Quiz 7 Flashcards
(30 cards)
In contrast to the assessment of a trauma patient, assessment of a medical patient:
1 almost exclusively focuses on physical signs that indicate the patient is experiencing a problem.
2 is focused on the nature of illness, the patient’s chief complaint, and his or her symptoms.
3 requires a thorough head-to-toe exam that involves a detailed assessment of all body systems.
4 is not as complex for the EMT because most patients typically present with classic symptoms.
2
Which of the following conditions is NOT categorized as a psychiatric condition?
1 depression
2 schizophrenia
3 substance abuse
4 Alzheimer’s disease
3
The greatest danger in displaying a personal bias or “labeling” a patient who frequently calls EMS is:
1 overlooking a potentially serious medical condition.
2 making the entire EMS system look unprofessional.
3 demeaning or humiliating the patient and his family.
4 discouraging the patient from calling EMS in the future.
1
An index of suspicion is MOST accurately defined as:
1 the EMT’s prediction of the type of illness a patient has based on how the call is dispatched.
2 your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying and unseen injuries or illness.
3 ruling out specific medical conditions based on the absence of certain signs and symptoms.
4 determining the underlying cause of a patient’s medical condition based on signs and symptoms.
2
You and your EMT partner arrive at the residence of a 50-year-old man who complains of weakness. Your primary assessment reveals that he is critically ill and will require aggressive treatment. The closest hospital is 25 miles away. You should:
1 perform a detailed secondary assessment, assess his vital signs, and then transport rapidly.
2 manage all threats to airway, breathing, and circulation and consider requesting an ALS unit to rendezvous.
3 administer oxygen via nonrebreathing mask and obtain as much of his medical history as possible.
4 load him into the ambulance, begin transport, and perform all treatment en route to the hospital.
2
End-tidal carbon dioxide (ETCO2) monitoring is clearly indicated for patients who present with:
1 a headache.
2 abdominal pain.
3 high blood pressure.
4 respiratory distress.
4
Reassessment of a patient with a medical complaint should begin by:
1 reassessing the nature of illness.
2 taking another set of vital signs.
3 repeating the primary assessment.
4 reviewing all treatment performed.
3
The primary prehospital treatment for most medical emergencies:
1 typically does not require the EMT to contact medical control.
2 focuses on definitive care because a diagnosis can usually be made.
3 addresses the patient’s symptoms more than the actual disease process.
4 involves transport only until treatment can be performed at the hospital.
3
Which of the following medications would the EMT LEAST likely administer to a patient with a medical complaint?
1 naloxone (Narcan)
2 aspirin
3 albuterol
4 oral glucose
1
When caring for a patient with an altered mental status and signs of circulatory compromise, you should:
1 limit your time at the scene to 10 minutes or less, if possible.
2 perform a detailed secondary assessment prior to transporting the patient.
3 transport immediately and begin all emergency treatment in route to the hospital.
4 have a paramedic unit respond to the scene if it is less than 15 minutes away.
1
The determination of whether a medical patient is a high-priority or low-priority transport is typically made:
1 once the patient’s baseline vital signs are known.
2 after the primary assessment has been completed.
3 upon completion of a detailed secondary assessment.
4 as soon as the patient voices his or her chief complaint.
2
Which of the following statements regarding hepatitis A is correct?
1 Hepatitis A can only be transmitted by a patient who has an acute infection.
2 Infection with hepatitis A causes chronic illness with a high mortality rate.
3 Hepatitis A is primarily transmitted via contact with blood or other body fluids.
4 Although there is no vaccine against hepatitis A, treatment is usually successful.
1
Hepatitis B is more virulent than hepatitis C, which means that it:
1 is less resistant to treatment.
2 is a more contagious type of disease.
3 has a greater ability to produce disease.
4 leads to chronic infection after exposure.
3
A patient who presents with a headache, fever, confusion, and red blotches on his or her skin should be suspected of having:
1 hepatitis.
2 meningitis.
3 hantavirus.
4 tuberculosis.
2
Patients with tuberculosis pose the greatest risk for transmitting the disease when they:
1 cough.
2 vomit.
3 are bleeding.
4 have a fever.
1
Dyspnea is MOST accurately defined as:
1 shortness of breath or difficulty breathing.
2 a complete cessation of respiratory effort.
3 a marked increase in the exhalation phase.
4 labored breathing with reduced tidal volume.
1
In what area of the lungs does respiration occur?
1 alveoli
2 trachea
3 bronchi
4 capillaries
1
The two processes that occur during ventilation are:
1 expiration and diffusion.
2 inspiration and expiration.
3 diffusion and oxygenation.
4 oxygenation and active transport.
2
In order for efficient pulmonary gas exchange to occur:
1 the percentage of inhaled carbon dioxide must exceed the percentage of inhaled oxygen.
2 there must be low quantities of pulmonary surfactant to allow for full alveolar expansion.
3 the pulmonary capillaries must be completely constricted and the alveoli must be collapsed.
4 oxygen and carbon dioxide must be able to freely diffuse across the alveolar-capillary membrane.
4
In a healthy individual, the brain stem stimulates breathing on the basis of:
1 increased oxygen levels.
2 decreased oxygen levels.
3 increased carbon dioxide levels.
4 decreased carbon dioxide levels.
3
A 30-year-old male presents with acute shortness of breath, widespread hives, and facial swelling. He denies any past medical history and takes no medications. During your assessment, you hear wheezing over all lung fields. His blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg and his heart rate is 110 beats/min. In addition to giving him 100% oxygen, the MOST important treatment for this patient is:
1 albuterol.
2 epinephrine.
3 an antihistamine.
4 a beta-antagonist.
2
A 59-year-old male with a history of emphysema complains of an acute worsening of his dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain following a forceful cough. Your assessment reveals that he has a barrel-shaped chest, unilaterally diminished breath sounds, and tachycardia. What is the MOST likely cause of this patient’s condition?
1 rupture of the diaphragm
2 exacerbation of his COPD
3 acute pulmonary embolism
4 spontaneous pneumothorax
4
A pleural effusion is MOST accurately defined as:
1 a unilaterally collapsed lung.
2 diffuse collapsing of the alveoli.
3 fluid accumulation outside the lung.
4 a bacterial infection of the lung tissue.
3
You are dispatched to a residence for a 67-year-old female who was awakened by shortness of breath and sharp chest pain. Her husband tells you that she was recently discharged from the hospital after having hip surgery. Your assessment reveals dried blood around her mouth, facial cyanosis, and an oxygen saturation of 88%. This patient’s presentation is MOST consistent with:
1 acute pulmonary edema.
2 right-sided heart failure.
3 acute pulmonary embolism.
4 spontaneous pneumothorax.
3
