Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Conditions II > Quiz and Test 2 > Flashcards

Quiz and Test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

This layer of the skin is the outermost layer and contains sensory cells and pigmentation cells?

A

Epidermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

This layer of the skin is the middle layer and contains capillaries, hair follicles, and additional sensory receptors?

A

Dermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

This layer of the skin is the deepest layer of the skin and contains fat and blood vessels?

A

Hypodermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Name 6 functions of the integument (skin)?

A

Temperature Regulation

Protection

Sensation

Excretion

Immunity

Blood Reservoir

Vitamin D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Using this machine, doctors can tell the amount of vasculature to the area which signifies how severe the burn is?

A

Laser Doppler Flowmetry or Thermography

Can also be done with MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When looking at a Laser Doppler Flowmetry or Thermography, what color signifies lack of blood flow to a burned area?

A

Black or dark area signifies a lack of vascularity to the area.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the three classifications for burns?

A

Superficial

Partial Thickness

Full Thickness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

This type of burn has damage to the epidermis, has no scarring and results in red painful intact skin?

A

Superficial Burn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are some symptoms of a Superficial Burn?

A

Damage to Epidermis

Red, painful, intact skin

No Scarring

Related to Sun Burn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How long does it take for a Superficial Burn to heal?

A

1 - 7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the two subtypes of partial burn?

A

Superficial and Deep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

This type of burn results in damage to the epidermis and parts of the dermis, contains blisters and has minimal scarring?

A

Superficial Partial Thickness Burn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are symptoms of a Superficial Partial Thickness Burn?

A

Damage to Epidermis and Parts of the Dermis

Red, Wet, Swollen, Painful Blisters

Minimal to no scarring

Hair is spared or grows back.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How long does it take for a superficial partial thickness burn to heal?

A

7 - 21 days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

This type of burn contains severe damage to the dermis, has a blotchy white appearance and has scarring?

A

Deep Partial Thickness Burn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are some symptoms of a deep partial thickness burn?

A

Severe damage to the dermis

Blotchy, white appearance

Infection can lead to full thickness.

Leads to Scarring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How long does it take for a deep partial thickness burn to heal?

A

3 - 5 weeks

Can be grafted in order to expedite healing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

This type of burn results in destruction of the epidermis, dermis and sometimes the muscle and bone.

A

Full Thickness Burn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are some symptoms of a full thickness burn?

A

Destruction of epidermis, dermis and sometimes muscle/bone.

Appears white/gray, leathery, and shriveled due to lack of vasculature.

Insensate or lack of sensation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How long does it take a full thickness burn to heal?

A

5 - 14 days with a skin graft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

True or False. Females have more burn injuries than males?

A

False - males account for 69% of burn victims. Females are only 31%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

True or False: Most burns are a result of a fire or flame?

A

True - 44% of burns are a cause of a fire or flame. 33% are scalding burn.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

True or False: Most burn injuries occur in the workplace?

A

False - 69% of burns happen in the home. 9% happen at work.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the three types of burn?

A

Thermal Burn

Electrical Burn

Chemical Burn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Describe the 4 causes of a thermal burn?

A

Flame

Scalding

Flash

Contact w/ hot surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What type of burn is more likely to be caused by a scalding (sup,part,full) ?

A

Superficial or Partial Thickness Burn.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What type of burn is more likely to be caused by a flame burn (sup,part,full)?

A

Partial or Full Thickness Burn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What type of burn is more likely to be caused by a contact burn (sup,part,full)?

A

Partial or Full Thickness Burn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

These types of thermal burns are considered dirty wounds? Why?

A

Flame or Scald Burns because debris from the fire or liquid could contaminate the wound. At risk for infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

This type of burn typically have 2 burns associated with it, an entrance wound and an exit wound?

A

Electrical Burn caused by lightening or voltage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

This type of burn requires cardiac monitoring?

A

Electrical Burn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

This type of burn results in the reduction, oxidation, corrosion or the desecration of body tissues?

A

Chemical Burn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

True or False: Frostbite is not a burn?

