brain and spinal cord arise. Early stages include the neural plate and neural tube

A

neural ectoderm

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40
Q

a primitive mesodermal structure that defines the midline of the embryo, the vertebal column and base of skull develop around it

A

notochord

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41
Q

Agents in the environment that can produce birth defects

A

Teratogens

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42
Q

What are the two successive phase of prenatal development?

A

the embryonic stage and the fetal stage

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43
Q

When is the embryonic stage and why is it significant?

A

begins at fertilization and ends on day 56

The embryonic stage is significant for cellular proliferation, migration, and differentiation followed by the formation of all major internal and external organs and structures

all the major events of organ formation occur during the embryonic period

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44
Q

When is the fetal period of development and why is it significant?

A

Day 57 until birth

The fetal period is significant for growth and maturation of the organ systems that are established during the embryonic period.

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45
Q

Agents in the environment that can produce birth defects

A

Teratogens

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46
Q

The period of maximal sensitivity to teratogens is…

A

between 3-8 weeks

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47
Q

What are the three layers of the uterus?

A
  1. Perimetrium: a serous layer lining the external wall
  2. Myometrium: a thick, smooth muscle layer
  3. Endometrium: the internal layer facing the lumen of the uterus.
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48
Q

What are the layers of the endometrium and what are their functions?

A
  1. Stratum functionale: This thick functional layer of the endometrium faces the lumen and proliferates the female cycle. It is sloughed (shed) off during menstruation. This is where implantation takes place.
  2. Stratum basale (basal layer): The deep (furthest from the lumen) layer that is retained during menstruation and serves as a source to regenerate the stratum functionale.
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49
Q

ampulla

A

the longest portion of the uterine tube and typically where fertilization occurs

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50
Q

Function of the ovaries?

A

growth, maturation, and release of the female gamete (oocyte) and hormone production

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51
Q

Time frame and Events of the Menstrual Phase of the Menstrual Cycle

A

day 1-5: blood, uterine fluid, cells of stratum functionale constitute menstrual flow as when functional layer is shed

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52
Q

Time frame and Events of the Proliferative Phase of the Menstrual Cycle

A

day 6-14: stromal, epithelial and endothelial cell proliferation in functional layer. Ovulation takes place day 14 and has a 24 hour life cycle.

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53
Q

Time Frame and Events of the Secretory Phase of the Menstrual cycle

A

day 15- 28: glands enlarge, thick functional layer. Increased blood supply and preparation for implantation around day 21

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54
Q

Where do gametes (eggs) mature?

A

Ovary

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55
Q

Zona pellucida

A

A thick extracellular layer of glycoproteins that enclose the oocyte

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56
Q

corona radiata

A

cell surrounding the gamete

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57
Q

consequences of fertilization

A
  • alteration of the zona pellucida to block the entry of more sperm
  • fusion of two haploid nuclei into one diploid nucleus (46 chromosomes)
  • the fertilized egg is a single cell called the zygote
  • determination of the chromosomal sex of the zygote (male or female)
  • mitotic cell division called cleavage divisions begin
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58
Q

where does fertilization occur?

A

in the oviduct

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59
Q

what are the two significant events happen during the second week of development?

A

The developing embryo becomes fully implanted in the female endometrium The embryoblast layer (inner cell mass) gives rise to a two-layered disc (bilaminar disc)

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60
Q

what is the epiblast?

A

upper (dorsal) layer of columnar cells of the bilaminar disk in embryonic development

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61
Q

What is the hypoblast?

A

lower (ventral) layer of cuboidal cells in the bilaminar disc stage of embryonic development

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62
Q

Amniotic Cavity

A

The rudiment of the amnion forms from cells of the epiblast called amnioblasts. These cells enclose a fluid-filled space (the amniotic cavity) that develops between the epiblast and the adjoining cytotrophoblast (placental tissue). The amniotic cavity faces the dorsal aspect of the embryoblast. Normal amniotic fluid volume is critical to development

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63
Q

Yolk sac

A

The yolk sac forms ventral to the hypoblast of the bilayer embryo. The yolk sac regresses as development continues, typically obliterated by the time of birth.

