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1
Q

What is the definition of behavior?

A

An action that can be observed, measured, and modified.

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2
Q

What stage of change is someone in if they are engaging in a new behavior and have been doing so for less than six months?

A

Action

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3
Q

What stage of change is someone in if they are in denial or ignorant to the fact that a change may be necessary?

A

Pre-contemplation

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4
Q

What type of motivation is driven by personal enjoyment and satisfaction?

A

Intrinsic motivation

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5
Q

Which psychological need in the Self-Determination Theory (SDT) is described as the basic need to feel in control of one’s own behavior and goals?

A

Autonomy

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6
Q

Which of the following is an example of an open-ended question?

A

“How did you first notice that you were gaining weight?”

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7
Q

What type of goal is focused on the necessary steps to achieve it?

A

Process goal

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8
Q

What does the ‘A’ in SMART goals stand for?

A

Achievable

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9
Q

What type of goal is open to interpretation by the client as opposed to being supported by measurable data?

A

A subjective goal

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10
Q

When communicating with clients, what type of communication must be constructive and effective to improve competence?

A

Feedback

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11
Q

Which human organ systems are responsible for human movement?

A

The Nervous System, Muscular System, and Skeletal System

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12
Q

Which classification of neurons initiate muscle contraction and activate glands?

A

Motor neurons

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13
Q

What is the peripheral nervous system (PNS) responsible for?

A

Conveying motor commands, carrying sensory information to the CNS, and regulating involuntary functions

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14
Q

Where in the brain does most information processing occur?

A

Cerebral Cortex

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15
Q

Which type of muscle is the most common in the human body?

A

Skeletal muscle

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16
Q

Which type of muscle fiber derives its energy primarily from aerobic energy pathways?

A

Type I muscle fibers

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17
Q

Which of the following is included in the appendicular skeleton?

A

Shoulder girdle

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18
Q

Which type of bone supports the weight of the body and facilitates movement?

A

Long bones

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19
Q

What does the Golgi tendon organ detect and respond to in the muscle?

A

Changes in muscle tension

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20
Q

The anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) and posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) are examples of what type of ligament?

A

Intrinsic ligaments

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21
Q

The heart and blood vessels are the components of which human organ system?

A

The Circulatory System

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22
Q

Blood vessels are comprised of which type of muscle tissue?

A

Smooth muscle

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23
Q

Which blood vessels carry blood away from the heart?

A

Arteries

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24
Q

Which heart chamber receives deoxygenated blood from the body?