A

True - It is NOT a burn.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Why is frostbite treated at a burn center?

A

Because it involves the skin and underlying structures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Describe the 2 Phases of Frostbite

A

Pre-Thaw Phase: Area should be padded and warmed.

Post-Thaw Phase: Minimize inflammation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

When determining the size of the burn, what is taken into consideration?

A

The percentage of the total body surface area (TBSA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the 2 formulas that can be used when determining the burn size?

A

Lund and Browder Formula

Rule of Nines Formula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Describe the formula that is most commonly used when determining burn size.

A

Rule of Nines is most common.

Head and Arms = 4.5% Each Arm.

Chest = 9%

Abdominen = 9%

Leg = 9% Each Leg

Palm = 1%

Genitals = 1 %

39
Q

What are the 3 phases of burn management?

A

Emergent = injury to 72 hours

Acute = 72 hours til wound closes or is grafted

Rehabilitation Phase = until scar maturation.

40
Q

What are the first 4 things that must be done when medically treating a burn?

A

Cleaning Wound

Fluid and Hydration to Area

Return Blood to Area

Cardiopulmonary Stability

41
Q

What are the last 4 things that must be done when medically treating a burn?

A

Remove eschar tissue and necrotic tissue to improve vasculature (dibridement)

Dress Wound

Prevent/Control Infection

Control/Prevent Contractures

42
Q

What is done by an OT during assessment with a burn victim?

A

Screen - location of burn and what joints are involved.

Establishing positioning or splinting program.

Occupational Profile

43
Q

What is done by an OT during treatment in emergent phase?

A

Prevent Contracture

Apply Splints

Positioning

44
Q

When is skin grafting done?

A

If healing has not occured within 14 days or is not expected to happen.

45
Q

What is the time frame of the emergent phase?

A

0 - 72 hours post burn

46
Q

What is the time frame of the acute phase?

A

72 hours - closing of wound

Can last days or months.

47
Q

What is the benefit of silver-impregnated dressings?

A

They have a good antimicrobial property.

48
Q

What is the benefit of a whirlpool?

A

Loosens necrotic tissue and increases circulation

49
Q

Describe an autograft skingraft.

A

Skin from the unburned area is taken and is either applied solidly or meshed onto burned area.

50
Q

What are the 3 types of grafts that do not use your own skin?

A

Xenographs - Bovine Skin

Allographs - Cadaver Skin

Biological Dressing (temporary)

51
Q

What are 2 ways to manage burn scars?

A

Massage and Pressure Garments

52
Q

What are the benefits of scar massage with burn victims?

A

Maintain suppleness

Aides desensitization

53
Q

This type of complication from a burn results in an oral contracture and losing the ability to close or open your mouth

A

Microstomia

54
Q

This type of complication from a burn results in having bone develop where it would normally not develop, causing a lack of ROM?

A

Heterotrophic Ossification

55
Q

This type of stitch is done by opening up a scar that is over a joint and prevents the restriction of movement?

A

Z-Plasty

56
Q

What type of hand burn is more at risk of having tendon injuries?

A

Back of Hand because it’s not as protected by tissue.

57
Q

What are the 3 types of Cardiac and Pulmonary Diseases?

A

Coronary Artery Disease

Congestive Heart Failure

Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)

58
Q

Which of the Cardiac Diseases is the most prevalent?

A

Coronary Artery Disease

59
Q

What is the current estimate of how many individuals currently have some type of cardiovascular disease?

A

1 in 3 have some type of cardiovascular disease

60
Q

What are some major risk factors for cardiovascular disease?

A

high cholesterol

high blood lipids

Smoking

Hypertension

Obesity, Inactivity

Stress

61
Q

True or False: Heart Disease is the leading cause of death in the U.S.

A

True

62
Q

This type of coronary artery disease is a reversible ischemic process that is caused by the inability for coronary arteries to supply sufficient oxygenated blood to the heart tissue

A

Angina Pectoris

63
Q

What are the symptoms of Angina Pectoris?

A

Sudden chest pain

Pressure

Burning in throat/jaw

Shortness of breath & discomfort between shoulder blades.

