Quiz Review: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 Flashcards

1
Q

Beta 1 adrenergic receptors are linked to which G-protein:

A

-Gs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which is the following is the main mechanism of signal termination for norepinephrine:

A

Presynaptic reuptake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which medication has the highest risk of developing tachyarrhythmias?

A

-Epinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

To reduce the risk of toxicity with nitroprusside, which medication may be added to the same bag for prevention:

A

-sodium thiosulfate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which medication is safest to reduce blood pressure for patients with coronary artery disease?

A

nitroglycerine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

-When deciding between phenylephrine and ephedrine for a pregnant patient, which parameter should be considered:

A

heart rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

T/F: Vasopressin is always preferred over epinephrine due to improved effectiveness during cardiac arrest:

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which medication has the highest risk of agitation or psychosis when given for an extended period of time

A
  • ephedrine

- norepinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Hydralazine predominantly affects which part of the vasculature:

A

Dilates arteries to reduce afterload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which electrolyte is responsible for aiding in Norepinephrine release from its presynaptic vesicle?

A

Calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the main mechanism of ephedrine tachyphylaxis?

A

-Reduced norepinephrine release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Enalaprilat is responsible for blocking the enzyme responsible for which reaction:

A

Angiotensin1 to angiotensin 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which of the following would be the least safe to give to a pregnant patient:

A

enalaprilat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Midazolam is a CYP3A4 substrate. Diltiazem is a CYP3A4 inhibitor. What reaction may happen when given together:

A

Over sedation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

If dexmedetomidine is given as a rapid bolus, what cardiovascular side effects are possible:

A

-hypertension and bradycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which electrolyte needs to be monitored closely when a patient is taking an ACE inhibitor?

A

-Potassium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which pharmacokinetic parameter is responsible for esmolol’s short duration of action metabolim:

A

Metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which beta blocker has the highest risk of side effects due to its extended mechanism of action?

A

Labetalol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which beta blocker could possibly exacerbate bronchospasms:

A

-Propranolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When organ damage is caused by accelerate hypertension, it is important to correct the blood pressure as quickly as possible to avoid further damage:

A

FALSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which of the follwoing does not need to be tapered to avoid withdrawal symptoms:

A

Nicardipine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which of the following is the most potent negative inotrope?

A

Verapamil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A patient experiencing clonidine withdrawal may have all of the following side effects except:

A

bradycardia

24
Q

Which electrolyte abnormality greatly increases the risk of developing digoxin toxicity:

A

hypokalemia

25
Increasing heart rate puts a patient at risk of developing arrhythmias. which of the following has the highest risk of arrhythmia developement:
Isoproterenol
26
Which lab value should be monitored closely after administration of a phosphodiesterase inhibitor:
Platelets
27
Which type of arrhythmia is the most frequent cause of death from digoxin toxicity:
Ventricular fibrillation
28
What may be present on EKG when a patient is taking digoxin to suggest digoxin therapy, not toxicity:
Swooping ST segment
29
According to the ALARM-AF trial, the use of inotropes has the possibility of increasing in hispital mortality.
TRUE
30
Which receptor does dobutamine not effect:
Dopamine
31
Which medication mmay potentially depress the ventilatory response to hypoemia due to it's interaction with the carotid bodies:
Dopamine
32
What is the general principle of the Frank Starling Curve:
Stroke volume increases with End diastolic Volume
33
At high doses, which medication predominantly have alpha 1 effects:
- Norepinephrine - Dopamine - Epinephrine
34
Phase 0 of the action potential is effected by which electrolyte AND which class of antiarrhythmic:
- Sodium | - Class1
35
Reentry type arrhythmias are regulated predominantly by which electrolyte?
Sodium
36
Torsades de Pointes (TdP) may be exacerbated by which electrolyte abnormality?
-Hypomagnesemia
37
Which medication would be inappropriate for the treatment of atrial fibrillation?
-Lidocaine
38
Which class of medication carries the highest proarrhythmic risk:
1c
39
Lidocaine is classified as which type of antiarrhythmic:
1b
40
A patient with Lupus should avoid which antiarrhytmic if possible, due to exacerbation of the condition?
Procainamide
41
Adenosine produces an arrhythmia to stop an arrhythmia. What is seen on EKG after a dose of adenosine:
Third degree heart block
42
Amiodarone has several significant side effects. Which of the following would not be caused by amiodarone?
Acute kidney failure and electrolyte abnormalities
43
Verapamil will exacerbate an arrhythmia that has a re-entry mechanism?
True
44
Which of the following medication may precipitate TdP?
Amiodarone
45
Which adenosine receptor is primarily found in the cardiomyocytes:
A1
46
Which of the following medications inhibits both bound and unbound clotting factors?
Alteplase
47
Which ADP inhibitor only needs to be held 5 days prior to a procedure due to it's reversible mechanism of action:
-Ticagrelor
48
Which clotting factor combines the intrinsic and extinsic pathways to inititae the common pathway, and is also a drug target for several medication s, including warfarin, heparin, and enoxaparin
Xa
49
A pregnant patient with a DVT may use which medication:
Enoxaparin
50
A patient with a history of heparin induced thrombocytopenia may safely use which medication in the future for anticoagulation:
Bivaludin
51
Which new oral medication has a similar mechanism of action to argatroban?
-Dabigatran
52
Which of the following medications has the longest hold time prior to surgery:
-Clopidogrel
53
Heparin induced thrombocytopenia occurs how soon after initiation of the medciation in a heparin naive patient :
1 to 2 weeks
54
Which of the following reaction is inhibited by amicar
Plasminogen to plasmin
55
Which new anticoagulant has recommendation for discontinuation prior to surgery based on the patient's kidney function?
Dabigatran`
56
Which clotting factors are inhibited by Warfarin
- 2 - 7 - 9 - 10