A

Right atrium

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25
During the cardiac cycle, what is the name of the contraction phase of the heartbeat?
Systole
26
During exercise, which organ system regulates fluid volume and pressure in body tissues?
The Lymphatic System
27
What is the process of external respiration?
The exchange of gases between the lungs and the blood in the lungs
28
Which endocrine hormone promotes the breakdown of protein in muscle cells?
Cortisol
29
Which of the following is an effect of long-term cortisol elevation in the body?
Increases appetite
30
Which component of the digestive system performs both mechanical digestion and chemical digestion?
The mouth
31
What anatomical term is described as a position closer to the center of the body relative to a reference point?
Proximal
32
Which anatomical term refers to a movement that increases the angle between two body parts?
Extension
33
Which anatomical plane divides the body into left and right halves?
Sagittal plane
34
Which of the following joints should have more mobility?
Cervical spine
35
A medicine ball rolling across the floor is an example of what type of friction?
Rolling friction
36
Which of the following is a muscle of the shoulder?
Subscapularis
37
Which three muscles make up the erector spinae group?
Spinalis, Longissimus, and Iliocostalis
38
What is the muscle action of the rectus femoris?
Flexion of the hip and extension of the knee
39
What is the most superficial muscle of the posterior calf?
Gastrocnemius
40
What is the largest muscle of the chest?
Pectoralis major
41
42
Where in the cell do the Krebs cycle and electron transport chain occur?
Mitochondria
43
What two values are required to calculate the respiratory quotient (RQ)?
Volume of carbon dioxide exhaled, and volume of oxygen inhaled
44
What is the respiratory quotient (RQ) for carbohydrates?
1.0
45
Which energy pathway is dominant for activity generally lasting 10 seconds to 2 minutes?
Anaerobic glycolysis
46
What is the primary by-product of anaerobic glycolysis?
Lactic acid
47
What is the point at which the body switches from metabolism requiring oxygen to primarily anaerobic metabolism called?
Lactate threshold
48
The Krebs cycle and electron transport chain are steps in which energy pathway?
Oxidative energy pathway
49
How many Calories (Cal) per gram are in fat?
9 Cal
50
The Harris-Benedict equation incorporates the resting metabolic rate and an activity level factor to determine what metabolic information?
Daily calorie expenditure (DCE)
51
What is the general recommendation for a daily calorie deficit for someone working to lose bodyfat?
200 to 500 Calories
52
What type of client assessments are based on observations and opinions?
Subjective assessments
53
What document should a personal trainer collect from a client to show they are ready to begin an exercise program and explain any restrictions or limitations they have?
Physician's letter of clearance
54
What does body composition measure?
Fat mass and lean body mass
55
What is the average bodyfat percentage for males?
17 to 25 percent
56
What type of muscular assessment is the push-up test?
Muscular endurance assessment
57
From bottom to top, what are the six kinetic chain checkpoints?
Foot and ankle, knee, hips, spine, shoulders, neck and head
58
Which spinal deviation is characterized by the excessive curvature of the thoracic spine?
Kyphosis
59
What postural and movement deviation occurs when the knees excessively bow outward away from the midline?
Knee varus
60
During the overhead squat assessment, which of the following muscles is likely underactive (weak) if the heels elevate?
Soleus
61
During the squat or overhead squat assessment, which of the following muscles are likely overactive (tight) if knee valgus occurs?
Adductors
62
Which of the five components of fitness is described as the physical makeup of the body considering fat mass and lean mass?
Body composition
63
Which of the following is a known benefit of improving muscular strength?
Increases bone density
64
What type of warm-up is simple and aims to increase blood flow, respiration, body temperature, and neural activation of major muscle groups?
General warm-up
65
Which element of a fitness program trains the body to be explosive, fast, and agile?
Reactive training
66
What is the definition of agility as it relates to the element of reactive training?
The ability to accelerate, decelerate, stabilize, and change direction with proper posture
67
What type of cardiorespiratory training is performed at a fixed level of exertion?
Steady-state exercise
68
Which of the following is a known benefit of interval training?
Strengthening of the left ventricle of the heart
69
Which of the five components of fitness is described as the measure of force produced by a muscle or group of muscles?
Muscular strength
70
Which of the following is a measure commonly used to determine the intensity of cardiorespiratory exercise?
Rate of perceived exertion (RPE)
71
Which of the following is an adaptation from plyometric exercise?
Increased muscle size
72
In fitness, what do acute training variables determine?
How an exercise or training program is performed
73
Which acute training variable is the equipment, methods, or technique used to complete an activity?
Type
74
The load used for a resistance training exercise is most closely related to which acute training variable?
Intensity
75
A training intensity of 67 percent or less is most closely related to which training adaptation?
Muscular endurance
76
For the training adaptation of muscle hypertrophy, what is the recommended number of repetitions per set?
6 to 12 repetitions
77
What does the 'F' in the FITT Principle stand for?
Frequency
78
Which principle of fitness states that acute training variables must be changed periodically to prevent plateaus, injuries, and boredom?
Principle of variability
79
What is the final stage of the General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS)?
Exhaustion
80
Resistance training is included in which category of training?
Strength training
81
What condition is the result of the accumulation of stress from both training and non-training activities resulting in short-term decreases in performance?
Overreaching

Issa Quiz Cards (1 decks)

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