Quiz 2 Flashcards
(112 cards)
1
Q
describe what occurs at the G2/M transition
A
activated cdc25 activates the CDK1/cyclinB complex
complex translocates to the nucleus to initiate formation of the mitotic spindle
activated anaphase promoting complex destroys CDK1
2
Q
RNA mutation that changes the amino acid resulting to either little to no effect on protein function or vastly different function
A
missense mutation
3
Q
how does diphtheria toxin affect eukaryotic translation?
A
inactivates GTP bound EF-2, inhibiting ribosomal translocation
4
Q
proteins sorted via the cytoplasmic pathway are destined for which locations?
A
cytosol, mitochondria, nucleus, peroxisome
5
Q
what results from a pathologic increase of mast cells?where would this increase occur? what symptoms does this cause?
A
mastocytosis
mainly in the skin
itchiness, hives, anaphylactic shock caused by release of histamine
6
Q
t/f
NK cell receptors are not capable of generating immunologic memory
A
t
7
Q
stimulates cGMP phosphodiesterase
which ligands bind to this receptor and what effects do they have?
Gs
Gt
Gi
Gq
dopamine histamine norepinephrine acetylcholine epinephrine light
A
Gt
light
vision
8
Q
what disease is an example of missense mutation?
sickle cell anemia
DMD
A
sickle
9
Q
protein is synthesized with a serine, lysine, and leucine attached. where is it headed and which pathway is it using to get there?
A
peroxisome
cytoplasmic
10
Q
plays a role in DNA binding
alkylating agents intercalating agents antimetabolites mitostatic agents platinum derivatives
A
platinum derivatives
11
Q
describe the function and operation of Ras-dependent RTK pathways
A
Ras activated in consequence to ligand binding to RTK (Ras-GTP)
Changes in protein activity/gene expression achieved via the MAPK cascade
12
Q
induces a structural change capable of breaking DNA molecules
alkylating agents intercalating agents antimetabolites mitostatic agents platinum derivatives
A
intercalating agents
13
Q
activates phospholipase C
which ligands bind to this receptor and what effects do they have?
Gs
Gt
Gi
Gq
dopamine histamine norepinephrine acetylcholine epinephrine light
A
Cq
acetylcholine
bronchoconstriction
+salivary glands
14
Q
t/f
NK cells are antigen specific
A
f
15
Q
increase in eosinophil count (>500 cells/uL)
A
eosinophilia
16
Q
PTM target
detects post translational modifications on proteins
northern
southern
eastern
western
A
eastern
17
Q
acetylation typically occurs on which amino acid residue?
A
lysine
18
Q
how do clindamycin and erythromycin affect translation in bacteria?
A
bind to the 50s subunit of the ribosome, preventing translocation of the ribosome
19
Q
protein leaves the golgi and is meant to be secreted. what would the translocation signal be for this protein?
A
tryptophan rich region
20
Q
protein is synthesized with an n-terminal hydrophobic alpha helix. where is it headed and which pathway is it using to get there?
A
mitochondria
cytoplasmic
21
Q
There were 46 camels in the desert. Everyone went number 2 when the Sun came up. After that, the Sun went down, and all but one had given a shit.
A
Cdk 4/6 :: Cyclin D :: G1
Cdk 2 :: Cyclin E :: G1-S
Cdk 2 :: Cyclin A :: S-G2
Cdk 1 :: Cyclin B :: G2-M
22
Q
RNA mutation that causes early termination
A
nonsense mutation
23
Q
NK cells undergo differentiation where?
A
bone marrow
24
Q
how does nitric oxide (NO) affect the GPCR?
A
activates guanylate cyclase directly
results in activation of cGMP = smooth muscle relaxation and vasodilation
25
can be structural analogs of purines or pyrimidines
block the synthesis of corresponding bases or folate analogs
```
alkylating agents
intercalating agents
antimetabolites
mitostatic agents
platinum derivatives
```
antimetabolites
26
protein leaves the golgi apparatus with an apolar region near the n-terminus. where is it headed and what is this pathway called?
cell membrane
| secretory
27
what is the result of cGMP phosphodiesterase inhibition? what drugs utilize this inhibition?
+cGMP
smooth muscle relaxation
vasodilation
ED drugs
28
disulfide bond formation typically occurs between two of which amino acid residues?
cysteine
29
how do lipophilic signals transmit their messages to target cells? give an example of this type of signal (draw it out)
signal molecules diffuse directly across the membrane into the cell. Can attach to cytosolic receptors of nuclear receptors that activate various transcription factors
30
how do Shiga toxin and ricin affect eukaryotic translation?
bind to 60s subunit and block entry of aminoacyl tRNA (elongation)
31
what type of cell represents the most abundant population of spherical white cells?
neutrophils
32
key marker for NK cells?
CD56
33
what are two ways the cell cycle can be arrested after DNA damage during G1 phase?
slow: p53 > p21 > (-) cdk4/6;cyclinD
fast: chk2 > (-) cdc25 > (-) cycE/cdk2
34
how does chloramphenicol affect translation in bacteria?
inhibits peptidyl transferanse, thus impairing peptide bond formation
35
protein leaves the golgi apparatus with mannose-6-phostphate attached. where is it headed and what is this pathway called?
lysosome
| secretory
36
type of signal that is transported via the blood. long distance, long lasting, freely diffusing. give an example of this signaling (draw it out)
endocrine
| epinephrine
37
protein target
measures amount of protein or antibody
northern
southern
eastern
western
western
38
DNA target
determines which restriction fragments are associated with a gene
northern
southern
eastern
western
southern
39
type of signal where the signal binds to the signaling cell which also binds to the receptor of the targeted cell. give an example of this type of signaling (draw it out)
```
juxtacrine
immune cells (MHC complex)
```
40
RNA mutation that does not change the amino acid
silent mutation
41
elevated WBC count (>11000 cells/uL) is known as? what is the most common form of this condition?
leukocytosis
| neutrophilia
42
expansion of CAG repeats
abnormal protein folding, aggregation leading to selective death of cells in basal ganglia
Alzheimer's
Parkinson's
Huntington's
Crutzfeldt-Jacob
huntingon's
43
monocytes arise from myeloid precursor cells where?
bone marrow
44
describe the primary function of myeloid DCs (mDCs)
antigen presentation to T-cells
45
describe how receptor tyrosine kinases work
ligand binds to ECD, causing RTK dimerization
tyrosine residues in ICD phosphorylated
SH2 domain of Grb2 binds to the phosphotyrosines
triggers phosphorylation of protein targets (RAS-dependent/RAS-independent)
46
what is the signal to return back to the ER? what amino acids are in this sequence?
KDEL
| lysine, aspartate, glutamate, leucine
47
describe the primary function of mast cells, basophils and eosinophils
helminthe response
| allergic response
48
how does cholera affect the GPCR? which subtype of GPCR is affected?
keeps the Gs alpha subunit activated (GTP bound)
results in constant adenylate cyclase stimulation = cAMP over production
opens Cl- channels = loss of electrolytes/water = diarrhea
49
plaques formed by misfolding/aggregation of amyloid beta peptide (AB)
Alzheimer's
Parkinson's
Huntington's
Crutzfeldt-Jacob
Alzheimer's
50
how do hydrophilic signals transmit their messages to target cells? give an example of this type of signal (draw it out)
bind to surface receptors that trigger cascade events within the cell via second messengers which have various targets
insulin, glucagon, epinephrine
51
type of signal that targets neighboring cells of a different type. local and short lived. give an example of this type of signaling (draw it out)
paracrine
| testosterone
52
what is the restriction point during the cell cycle, describe what happens that makes this such an irreversible step.
G1>S phase transition
Rb is bound to E2F during G1 phase
hyperphosphorylation of Rb/E2F by cyclin/cdk complex E/2 causes E2F release
E2F triggers release of more E2F and more cyclin E production, creating a positive amplification loop
53
proteins sorted via the secretory pathway are destined for which locations?
ER, lysosomes, plasma membrane, secretion
54
what is the function of cdc25 in the cell cycle? how does it achieve this function?
activates cyclin/cdk complexes by dephosphorylating two of the three phosphorylated sites on the complex
55
glycosylation typically occurs on which parts amino acid residues?
serine (o-linked)
threonine (o-linked)
asparagine (n-linked)
56
one or two additions or deletions would result in which sort of RNA mutation?
frameshift
57
protein is synthesized with a region with basic followed by hydrophobic amino acids. where is it headed and which pathway is it using to get there?
ER
| secretory
58
what are the primary roles of macrophages recruited by inflammatory events?
mediating inflammatory response
| repairing collateral damage
59
cooperates with the Rb protein
p21
p27
p16
p16
60
patient with I-cell disease presents with accumulation of lysosomal enzymes in the plasma. this is due to defective tagging with which signaling region?
mannose-6-phosphate
61
describe how a GPCR functions (draw it out)
ligand binds to ECD
conformational change in GPCR
ICD activates G-protein on the alpha subunit (GDP ---> GTP)
activated G-alpha separates and activated or inhibits effector molecule
effector molecule produces secondary messengers
62
key markers for B cells?
CD19
| CD20
63
how does tetracycline affect translation in bacteria
binds to the 30s subunit of the ribosome, blocking entry of tRNA, thus impairing elongation
64
describe the primary function of plasmacytoid DCs (pDCs)
IFN-production
65
RNA target
measures size and quantities of mRNA (gene expression)
northern
southern
eastern
western
northern
66
aggregation of alpha-synuclein protein (deposit as Lewy bodes in dopaminergic neurons in substantia nigra)
symptoms arise d/t lack of available dopamine
Alzheimer's
Parkinson's
Huntington's
Crutzfeldt-Jacob
parkinson's
67
where are mast cells differentiated?
in the tissue
68
inhibit tubulin synthesis
```
alkylating agents
intercalating agents
antimetabolites
mitostatic agents
platinum derivatives
```
mitostatic agents
69
type of signal where secreting cells also express receptors for the signal. give an example of this type of signaling (draw it out)
autocrine
| interleukin-1 (chemokines)
70
hyperphosphorylation of Tau
Alzheimer's
Parkinson's
Huntington's
Crutzfeldt-Jacob
Alzheimer's
71
why should patients taking nitroglycerine and nitrates NOT take drugs that inhibit cGMP PDE? what are examples of these drugs?
nitroglycerine and nitrates decompose to form NO which acts to help lower BP.
cGMP PDE inhibition results in accumulation of cGMP, which causes vasodilation and smooth muscle reaction
this combination could cause deadly drop in BP
72
what are the two main differences between mast cells and basophils?
mast cells are bigger
| basophils circulate in the blood, mature mast cells only exist in tissues
73
induced by p53 tumor suppressor
cell-cycle arrest after DNA damage
p21
p27
p16
p21
74
this receptor stimulates adenylate cylclase
which ligands bind to this receptor and what effects do they have?
Gs
Gt
Gi
Gq
```
dopamine
histamine
norepinephrine
acetylcholine
epinephrine
light
```
```
Gs
1) epinephrine
relaxation of smooth muscle (bronchial and intestinal)
constriction of cardiac muscle
+glycolysis
+TAG breakdown
+glycogenolysis
2) histamine
bronchoconstriction and allergy symptoms
```
75
crosslinks DNA chains
denaturing DNA macromolecules
```
alkylating agents
intercalating agents
antimetabolites
mitostatic agents
platinum derivatives
```
alkylating agents
76
how does the pertussis affect the GPCR? which subtype of GPCR is affected?
prevents the Gi-alpha subunit from being activated
results in decreased inhibition of adenylate cyclase = overproduction of cAMP
loss of fluids in airway epithelial cells an excessive mucous production
77
describe the stages of carcinogenesis
initiation>promotion>progression
78
how does cyclohexamide affect eukaryotic translation?
prevents peptide bond formation
79
what disease is an example of frameshift mutation?
sickle cell anemia
DMD
DMD
80
protein is synthesized with a lysine and arginine rich region. where is it headed and which pathway is it using to get there?
nucleus
| cytoplasmic
81
where does the development and maturation of B-cells occur?
bone marrow and spleen
82
what is the role of CDK1/cyclin B during the cell cycle? what activates it? what stops its activity?
initiates mitotic spindle assembly
CDC25
activated anaphase promoting complex.
