Quiz #3 Flashcards

1
Q

__ Theories: emphasize a normal developmental sequence that is common to all
AKA: Hierarchical Theories
Ex: Bayley Scales of Infant Motor Development

A

maturation theories

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

__ Theories: emphasis on conditioning behaviors via stimulus-response.
Ex: moving from an area full of distractions to an area without distractions to facilitate better focus for the patient.
Ex: changing exercise parameters (intensity, frequency, etc.)

A

Behavioral theories

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

_ Theories: focus on a nonlinear development, resulting of many intrinsic and extrinsic factors impacting the child.
Less focus on the CNS as the main director of development
Rather, the CNS is just one part of the many, many facets that direct development.
Other factors include: socioeconomics, genetics, nutrition, musculoskeletal system, etc.

A

Dynamic Systems Theories

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

ATNR ?

A

birth to 6 mo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

STNR

A

6-11 mo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

TLR

A

birth to 6 mo

or utero - 36 mo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Spinal Galant

A

32 weeks gestation - 2 mo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Palmar grasp

A

birth - 4 mo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

plantar grasp reflex

A

28 weeks to 9 mo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

rooting reflex

A

28 weeks gestation to 3 mo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Moro and startle?

A

28 weeks gestation to 5 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

landau reflex

A

4 to 12 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

positive support reflex and walking (stepping reflex)

A

35 weeks to 2 mo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Names for forebraing
midbrain
hindbrain

A

prosencephalon
mesencephalon
rhombencephalon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

cerebrum, hippocampus, basal ganglia, amygdala make up the __

A

telencephalon of forebrain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

thalamus, hypothalamus, subthalamus, epithalamus

make up the __

A

diencephalon of forebrain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

superior and inferior colliculi

make up__

A

tectum of midbrain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

cerebral aqueduct, periaqueductal gray, reticular formation, substantia nigra, red nucleus make up __

A

tegmentum of midbrain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

cerebellum, pons make up __

A

metencephalon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

medulla oblongata

make up __

A

myelencephalon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what lobe? vlountary motion, judgement, personality, reasoning

A

frontal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

__ lobe: sensation of light and crude touch, kinesthesia, vibration, and temp, interprets speech and language

A

parietal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

__ lobe: dominant auditory processing and olfaction area; Wernicke’s area, interpretation other people’s emotions and reactions

