Quiz 4 Flashcards

(31 cards)

1
Q

Which direct thrombin inhibitor promotes nitric oxide release?

A

argatroban

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2
Q

Pulmonary is to bleomycin, as cardias is to?

A

doxorubicin (adriamycin)

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3
Q

How does ASA work as an antiplatelet medication?

A

inhibits thromboxane synthesis- interferes with COX 1 and 2 enzymes (irreversible- lasts for life of platelet)

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4
Q

Heparin is present endogenously on?

A

basophils and mast cells (as well as liver)

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5
Q

Which antimicrotubule chemo agent causes vascular permeability, peripheral edema, pleural effusion, and ascites?

A

Docetaxel

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6
Q

Heparin characteristics

A
  • binds to antithrombin
  • poorly lipid soluble, high molecular weight
  • given IV or deep SQ
  • prevents clot formation
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7
Q

What lab values evaluate heparin?

A

APTT and ACT

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8
Q

Contraindications for heparin

A

known bleeding tendencies, intracranial or intraocular surgery

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9
Q

Side effects of heparin

A
  • bleeding
  • HIT
  • CV changes (decreased MAP from decreased SVR)
  • altered protein binding (displaces alkaline drugs, increased concentrations of unbound drugs like propofol)
  • decreased antithrombin
  • altered cell morphology (leukocytes and RBCs)
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10
Q

Protamine characteristics

A
  • specific antagonist to heparin
  • strongly alkaline, positively charged
  • cleared by reticuloendothelial system
  • 1.3 mg for every 100 units heparin
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11
Q

Side effects of protamine

A
  • hypotension (rapid injection)
  • pulmonary hypertension (release of thromboxane and serotonin)
  • allergic reactions (fish allergy)
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12
Q

Warfarin characteristics

A
  • prevention of embolic events
  • rapidly and completely absorbed
  • high protein binding
  • does NOT cross into placenta
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13
Q

What lab test evaluates warfarin?

A

PT and INR

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14
Q

Warfarin and surgery

A
  • minor surgery ok
  • d/c 1-3 pre op before majory surgery (bridge with hep)
  • need Vit K and FFP to reverse warfarin for emergent surgery
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15
Q

Alteplase

A
  • thrombolytic

- major risk of spontaneous bleeding (trauma)

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16
Q

What do you treat spontaneous bleeding with from alteplase?

A

FFP, cryo, platelets

17
Q

Very rapid acting insulins and timing

A

lispro, aspart, glulisine
5-15 onset
45-75 peak
2-4 hour duration

18
Q

Rapid acting insulin

A

regular
20 min onset
2-4 h peak
6-8 h duration

19
Q

Intermediate acting insulin

A

NPH
2h onset
4-12 h peak
18-28 hour duration

20
Q

Long acting insulins

A

detemir (2 h onset, 3-9h peak, 6-24h duration)

glargine (1.5 h onset, no peak, 20-24h duration)

21
Q

ultra long acting insulin

A

degludec
2 hour onset
no peak
>40 hour duration

22
Q

Insulin is metabolized by:

A

proteolytic enzymes in the liver and kidneys

23
Q

Pharmacokinetics of heparin

A
  • poorly lipid soluble, high molecular weight
  • poorly absorbed from GI
  • does not cross placenta
  • circulates bound to plasma proteins (may neutralize anticoag effects)
  • non linear dose response relationship
  • elimination 1/2 time increased by low body temp and hepatic and renal dysfunction
24
Q

Regular crystalline zinc insulin

A

onset 0.5-1 hours
peak 2-3 hours
duration 6-8 hours

25
Which 2 drugs have a 10% potential for cardiotoxicity and may enhance myocardial depressant effects of anesthetics?
doxorubicin and daunorubicin
26
Consideration with hypoglycemia and anesthetics
anesthesia and nonselective beta adrenergic antagonists can mask s/s of hypoglycemia
27
What oral hypoglycemic agent has a risk of lactic acidosis?
metformin- avoid use with hepatic dysfunction
28
How does streptokinase work?
thrombolytic- act as plasminogen activators; converts proenzyme plasminogen to plasmin and that hydrolyzes fibrin to dissolve clot
29
How does warfarin work?
blocks vitamin K from synthesizing clotting factors in the liver
30
What is insulin resistance?
cells don't respond to insulin and can't use glucose as energy
31
What happens with pancreas removal?
patients require exogenous insulin