64
Q

What causes coronary artery disease?

A

Depositing of fat streaks or plaques in the artery wall.

Eventually leads to arterial wall damage because of loss of elasticity.

65
Q

This term is also known as a heart attack.

A

Myocardial Infarction

66
Q

Describe a myocardial infarction

A

Interruption of blood flow to the hear causing heart cels to die.

67
Q

This type of medical management for CAD is done by inserting electrodes in the heart to restore normal heart rythym

A

Cardioversion

68
Q

This type of medical management for CAD is done by using electrical pulses to prompt the heart to beat at a normal rate

A

Cardiac Pacemaker

69
Q

This type of medical management for CAD is done by cutting the sternum open to operate on the heart

A

Sternotomy

70
Q

This type of medical management for CAD is done by inserting a mesh tubing into the artery to treat narrow or weakened artery walls

A

Stent

71
Q

This term describes the inability of the heart to function as an effective pump because the heart has become stretched.

A

Congestive Heart Failure

72
Q

Describe Congestive Heart Failure

A

Heart becomes stretched and the chambers of the heart lose its ability to keep blood flowing through the heart.

73
Q

What are some signs and symptoms of congestive heart failure?

A

Increase in weight 2-5 pounds over several days

Inability to sleep

Shortness of Breath

Swelling

Fatigue

74
Q

What are some ways OT’s can help those with Congestive Heart Failure

A

Help reduce risk factors

Modify ADLs

Lifestyle Change

75
Q

What do METs measure?

A

The amount of oxygen the body needs during a given activity.

76
Q

How much METs is consumed at rest?

A

1 MET

77
Q

A client cannot exceed 2.6 - 4.0 METs during ADLs. What are some things that we can do with our client?

A

Light ADLs such as sweeping floors, setting table, making bed, using a ride mower, washing dishes.

78
Q

A client cannot exceed 4 METs during activity. What types of things can we do with our client?

A

Light ADLs

Child care, bathing, walking raking lawn.

79
Q

A client cannot exceed 6 METs during activity. What types of things can we do with our client?

A

Light ADLs

Major house cleaning, cleaning gutters, moving furniture, weeding.

80
Q

If our client cannot exceed 6 METs during activity what activities should be avoided?

A

Carrying groceries upstairs, shoveling, running.

81
Q

What 8 measures does the SF-36 measure?

A

Physical Functioning

Role-Physical

Bodily Pain

General Health

Vitality

Social Functioning

Emotional Role

Mental Health

82
Q

This rise in heart rate from rest is safe, except when the client is on this medication?

A

20-30 BPM

Except when on Beta Blockers

83
Q

This refers to a group of diseases that cause airflow blockage and breathing related problems

A

Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)

84
Q

True or False: COPD is the 2nd leasing cause of death in the US.

A

False: COPD is the 4th leading cause of death in the US

85
Q

What are the 3 diseases that are classified as COPD?

A

Emphysema

Chronic Bronchitis

Asthma

86
Q

What is the number one factor that contributes to the development and progression of COPD? What other factors contribute?

A

Tobacco is the number one factor.

Other factors are asthma, air pollutants and respiratory infections.

87
Q

This term refers to shortness of breath?

A

Dyspnea

88
Q

This term refers to rapid breathing?

A

Tachypnea

89
Q

This disease of COPD is characterized by the progressive and irreversible destruction of the alveoli walls which cause lungs to lose elasticity.

A

Emphysema

90
Q

This disease of COPD is characterized by the production of excess sputum at least 2 years in a row.

A

Chronic Bronchitis

91
Q

This disease of COPD is characterized by the inflammation of the bronchial tubes causing them to spasm and narrow.

A

Asthma

92
Q

This disease of COPD can also have cardiopulmonary complications such as arrhythmia, heart failure and cardiac arrest?

A

Asthma

93
Q

Give 4 examples of OT interventions that are used with someone with COPD?

A

Breathing Techniques

Energy Simplification

Stress Management

ADL Training

Conditions II (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions