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FOM Final Knowledge Exam > Quiz 4 Material > Flashcards

Quiz 4 Material Flashcards

(63 cards)

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1
Q

What cells of the mucosa of the stomach contain secretory granules primarily in the basal cytoplasm?

A

enterendocrine cells

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2
Q

What type of papillae would you find near the tip or sides of the tongue?

A

fungiform papillae

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3
Q

What hormone stimulates release of pancreatic hormones from acinar cells?

A

Cholecystokinin (CCK)

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4
Q

What is the function of secretin?

A

To stimulate the centroacinar cells and intercalated ducts of the pancreas to secrete a bicarbonate-rich fluid to protect the pancreas and keep zymogens inactive

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5
Q

What cells are responsible for releasing secretin?

A

enteroendocrine cells

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6
Q

Which gastric cells secrete somatostatin?

A

D cells

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7
Q

What is the main effect of somatostatin released by D cells of the stomach?

A

To act in a paracrine manner, reducing secretions from nearby cells

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8
Q

Bilious vomiting and a “double-bubble” gastric sign are an indication of what pathology in a newborn?

A

duodenal atresia

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9
Q

Which bud of the pancreas rotates during formation of the gut tube organs?

A

the ventral bud

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10
Q

What does the vitelline duct connect during fetal life?

A

the midgut and the yolk sac

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11
Q

What is the main pathology of pancreas divisium?

A

the ventral and dorsal ducts fail to fuse; both persist

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12
Q

What is the rule of 2’s as it applies to Meckel’s diverticulum?

A

2% of population, 2% are symptomatic, usually children < 2, 2x more likely in males, 2 ft proximal to IC valve, < 2in, 2 types of mucosal lining

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13
Q

What does the acronym SAD PUCKER stand for?

A

Suprarenal glands, Aorta, Duodenum (2nd-4th part), Pancreas, Ureter, Colon (ascending & descending), Kidneys, Esophagus, Rectum

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14
Q

What spinal cord level is responsible for sympathetic innervation of the adrenal glands? Which nerve is this?

A

T12; the least splanchnic nerve

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15
Q

What structure is represented by the letter E?

A

Aorta

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16
Q

What structure is represented by the letter F?

A

Inferior Vena Cava

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17
Q

What is the enzyme responsible for the rate limiting step of glycolysis?

A

Phosphofructokinase 1

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18
Q

The conversion of 1 glucose molecule to 2 pyruvate molecules yields what net products?

A

2 ATP and 2 NADH

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19
Q

Why do RBCs have to rely on anaerobic glycolysis?

A

They lack mitochondria

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20
Q

What is the chemical pathology of hereditary fructose intolerance?

A

a mutation in the gene encoding aldolase B

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21
Q

Aldolase B interferes with the body’s ability to metabolize what?

A

fructose

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22
Q

In a patient with G6PD deficiency, what three main conditions may trigger hemolytic anemia?

A

treatment with oxidant drugs, fava beans, and severe infections

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23
Q

What is the role of hexokinase/gluckokinase in glycolysis?

A

To trap glucose inside cells by converting it to G6P

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24
Q

What is the general purpose of the pentose phosphate pathway?

A

To reduce glutathione, which acts as a potent antioxidant

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25
How is G6PD deficiency linked to lower levels of glutathione?
G6PD is responsible for a reaction that regenerates NADPH from NADP+. NADPH is then used to reduce glutathione
26
What is marasmus?
Insufficient protein and energy intake, leading to muscle wasting
27
What is kwashiorkor?
Insufficient protein intake with normal energy intake. Leads to edema, often presenting with a swollen belly
28
What is Achalasia?
Failure of the lower esophageal sphincter to relax
29
What is the primary cause of Achalasia?
loss of enteric ganglion cells
30
What is significant about the appearance of Achalasia on the CT scan of a barium swallow?
31
What is aspiration pneumonia?
the aspiration of food or saliva into lungs
32
Where are M1 muscarinic cholinergic receptors found?
CNS; we don't care about 'em
33
Where are M2 muscarinic cholinergic receptors found?
the heart
34
Where are M3 muscarinic cholinergic receptors found?
Everywhere but the heart and CNS
35
Where are Nm nicotinic cholinergic receptors found?
skeletal muscle
36
Where are Nn nicotinic cholinergic receptors found?
postganglionic neuronal cell bodies (adrenal chromaffin cells)
37
What are the 3 major catecholamines?
DA, NE, and EPI
38
Where are a1 adrenergic receptors found?
Vasculature, GI sphincters, internal urethral sphincter, and pupillary muscle
39
Where are a2 adrenergic receptors found?
NE (norepinephrine) nerve terminals
40
Where are b1 adrenergic receptors found?
the heart and JG cells of kidney
41
Where are b2 adrenergic receptors found?
bronchial smooth muscle, systemic vasculature, detrusor muscle, ciliary body (more aqueous humor), and liver (more glycogenolysis/gluconeogenesis)
42
What is the preference of NE and EPI for beta adrenergic receptors?
b1 -> NE b2 -> EPI
43
What are chylomicrons?
Large, triglyceride-rich lipoprotein particles
44
What enzyme does insulin activate in order to distribute/store dietary fats?
lipoprotein lipase
45
Which section of the bowel is associated with ability to absorb vitamin b12 (cobalmin)?
ileum
46
Dermatitis herpetiformis is commonly seen in patients with what GI disorder?
celiac disease
47
Esophageal varices and caput medusa (periumbilical veins) are associated with what vascular condition?
portal hypertension
48
Why can increased renal vein pressure help differentiate between liver cirrhosis and RVHF?
The renal veins are not connected to the portal system, thus an increased pressure indicates a systemic problem originating in the heart rather than a hepatic portal system problem
49
Microscopically, in what zone of the liver would congestion first become evident?
Zone 3
50
What stomach condition is pictured here?
leiomyoma
51
Why does destruction of sympathetic/parasympathetic nerve tracts to the gut not usually manifest as life-threatening?
the enteric nervous system and its connections function autonomously
52
Between inversion, duplication, robertsonian translocation or a 10Mb deletion which would be most likely to cause disease?
a 10Mb deletion
53
Would you use amniocentesis or chorionic villus sampling to detect anencephaly and alpha-feto protein levels?
amniocentesis
54
What may be detected by alpha-fetoprotein levels?
presence of Down syndrome or neural tube defects like spina bifida
55
What complications could be expected from fructokinase deficiency?
fructose in the urine
56
Serious cases of cystic fibrosis can have what affect on pancreatic function?
Inability to release pancreatic enzymes
57
How do levels of NEFA and triacylglycerol lipases differ between diabetics and normal patients?
Insulin typically inhibits triacylglycerol lipases and NEFA, so diabetics will have higher levels of both
58
Agonism of a2 adrenergic receptors results in what effect on NE release?
attenutation of NE effects
59
Autonomic innervation of the lacrimal glands is provided by what type of adrenergic/cholinergic receptor?
muscarinic cholinergic (M3)
60
Autonomic innervation of the lacrimal, nasopalatal, salivary, and sweat glands is provided by what type of receptor?
muscarinic cholinergic (M3)
61
What are two clinical signs of possible G6PD deficiency?
Onset of anemia and hyperbillirubinemia in reponse to intense fasting/ingesting an oxidative substance
62
Elevated levels of AMP can allosterically activate what enzyme in glycolysis?
PFK1
63
Which two adrenergic/cholinergic receptors are have an effect on systemic vasculature OR systemic arterioles?
a1- systemic vasculature (constriction) b2- systemic arterioles (dilation)

FOM Final Knowledge Exam (6 decks)

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