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64
Q

What are the Major Events during week two of Development?

A
  • Formation of the bilaminar disc (epiblast and hypoblast)
  • Development of the amniotic cavity and the yolk sac
  • Development of the extraembryonic mesoderm
  • Formation of the chorionic cavity
  • Cells and tissues that will contribute to the placenta begin to organize and proliferate
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65
Q

What are the gastrulation events?

A
  • some epiblast cells lose their cell adhesion molecules and undergo mitotic divisions
  • some epiblast cells change shape and migrate toward the primitive streak
  • at the primitive streak, they slip out of the epiblast layer to beneath the basal lamina
  • the early migrating cells displace the hypoblast cells to form a new sheet-like epithelial layer, the endoderm
  • the later migrating cells spread between the epiblast and the endoderm to form the embryonic mesoderm
  • the cells that remain in the epiblast differentiate to form another “new” sheet-like epithelial layer called ectoderm
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66
Q

What layer do the endoderm, mesoderm, and ectoderm com from?

A

epiblast

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67
Q

oropharyngeal membrane

A

cranial end and future oral section

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68
Q

cloacal membrane

A

caudal end and future anal canal

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69
Q

Sarococcygeal teratoma

A

when there are remnants of the primitive streak and cells proliferate and form a tumor

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70
Q

Congenital Malformation

A

Synonymous with the term birth defect, it refers to any structural, behavioral, functional or metabolic disorder present at birth

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71
Q

Cytotrophoblast

A

The proliferative inner layer of the trophoblast

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72
Q

Why is Folic acid relavent to pregnancy?

A

B vitamin that can prevent approximately 70% of neural tube defects if taken before and during pregnancy

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73
Q

Hyperplasia

A

An increase in cell number

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74
Q

Hypertrophy

A

An increase in the size of a part or organ

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75
Q

Hypertrophy

A

An increase in the size of a part or organ

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76
Q

Inner cell mass

A

The cluster of cells segregated to one pole of the blastocyst and from which the entire embryo develops

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77
Q

Mesenchyme

A

Any loosely organized tissue composed of fibroblast-like cells and extracellular matrix, regardless of origin

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78
Q

Stenosis

A

A narrowing of a duct or orifice

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79
Q

Trophoblast

A

Outer cell layer surrounds the blastocyst that forms placental tissues

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80
Q

Everything in the body is one of four types of tissue what are they?

A

epithelium (sheets of attached cells), connective tissue (including bone, cartilage and blood), muscle (smooth, skeletal and cardiac), and nervous tissue.

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81
Q

Mucosa

A

inner layer; the lining of tissue for any wet surfaces

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82
Q

Epithelium

A

Sheet of connected cells, usually lines hallow surfaces

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83
Q

Submucosa

A

wall of the organ made of connective tissue

84
Q

Serosa

A

outer layer of organ wall that is an epithelium with connective tissue and simple epithelium

85
Q

Adventitia

A

The organ wall is within the body wall and there is only connective tissue surrounding the organ.

86
Q

Euchromatin

A

Active uncoiled chromatin that is stained lighter

87
Q

Heterochromatin

A

tightly packed and dense staining

88
Q

hematoxylin and eosin (H&E) dyes

A

the most common slide stain. It stains purple and pink.

Hematoxylin, a basic dye imparts blue-purple contrast on basophilic structures, primarily those containing nucleic acid moeties such as chromtatin, ribosomes and cytoplasmic regions rich in RNA. An acidic eosin stains elements such as RBCs, cytoplasm, muscle and collagen in varying intensities of pink, orange and red.

89
Q

PAS stain

A

periodic acid schiff dye pink to deep red in color which stains for glycoproteins

90
Q

Cut vs Uncut surfaces

A

Uncut surfaces exist within a cavity and don’t have to be cute away from surrounding tissue while cute surfaces must be cut and sectioned away. The esophagus is the portion of the GI system that crosses the diaphragm and enters the peritoneal cavity. When it is in the peritoneal cavity, it has a serosa. Before it enters the peritoneal cavity, the outer layer is called an adventitia. Whereas a serosa contains an epithelium that separates the organ from a space, an adventitia is simply a connective tissue junction to the next structure, without an epithelium or space.

91
Q

What are the Three layers of the Mucosa and what cell exist in each?

A

Epithelium: cellular layer with stratified squamous nonkeratinized cells

Lamina propria:connective tissue layer with fiberblasts

Muscularis mucosae: Smooth muscle layer

92
Q

Why do the smooth muscle cells in the muscularis mucosae appear different than the smooth muscle cells in the muscularis externa?

A
  • In the muscularis mucosae of the esophagus, the smooth muscle cells are sectioned largely transversely. In the muscularis externa, cells are sectioned longitudinally in the inner portion
  • That’s why they appear smaller and more circular in the muscularis music vs more long in the muscularis externa
93
Q

There are two different types of muscle in the muscularis externa, what are they?

A

Smooth muscle and skeletal muscle

94
Q

Serosa vs Adventitia

A

serosa is simple epithelium and adventita is connective tissue.

95
Q

Basal vs Apical

A

The apical faces external environment or lumen of a tube where it is often involved in absorption or secretion. The basal mediates attachment to underlying tissue or surface via integrins

96
Q

What cells are in the epithelium of an esophagus?

A

stratified squamous nonkeratinized(SSNK) epithelium

97
Q

What cells are in the lamina propria?

A

Fiberblast

98
Q

What cells are in the muscularis mucosae?

A

smooth muscle

99
Q

What cells are in the submuscosa?

A

Fiberblast

100
Q

What cells are in the muscularis externa?

A

Smooth muscle. inner circular and outer longitudinal and skeletal muscle

101
Q

What tissue is in the serosa?

A

Connective tissue and mesothelium

102
Q

What cells are in the adventitia?

A

connective tissue

103
Q

determine whether the nucleus is euchromatic or heterochromatic

A

euchromatic will be lighter stained and heterochromatic will be darker stained

104
Q

What tissue is this?

A

Epithelial tissue of the esophagus faces a lumen or cavity

105
Q

What tissue is this?

A

Connective tissue: Tissue that supports, protects, and gives structure to other tissues and organs in the body. Connective tissue also stores fat, helps move nutrients and other substances between tissues and organs, and helps repair damaged tissue. Connective tissue is made up of cells, fibers, and a gel-like substance.

106
Q

Label

A
107
Q

What is the order of the phases of the menstrual cycle?

A

Menstrual phase: 1-6

Proliferative phase: 6-15

secretory phase: 16-28

108
Q

where do most ectopic pregnancies occur?

A

ampulla of the oviduct

109
Q

when does the primitive streak appear

A

week 3

110
Q

what the zygote is one day post fertilization what day is the menstrual cycle are you?

A

day 15

111
Q

Haploid vs diploid?

A

haploid 23

diploid 46

112
Q

what is the zona pellucida made out of?

A

glycoproteins

113
Q

When does the trophoblast attach to the epithelial lining?

A

day 6-8 post fertilization

day 21-23 of menstral cycle

114
Q

what day post fertilization is the zona pellucida lost?

A

day 5

115
Q

what will the connecting stalk give rise to?

A

the umbilical cord

116
Q

what hormone is produced in the uterus and is the basis for pregnancy tests?

A

hCG

117
Q

what transition do cells undergo to for the germ layers?

A

epithelial to mesenchymal transition

118
Q

mesenchyme

A

embryonic connective tissue

119
Q

gametogenesis

A

formation of the haploid egg and sperm

120
Q

what is the most common phospholipid in the cell membrane?

A

phosphatidylcholine

121
Q

lipid raft

A

the association of lip lipids in the membrane

122
Q

glycocalyx

A

extracellular glycosylations associated loosely. with the extracellular molecules

123
Q

What is the function of the basement membrane?