A

temporal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

__ lobe: primary processing center for visual information

A

occipital lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
precentral gyrus = __ | postcentral gyrus = ---
motor | sensory
26
Located in the lower temporal lobe – Responsible for forming/storing new memories of one’s history and learning language – “Memory indexer” relays memories for long-term storage and retrieves memories when necessary
hippocampus
27
Located in the center of the cerebrum and consists of the caudate, putamen, globus pallidus, substantia nigra, and subthalamic nuclei. – Responsible for voluntary motion, regulation of autonomic movement, posture, muscle tone, and control of motor feedback
basal ganglia
28
Almond-shaped nuclei located in the temporal lobes of both hemispheres – Primary function is emotional and social processing – Associated with fear and pleasure , processing of memory, arousal, and the development of emotional memories
amygdala
29
Receives and coordinates information from the ANS – Controls functions including hunger, thirst, sleeping, sexual behavior, and regulates body temperature – Impairment of the hypothalamus may result in obesity, poor temperature control, and diabetes insipidus
hypothalamus
30
– Located in between the thalamus and hypothalamus | – Regulates skeletal muscle movement
subthalamus
31
Characterized by the pineal gland | – Secretes melatonin and associated with circadian rhythms, selected control of motor pathways, and emotions
epithalamus
32
Two areas of the midbrain?
tectum and tegmentum
33
Located at the base of the brain superior the spinal cord Connects the forebrain and hindbrain Acts as a relay station for information from the cerebrum, cerebellum, and spinal cord Functions as a reflex center for auditory, visual, and tactile feedback
midbrain
34
__ connects the 3rd and 4th ventricle for the transmission for cerebrospinal fluid
– Cerebral aqueduct –
35
__ important for motor control and muscle tone
substantia nigra
36
__ receives fibers from the cerebellum regarding coordination
red nucleus
37
hind brain consists of (3)?
cerebellum, pons, medulla oblongata
38
__ and __ regulate the body’s vital functions
pons and medulla
39
__coordinates movement controls maintaining balance
cerebellum
40
Impairment to one side of the cerebellum will produce __ symptoms of the body
ipsilateral
41
__ Assists with controlling respiratory rate and the orientation of the head in regards to visual and auditory stimuli
pons
42
Cranial nerves __ originate at the pons
5-8
43
__ Controls autonomic nervous activity and the manages respiration and heart rate Has reflex centers for coughing, sneezing, and vomiting
medulla oblongata
44
Cranial nerves __ originate in the medulla oblongata
Cranial nerves 9, 10, 11, and 12 originate in the medulla oblongata
45
Impairment in medualla oblongata causes __ signs and symptoms
contralateral
46
Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is produced in the __ in each of the ventricles.
choroid plexus
47
CSF that originates in the lateral ventricles continues through the __ to the third ventricle.
interventricular foramen
48
The brain’s blood supply is from what two major arteries?
2 internal carotid arteries | 2 vertebral arteries
49
which artery? contralateral LE motor and sensory involvement, impaired bowl and bladder, neglect, aphasia, apraxia, agraphia
ACA
50
which artery? contralateral motor and sensory loss of face and UE with less involvement of LE, homonymous hemianopsia, apraxia, werninicke's aphasia, flat affect,
MCA
51
Anosognosia meaning?
the lack of awareness of having a disease.
52
which artery? contalateral sensory loss and pain, contralateral hemiplegia and mild hemiparesis, anomia, visual agnosia, athetosis, ataxia, choreiform movement
PCA
53
which artery? loss of consciousness, paraplegia or quad, inability to talk, vegitative state or comatose, vertigo, nystagmus, syncope
verebral basilar artery
54
Thalamic pain syndrome (abnormal sensation of pain, temp, touch, and proprioception) due to injury to which artery?
PCA
55
Locked in syndrome, coma, or vegatative state due to injury to which artery?
Vertebral basilar artery
56
__ system process emotions, process declarative memory, affect autonomic nervous system functions
limbic system
57
__ perceive emotions, generate emotions, regulate autonomic aspects of emotions, Essential for social behavior.
amygdala
58
declarative memory processing, automatic regulation of emotions (e.g. automatically not doing something socially unacceptable or ignoring an emotional experience), resolves goal conflict (e.g. keeping a resolution).
hippocampus
59
__ recognition of new stimuli
parahippocampal gyrus
60
Limbic system MOVE stands for?
memory and motivation olfaction Visceral- thirst, hunger, temp Emotion
61
Limbic system F2ARV
fear, frustration, anger, rage, and violence
62
Autonomic response to stress. This occurs sequentially First: strong sympathetic reaction causing heart rate, blood pressure, respiration, metabolism, and muscle tone to increase. (Mom lifts a tractor off of her favorite kid). Second: If this stimulation does not decrease a parasympathetic response occurs. Third: The bronchi constrict, patient may hyperventilate, may become dizzy or confused and less alert. Fourth: Blood flow returns to the periphery, the face flushes, skin may become hot, patient has no energy to move, and finally they will withdraw and posture becomes flexed.
GAS - General Adaptation Syndrome
63
sensory spinal tract. proprioception vibration 2-point discrimination graphesthesia
