Quiz 3 Flashcards
(172 cards)
1
Q
What is agglutination?
A
The clumping or aggregation of particulate antigens resulting from reaction with a specific antibody.
2
Q
What is an anamnestic response?
A
A rapid increase in blood immunoglobulins after a second exposure to an antigen; also called a booster or secondary response.
3
Q
What is an antibody (Ab)?
A
A protein induced by and that reacts specifically with a foreign substance (antigen); also called immunoglobulin.
4
Q
What is an antigen (Ag)?
A
A foreign substance that induces an immune response by causing antibody or sensitized lymphocyte production.
5
Q
What is complement?
A
A group of plasma proteins that help in immune reactions, can cause cell lysis and start inflammatory responses.
6
Q
What is the function of B lymphocytes (B cells)?
A
Responsible for the humoral immune response.
7
Q
What is cell-mediated immunity?
A
Immunity provided by T lymphocytes and cytokines.
8
Q
What are cytokines?
A
Non-antibody proteins secreted by immune cells that regulate the immune response.
9
Q
What is an epitope?
A
The specific part of an antigen that reacts with an antibody.
10
Q
What is humoral immunity?
A
Immunity provided by B lymphocytes and antibodies.
11
Q
What does immunocompetent mean?
A
Capable of producing a normal immune response.
12
Q
What does immunocompromised mean?
A
A reduced or absent ability to produce a normal immune response.
13
Q
What are immunoglobulins (Ig)?
A
Antibodies that react specifically with antigens.
14
Q
What is immunosuppression?
A
Suppression of the immune response by physical, chemical, or biological means.
15
Q
What is inflammation?
A
A nonspecific protective response to tissue injury involving chemicals like histamine and serotonin.
16
Q
What are macrophages?
A
Phagocytic cells that destroy antigens and present them to other immune cells.
17
Q
What is a monoclonal antibody?
A
An antibody derived from a single clone or cell line.
18
Q
What is a plasma cell?
A
A differentiated B lymphocyte that produces antibodies.
19
Q
What are polyclonal antibodies?
A
Antibodies derived from more than one cell line.
20
Q
What is precipitation in immunology?
A
The formation of an insoluble antigen–antibody complex.
21
Q
What are primary lymphoid organs?
A
Organs where B and T lymphocytes acquire characteristics; includes bone marrow and thymus.
22
Q
What is secondary lymphoid tissue?
A
Tissues where lymphocytes are concentrated, like spleen, lymph nodes, tonsils.
23
Q
What is seroconversion?
A
The appearance of detectable antibodies in blood after exposure to an antigen.
24
Q
What is serology?
A
The study of antibodies and antigens in serum or plasma using immunological methods.
25
What is a T lymphocyte (T cell)?
A lymphocyte responsible for cell-mediated immunity.
26
What is the thymus?
A gland where T lymphocytes mature.
27
What is a titer?
The reciprocal of the highest dilution that still gives a desired serologic reaction.
28
What is nonspecific immunity?
Immunity that does not require previous exposure; includes inflammation.
29
What characterizes specific immunity?
Recognition, specificity, and memory.
30
What are the two types of specific immunity?
Humoral and cell-mediated immunity.
31
What are the two major types of lymphocytes?
T lymphocytes (T cells) and B lymphocytes (B cells).
32
Where do B cells mature?
In the bone marrow.
33
Where do T cells mature?
In the thymus.
34
What do vaccines stimulate?
The humoral immune response.
35
What are examples of primary lymphoid organs?
Bone marrow and thymus.
36
What are examples of secondary lymphoid organs?
Lymph nodes, spleen, tonsils, Peyer’s patches, appendix, GALT, BALT.
37
What type of immunity do B cells provide?
Humoral immunity.
38
What type of immunity do T cells provide?
Cell-mediated immunity.
39
What mediates humoral immunity?
Antibodies.
40
What mediates cell-mediated immunity?
Cells and cytokines.
41
What does humoral immunity protect against?
Bacteria and toxins.
42
What does cell-mediated immunity protect against?
Viruses, fungi, and tumors.
43
What are CD4 cells?
Helper T cells.
44
What are CD8 cells?
Cytotoxic T cells.
45
What cells does HIV infect and destroy?
CD4 cells.
46
What does a CD4/CD8 ratio of 2 mean?
There are two CD4 cells for every CD8 cell.
47
What is the structure of an antibody?
Two identical heavy chains and two identical light chains.
48
What does it mean that antibody monomers are bivalent?
They have two epitope-binding sites.
49
What is IgG?
The most abundant antibody; crosses placenta; provides long-term immunity.
50
How does a newborn get IgG?
Passively from the mother through the placenta.
51
What is active immunity?
Immunity developed by the body after exposure or vaccination.
52
What is IgM?
A pentamer antibody, first responder, with 10 binding sites but no long-term immunity.
53
What is IgA?
A secretory antibody in saliva, milk, and tears; provides passive immunity through breastfeeding.
54
What is IgD?
An antibody on the B cell membrane with uncertain function.
55
What is IgE?
An antibody involved in allergic reactions and parasitic infections; binds mast cells and eosinophils.
56
What is a primary immune response?
The immune response after first exposure to an antigen.
57
What is nephelometry?
A method that measures light scattering by suspended particles.
58
What is EBV?
The Epstein-Barr virus that causes infectious mononucleosis.
59
What are heterophile antibodies?
Multispecific antibodies that increase during mononucleosis.
60
What is infectious mononucleosis (IM)?
A viral disease caused by EBV, common in ages 15–25.
61
What does latent mean?
Dormant or hidden phase of a disease or virus.
62
What is agglutination inhibition?
The interference with or prevention of agglutination.
63
What is hCG?
A pregnancy hormone produced by the placenta.
64
What is apheresis?
A procedure that removes specific components from blood and returns the rest to the donor.
65
What is antiserum?
Serum that contains antibodies.
66
What is forward grouping?
Using known antibodies to detect antigens on red blood cells.
67
What is reverse grouping?
Using known red cells to detect antibodies in plasma.
68
Who discovered the ABO blood system?
Karl Landsteiner.
69
What is a genotype?
The genetic makeup of an organism.
70
What is a phenotype?
Observable traits influenced by genes and environment.
71
What is HDN?
Hemolytic disease of the newborn, caused by maternal antibodies attacking fetal red cells.
72
What is weak D?
A weakly reactive D antigen; individuals are considered Rh positive.
73
How is a weak D test performed?
Using anti-human globulin (AHG).
74
What is the kidney's function?
To form urine and regulate body fluids and electrolytes.
75
What is the cortex of the kidney?
The outer layer of the kidney.
76
What is the medulla of the kidney?
The inner part of the kidney containing renal pyramids.
77
What is a nephron?
The functional unit of the kidney.
78
What is the glomerulus?
A filtering unit in the nephron.
79
What are the parts of the renal tubule?
Proximal tubule, loop of Henle, and distal tubule.
80
What substances are reabsorbed by the kidney?
Water, glucose, amino acids, vitamins, and ions.
81
What substances are secreted by the kidney?
Ammonia, creatinine, hydrogen ions, and drugs.
82
How much urine is typically produced per day?
750 mL to 2 liters.
83
What is urine made of?
~95% water and 5% solutes.
84
What does PTH do?
Increases calcium reabsorption in the kidneys.
85
What does calcitonin do?
Inhibits calcium reabsorption.
86
What does aldosterone do?
Increases sodium reabsorption and potassium excretion.
87
What does ADH do?
Regulates water reabsorption; made in the hypothalamus.
88
What does atrial natriuretic peptide do?
Increases sodium excretion.
89
What hormones are produced by the kidney?
Erythropoietin (EPO), renin, and vitamin D3.
90
What is the renal threshold?
The blood concentration at which substances begin to appear in urine.
91
What is cystitis?
Inflammation of the bladder.
92
What is pyelitis?
Inflammation of the renal pelvis.
93
What is pyelonephritis?
Inflammation of the kidney and renal pelvis.
94
What is anuria?
No urine production.
95
What is nocturia?
Excessive urination at night.
96
What is oliguria?
Low urine output.
97
What is polyuria?
Excessive urine output.
98
Why is first morning urine preferred?
It's the most concentrated and has an acid pH.
99
How soon should urine be tested?
Within 1–2 hours or refrigerated at 4°C.
100
What happens to urine left at room temperature?
pH rises, bacteria multiply, and odor develops.
101
What is boric acid used for in urine testing?
As a chemical preservative.
102
What causes white sediment in alkaline urine?
Amorphous phosphates.
103
What causes pink sediment in acidic urine?
Amorphous urates.
104
What is hematuria?
Blood in urine.
105
What is hemoglobinuria?
Free hemoglobin in urine.
106
What disorder causes maple syrup-smelling urine?
Maple Syrup Urine Disease (MSUD).
107
What disorder causes musty-smelling urine?