83
deficient WBC count (<4000 cells/uL) is known as? what is the most common form of this condition?
leukopenia
| neutropenia
84
cell arrest in response to growth suppressors (TGF-B) and in contact inhibition and differentiation
p21
p27
p16
p27
85
inhibits adenylate cyclase
which ligands bind to this receptor and what effects do they have?
Gs
Gt
Gi
Gq
```
dopamine
histamine
norepinephrine
acetylcholine
epinephrine
light
```
```
Gi
1) epinephrine/norepinephrine
constriction of smooth muscle
2) dopamine
increased HR
```
86
where does the development and maturation of T-cells occur?
thymus
87
what is the primary function of NK cells? how exactly do they achieve this function?
recognize self vs non-self
| great for finding cancer
88
misfolding of prion proteins
Alzheimer's
Parkinson's
Huntington's
Crutzfeldt-Jacob
Crutzfeldt-jacob
89
what is the typical neutrophil lifespan once released in the blood? how about after entering inflammatory tissues?
a few days tops
| 1-2 days
90
phosphorylation typically occurs on which parts of which amino acids?
OH
serine
threonine
tyrosine
91
how does streptomycin affect translation in bacteria?
binds to the 30s subunit of the ribosome, inhibiting initiation of translation
92
key markers for T cells?
CD3
CD4
CD8
93
what is the primary purpose of neutrophils?
phagocytes
| inflammatory response
94
which TLRs are endosomal?
3, 7, 8, 9
95
which TLRs recognize extracellular pathogens?
1, 2, 4, 5, 6
96
what is the most important transcription factor for inflammation?
NF-KB
97
which TLR signaling pathways are mediated by MyD88?
all but TLR3
98
which TLRs are specific for bacteria?
1, 2, 4, 5, 9
99
which TLRs are specific for viruses?
3. 7. 8. 9
100
which TLRs are specific for fungi?
2, 6
101
which TLR can recognize both bacteria and viruses?
9
102
which TLR can recognize both fungi and bacteria?
2
103
deficiency in MyD88 and IRAK4 would lead to what clinical presentation?
susceptibility to viral and bacterial infections
104
describe the role of the NLR (nod-like receptor) and which molecules mediate this response?
secretion of proinflammatory cytokines (IL-1/IL-18)
NLR + adaptor + inactive caspase-1 (x6) = inflammasome
active caspase-1 activates IL-1/IL-18
105
describe the significance of fMet
a typical PAMP
| a constituent of prokaryotes but not eukaryotes
106
particularly specialized to serve functions that amplify or suppress innate or acquired immune responses
```
macrophages
neutrophils
eosinophils
mast cells
dendritic cells
```
mast cells
107
trigger extravasation of neutrophils and monocytes. (what do these cells do?)
```
macrophages
neutrophils
eosinophils
mast cells
dendritic cells
```
mast cells
neutrophils = phagocytosis and inflammatory response
monocytes = macrophage differentiation = repair of inflammatory collateral damage
108
c-reactive protein (CRP) and serum amyloid A (SAA) are used to detect what?
inflammation
109
patients bloodwork returns with high CRP. what is this indicative of?
inflammation
110
what is the function of type I interferons?
block viral replication within host cells
| activate NK cells to increase cytotoxicity of infected cellsss
111
describe the actions of NK cells
killing infected host cells
| secrete IFN-gamma (recruits macrophages)
112
describe the expresstion of MHC/HLA alleles
codominance