DCML = fasciculus cuneatus and fasciculus gracilis
64
which tract? Ascends to cerebellum for ipsilateral subconscious proprioception, tension in muscles, joint sense, and posture of the trunk and LE
spinocerebellartract - ventral and dorsal
65
Spinal tract Ascends to cerebellum and relays info from cutaneous and proprioceptive organs
spino-olivary tract
66
spinal tract Afferent pathway for reticular formation that influences level of consciousness
spinoreticular tract
67
spinal tract - Sensory tract providing afferent info for spinovisual reflexes and assists with movements of eyes and head towards a stimulus
spinotectal tract
68
spinal tract - Anterior = light touch and pressure | Lateral = pain and temperature sensation
spinothalamic tract
69
Spinal tract - Lateral - contralateral voluntary, discrete, and skilled movements Anterior - ipsilateral voluntary, discrete, and skilled movements
corticospinal tracts
70
Spinal tract - extrapyramidal motor tract responsible for facilitation / inhibition of voluntary and reflex activity through the influence on alpha and gamma motor neurons.
reticulospinal tract
71
spinal tract - Gross postural control Facilitating activity of flexor muscles Inhibiting activity of extensor muscles
rubrospinal tract
72
Spinal tract -- Contralateral postural muscle tone associated with auditory/visual stimuli
tectospinal tract
73
Spinal tract - Ipsilateral gross postural adjustments as a result of head movement. Facilitating activity of the extensor muscles Inhibiting activity of the flexor muscles
vestibulospinal tract
74
Progressive neurological disorder caused by amyloid plaques and tangles within the cerebral cortex and subcortical areas of the brain. The disease affects the higher cortical functions first and eventually progresses to severe mental and physical impairments.
Alzheimer's disease
75
Degenerative disease that destroys the anterior horn cells in the spinal cord and motor cranial nerve nuclei in the brainstem. Demyelination of the corticobulbar and corticospinal tracts is seen as well.
ALS (amyotrophic lateral sclerosis)
76
Degeneration occurs in the basal ganglia and the cerebral cortex that renders the neurotransmitters unable to modulate movement. Patient will present with involuntary choreic movements, alteration in personality, grimacing, protrusion of the tongue and ataxia with corheoatheoid movement.
huntington's disease
77
Caused by demyelination of the nerves in the brain and spinal cord, which leads to decreased nerve conduction velocity and failure of impulse transmission.
Multiple sclerosis (MS)
78
Disorder of the basal ganglia due to degeneration of dopaminergic neurons. Symptoms begin with balance disturbances, difficulty with certain movements and a resting tremor in their hands. Symptoms eventually progress to hypokinesia, akinesia, festinating gait, bradykinesia, dysphagia and rigidity of the skeletal muscles.
Parkinson's disease
79
__ Large, myelinated fibers with high conduction rate __ Medium, myelinated fibers with high conduction rate __ Small, unmyelinated fibers with slow conduction rate
A fibers B fibers C fibers
80
``` reflex grading 0 1 2 3 4 ```
``` 0 abnormal 1 diminished 2 active normal response 3 brisk/exaggerated 4 hyperactive ```
81
—Degeneration that occurs distally, Specifically to the myelin sheath and axon. —Occurs when the distal segment of an axon degenerates, the myelin sheath pulls away from that segment —The axon swells and breaks into shorter segments. The terminals rapidly degenerate and their loss is followed by death of the entire distal segment.
wallerian degeneration
82
Mildest form of injury —Conduction black usually due to myelin dysfunction. —Axonal continuity Preserved —Axons, epineurium, perieurium, and endonerium —Nerve conduction preserved Proximal and distal to the nerve lesion
neuropraxia
83
—A more severe grade of injury to the peripheral nerve —Reversible injury damaged fibers since they still maintain an anatomical relationship to each other. —Damage occurs to the axons with preservation of the endoneurium, epinneurium, schwan cells, and supporting structures.
axonotmesis
84
The most severe grade of injury to a peripheral nerve. —Axon, myelin, connective tissue components are damaged or transected —Irreversible injury, no possible regeneration —Flaccid Paralysis and wasting of muscle occur
neurotmesis
85
Characterized by a lesion found in the descending motor tracts within the cerebral motor cortex, internal capsule, brain stem or spinal cord. —Damage is found to be within the lateral white column of the spinal cord Examples
umn
86
example of UMN disease?
CP, hydrocephalu, ALS, CVA, birth injury, MS, TBI
87
Characterized by a lesion that affects nerves or their axons at or below the level of the brainstem. —The ventral gray column of the spinal cord can also be affected
LMN disease
88
LMN diseae examples
``` guillain barre syndrome bell's palsy carpal tunnel MD poliomyelitis ```
89
Invasive procedure of the spinal canal using contrast dye and x-ray imaging. —Procedure has a high risk for headache following the spinal tap, but is used to rule out potential abnormalities surrounding the subarachnoid space, spinal nerve injury, herniated disks, fractures, back or leg pathology, and spinal tumors.
myelography
90
—Non-invasive procedure using two sets of electrodes that records the time it takes for an impulse to reach the brain. —External stimuli (auditory, visual, Proprioceptive) are used to evoke electrical potentials in the brain.
evoked potentials
91
—Non-Invasive Procedure that can continuously measure electrical activity of the brain, using electrodes. —Baseline measurements are taken and then various stimuli are presented and brain wave are analyzed
electroencephalography
92
—Invasive procedure to evaluate the integrity of a spinal disk. —Contrast dye is injected and CT scanning is performed in order to better assess suspected damage of the IVD.
discography
93
A invasive procedure that can determine the narrowing or blockage of a artery within the brain. —Used to diagnose potential CVA, brain tumor, aneurysm or vascular malformation.
cerebral angiography,
94
Non- Invasive stimulation of a peripheral nerve to determine the nerve actions potentials and the nerve’s ability to send a signal. —NCV rules out peripheral neuropathies, carpal tunnel syndrome, demyelination pathology, and peripheral nerve compression.
nerve conduction velocity
95
Brain scan imaging that provides two and three-dimensional pictures of brain activity. —Is used to rule out cerebral circulatory pathology, metabolism dysfunction, tumors, blood flow, and brain changes following injury or drug abuse.
Positron emission tomography (PET)
96
Regulates body movement through sensory and motor neurons that transmit information from the brain to muscle fibers throughout the body. Peripheral nerve fibers send sensory information to the CNS Peripheral components of the somatic nervous system include axons, sensory nerve endings, and glial cells
SNS
97
Concerned with innervations of involuntary structures smooth muscle internal organs glands Helps maintain homeostasis and a person’s response to stress
ANS
98
Flexor/Extensor Synergy pattern- scapula
flex: elevation and retraction ext: depression and protraction
99
Flexor/Extensor Synergy pattern- shoulder
flex: abduction and ER ext: IR and adduction
100
Flexor/Extensor Synergy pattern- forearm
flex: supination ext: pronation
101
Flexor/Extensor Synergy pattern- hip
Flex: abduction and ER ext: extension, IR and adduction
102
Flexor/Extensor Synergy pattern- ankle
flex: DF with supination ext: PF and inversion
103
Flexor/Extensor Synergy pattern- toes
flex: extension ext: flex and adduction
104
*An associated reaction in hemiplegia in which resistance to hip abduction or adduction in the noninvolved extremity evokes the same motion in the involved extremity.
Raimste's phenomenon
105
flexion pattern of the involved upper extremity facilitates flexion of the involved lower extremity
Homolateral Limb synkinesis
106
breakdown between concept and performance, condition where a person plans a movement or task, but cannot volitionally perform it.
ideomotor apraxia
107
the inability to formulate an initial motor plan and sequence tasks where the proprioceptive input necessary for movement is impaired. Failure in the conceptualization of the task
ideational apraxia
108
the inability to reproduce geometric figures and designs, inability or difficulty to build, assemble, or draw objects
constructional apraxia
109
anterior cord sydnrome injury is uauly from cervical __
flexion
110
anterior cord syndrome has loss of __ and __ below the lesion
pain and temp
111
brown sequard syndrome: loss of __ and __ on the contralateral side of the lesion due to damage of the __ tract
pain and temp | lateral spinothalamic tract
112
central cord syndrome occurs due to __ injury
compression injury or
113
__ are involved more than the __ extremtiies
UE
114
Phenomenon which spares the nerve tracts in the sacral levels from the damage which higher levels received. Perianal sensation, rectal sphincter tone, and/or active toe flexion may be spared.
sacral sparing
115
__hemisphere – produce written and verbal language | __hemisphere – understand nonverbal communication
left | right
116
fluent aphasia = __ aphasia | non fluent + __ aphasia
receptive (wernicke's) | expressive (broca's)
117
– Lesion is that the frontal, temporal, and parietal lobes – Reading and auditory comprehension is severely impaired – Impaired writing, naming, and repetition skills – May involuntarily verbalize with correct context – May rely on nonverbal cues for communication
global aphasia
118
Reduce or eliminate seizure activity within the brain act to inhibit certain neurons throughout the CNS Includes barbiturates, benzodiazepines, etc.; Seconal (secobarbital), Klonopin (clonazepam), Depakote (valproic acid), Dilantin (phenytion), Tegretol (carbamazepine), Celontin (methsuximide), Neurontin (gabapentin)
antiepileptic agents
119
Promote relaxation in a spastic muscle. These agents bind mildly within the CNS or within skeletal muscle cells to reduce spasticity; Lioresal (baclofen), Valium (Diazepam), Dantrium (dantrolene), Zanaflex (tizanidine)
antispasticity agents
120
Direct: Mimic the actions of acetylcholine and bind directly to cholingergic receptors to active and create responses at the cellular level. Indirect: Increase cholinergic synapse activity through the inhibition of acetylcholinesterase; Aricept (donepezil), Tensilon (edrophonium), Prostigmin (neostigmine), Cognex (tacrine)
cholinergic agents
121
Action: assist to relieve symptoms of Parkinson’s disease secondary to decrease in endogenous dopamine. These agents can cross the blood brain barrier through active transport. Once in the brain, they can directly transform into dopamine; Sinemet or Madopar (levodopa), Symmetrel (amantadine)
dopamine replacement
122
Promote relaxation in muscles that typically present with spasm that is a continuous, tonic contraction. Typically occurs secondary to a musculoskeletal or peripheral nerve injury vs. CNS injury; ” Valium (diazepam), Flexeril *cyclobenzaprine), Paraflex (chlorzoxazone).
muscle relaxants