A

binds the cell membrane to connective tissue and create a diffusion barrier between cells

124
Q

how do cell membranes assemble?

A

they self assemble

125
Q

How does anesthesia work?

A

it inserts into the lipid rafts and disrupts them

126
Q

where is phosphatidylserine located how how do cells use this property?

A

on the intracellular side so macrophages use it to recognize defects

127
Q

where are glycolipids located

A

the extracellular space only

128
Q

what are the two layers of the basement membrane

A

lamina lucida

lamina densa

129
Q

what does the laminin lucida contain?

A

laminin and other glycoprotiens

130
Q

what does the lamina densa contain?

A

type IV collagen

131
Q

When the basement membrane connects cells to connective tissue a third layer is present apart from the lamina lucida and lamina densa… is the layer called and what is present in this layer?

A

lamina reticularis which contains type VII and type III collagen

its purpose is to provide mechanical strength

132
Q

Why is the basement membrane sometimes called the basement membrane?

A

its a name given the the basement membrane when non-epithelial cells connect to connective tissue

133
Q

What is the function of the rough endoplasmic recticulum?

A

site of production of protiens

134
Q

a high density of mitocondria can make a cell appear what color when stained with eosin

A

pink

135
Q

what is endocytosis

A

absorption of extracellular material

136
Q

pinocytosis

A

endocytosis for small material

137
Q

phagocytosis

A

is the substance is taken up and then digested

138
Q

residual bodies

A

undigested remnants

139
Q

exocytosis

A

moving things out of the cell

140
Q

what are the two types of exocytosis?

A

regulated and unregulated

141
Q

merocine

A

exocytosis for small hydrophobic molecules, they are put in vesicles in the cell

ex. sweat glands of the skin

142
Q

apocine

A

exocytosis for lipids and hydrophobic molecules, form inverted vesicle to compartmentalize them and a small piece of the membrane is lost

ex. cell of the mammary glands

143
Q

holocrine

A

holocrine=think holocaust

product accumulates and the cell burst to release

ex. sebaceous glands of the skin

144
Q

cytocrine

A

“cell-cell”

the product is transported from one cell across two cell membranes to end up intracellularly in the second cell

ex: melanin

145
Q

transcytosis

A

think tran

the cell takes up the product and can store it and then release it when necessary

146
Q

when is transcytosis useful?

A

for products that are not made directly in the cell

147
Q

what are extracellular vesicles and what is the advantage?

A

when a large vesicle docks and releases smaller vesicles

product does not need to have effect on neighbor and can be protected during travel

148
Q

microvesicles

A

formed from the cell membrane itself like in apocrine secretion

149
Q

What are the three main cytoskeleton protiens?

A

Thin filaments, microtubules, and intermediate filaments

150
Q

what are thin filaments and what are they made of?

A

they sit beneath the cell membrane and provide structure and of are made of f-actin.

151
Q

what are microtubules and what are they made of?

A

Microtubules provide a highway for cellular transportation and they are made of tubulin. They radiate from nucleus and don’t bind cell membrane

152
Q

What are intermediate filaments and what are they made of?

A

form scaffolding made of mostly keratin and bind desmosomes

153
Q

another name for desmosomes

A

macula adherens

154
Q

another name for adhering junctions

A

zonula adherens

155
Q

another name for tight juntions

A

zonula occludens

156
Q

desmosomes

A

binds a spot of two cells together using keratin

157
Q

what is the difference between a hemidesmosome and desmosome?

A

a hemidesmosome is half a desmosome and binds cell to connective tissue

158
Q

gap junction

A

juction that link cytoplasms and serves as an electrically conductive channel between neighboring cells

159
Q

adhering junction

A

use E-cadherin protein and connect with cytoskeletal f-actin

160
Q

tight junction

A

very tight seal between two cells

even impenetrable to water and ions

binds extracellularly with claudins

161
Q

what do zona and macula mean?