Phenylketonuria (PKU).
108
What are porphyrins?
Light-sensitive compounds in urine.
109
What is refractive index?
The ratio of light speed in air versus a solution.
110
What does turbid urine mean?
Cloudy urine.
111
What is urochrome?
The pigment that gives urine its yellow color.
112
What is a urinometer?
An instrument used to measure urine specific gravity.
113
What does colorless urine indicate?
Diluted urine.
114
What does dark yellow or amber urine indicate?
Concentrated urine.
115
What is specific gravity?
A measure of urine density compared to water.
116
What does fruity-smelling urine indicate?
Presence of ketones, often from diabetes or high-protein diet.
117
What diet items change urine color?
Beets (red), carrots (orange), certain drugs (green).
118
What diseases change urine color?
RBCs (red), porphyrins (wine red), melanin (brown).
119
What are the key characteristics of urine?
Color and transparency.
120
What is albumin?
The main plasma protein that maintains osmotic pressure.
121
What is bilirubin?
A yellow pigment from hemoglobin breakdown.
122
What is the Clinitest?
A copper reduction test for detecting sugars.
123
What is the Acetest?
A tablet test for detecting ketones.
124
What is the Ictotest?
A confirmatory test for bilirubin.
125
What does a 'pass-through' result mean in Clinitest?
Rapid color change that may cause false negatives.
126
What is galactosuria?
Galactose in the urine.
127
What is the SSA test used for?
Detecting protein by precipitation.
128
What is an anion?
A negatively charged ion.
129
What is a cation?
A positively charged ion.
130
What is creatinine?
A waste product used to assess kidney function.
131
What is HDL?
High-density lipoprotein, the 'good' cholesterol.
132
What is TSH?
Thyroid-stimulating hormone from the pituitary gland.
133
What is the normal ratio of albumin to globulin in serum proteins?
About 60% albumin to 40% globulin.
134
What is the reference range for total protein?
6.0–8.0 g/dL.
135
What is the normal range for albumin?
3.8–5.0 g/dL.
136
What is the normal range for sodium?
135–148 mmol/L.
137
What is the normal range for potassium?
3.8–5.5 mmol/L.
138
What is the normal range for chloride?
98–108 mmol/L.
139
What is the normal range for bicarbonate?
22–28 mmol/L.
140
What is calcium needed for?
Blood clotting and bone health.
141
What is hypercalcemia?
Elevated calcium levels.
142
What is hypocalcemia?
Low calcium levels.
143
Where is most phosphorus stored?
In the bones.
144
What transports iron in the body?
Transferrin.
145
What is BUN?
Blood urea nitrogen, used to assess kidney function.
146
What causes a rise in creatinine?
Kidney failure.
147
What is conjugated bilirubin?
Direct bilirubin processed by the liver.
148
What is unconjugated bilirubin?
Indirect bilirubin not yet processed by the liver.
149
What does ALT indicate?
Liver damage.
150
What does AST indicate?
Liver, muscle, or heart damage.
151
What does ALP indicate?
Liver or bone disorders.
152
What is GGT normal in?
Bone disease.
153
What does CK-MB rise in?
Heart injury; normalizes in 3–4 days.
154
What does troponin indicate?
Stays elevated 7–10 days after heart attack.
155
What BNP level indicates heart damage?
Greater than 100 pg/mL.
156
What does hs-CRP test for?
Cardiovascular risk.
157
What is homocysteine linked to?
Cardiovascular disease risk.
158
What is CHD?
Coronary heart disease, narrowing of the heart’s arteries.
159
What is insulin?
A hormone that regulates glucose metabolism.
160
What is Graves' disease?
A disorder causing hyperthyroidism.
161
Why is hemolyzed blood unsuitable for tests?
It releases potassium and enzymes into the serum.
162
What is acidosis?
A blood pH lower than 7.35.
163
What is alkalosis?
A blood pH higher than 7.45.
164
What is the anion gap?
The difference between major cations and anions in blood.
165
What causes hypernatremia?
Dehydration or Cushing’s syndrome.
166
What causes hyponatremia?
Addison’s disease or diarrhea.
167
What causes hyperkalemia?
Anoxia or acidosis.
168
What causes hypokalemia?
High aldosterone.
169
What is the most abundant extracellular anion?
Chloride.
170
What role does bicarbonate play in the body?
Acts as part of the buffer system to maintain pH.
171
What is the normal blood pH?
7.4.
172
What conditions increase the anion gap?
Acidosis, ketosis, starvation, uremia.