A

zona=belt

macula=spot

162
Q

what forms the core of microvilli

A

thin filaments

163
Q

which junctional proteins are important for creating compartments

A

tight junctions

164
Q

axoneme

A

the core of the cillium and flagella

has a characteristic 9+2 arrangement

165
Q

Basal bodies

A

an organelle that forms the base of a flagellum or cilium with a 9+0 arrangment

166
Q

primary cilium

A

functions in sensing the local area

9+0 arrangement

most cells possess

167
Q

microvilli

A

apical structure that functions in absorption

168
Q

what are microvilli made of?

A

f-actin

169
Q

brush border

A

microvilli-covered surface of simple cuboidal and simple columnar epithelium found in different parts of the body

170
Q

striated border

A

microvilli in the intestines

171
Q

stereocillia

A

fewer longer microvilli that function in sensing

f-actin supports them

ex: in the ductus epididymis

172
Q

laminins

A

organize nuclear DNA and maintain shape

173
Q

Clock-face appearance

A

heterochrromatin bound in clumps

174
Q

where is the MTOC located

A

centrosome

175
Q

the relative amount of euchromatin in a rough indication of …

A

number of genes being actively transcribed

176
Q

what structures stain with hematoxylin

A

ribosomes, nucleolus, and chromatin

177
Q

constitutive heterochromatin

A

never involved in transcription

178
Q

facultative heterochromatin

A

not currently involved in transcription

179
Q

how are epithelia classified

A

by size: simple(one cell layer) vs stratified(multiple cell layer)

by shape: squamous, cuboidal, columnar

180
Q

endothelium vs mesothelium

A

endothelium is in the vasculature and mesothelium is in the serosa lining organs

181
Q

what are the different types of stratified squamous epithelium?

A

keratinized and nonkeratinized

182
Q

keratinized vs nonkeratinized

A

keratinized is dry like skin

nonkeratinized is wet like the vagina

183
Q

example of simple cuboial epithelia

A

ovarian epithelium

184
Q

apoptotic bodies

A

vessicularized cytoplasmic fragments of cells undergoing cell death

185
Q

basal enfoldings

A

invaginations of the plasma membrane for increased surface area usually to support active transport

186
Q

metaplasia

A

change in form

187
Q

hyperplasia

A

increase in number of cells

188
Q

hypertrophy

A

increase in size of cells like fat cells

189
Q

dysplasia

A

increase in abnormal cells

190
Q

when can metaplasia take place

A

what dealing with alot of stress or when transitioning to malignancy

191
Q

where are epithlial stem cells

A

in the most protected area

192
Q

example of simple squamous epithelium

A

mesothelium

193
Q

example of simple columnar epithelium

A

gallbladder

194
Q

example of stratified squamous keratinized epithelium

A

skin

195
Q

example of stratified squamous non-keratinized epithelium

A

esophagus

196
Q

example of stratified cuboidal epithelium

A

ducts of sweat glands

197
Q

example of stratified columnar epithelium

A

eyelid

198
Q

example of stratified transitional epithelium

A

bladder

199
Q

simple epithelium rely on what that stratified epithelium don’t have

A

junctional complexes

200
Q

horizontal vs vertical division

A

horizontal division and all cells thus retain contact with the basement membrane, whereas cells in stratified epithelia can also divide by vertical division in which the child cell loses direct contact with the basement membrane, and the epithelium “grows” in the basal to apical direction.

201
Q

pseudostratified epithelium

A

cell types of multiple shapes, though still one-layer thick in the sense that all cells contact the basement membrane

202
Q

transitional epithelium

A

A transitional epithelium is one that looks stratified at rest, but appears to have fewer layers when stretched. only in bladder

203
Q

terminal web vs terminal bar

A

Terminal bar is a histological term given to the unresolved group of junctional complexes that attach adjacent epithelial cells on their lateral surfaces: the zonula occludens, zonula adherens, macula adherens and macula communicans.

Terminal web: actinous web underlying microvilli on specialized epithelial cells.

204
Q

dysplasia

A

describes epithelia that are changing to a degenerate form.

205
Q

pectinate line

A

Within the anal canal, the point of transition from simple columnar epithelium to stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium

cot (8 decks)

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