Quizes Exam 3 Flashcards
(29 cards)
An epiphyseal plate fracture directed along the entire width of the physis (slipped epiphysis) in a young animal would be classified as a:
a. Salter Type I
type II is along physis and into metaphysis
type III is along physis and through epiphyseal plae into the joint
type IV is across physis, metaphysis, and through epiphysis
type V is compression/crushing injury to epiphyseal palte w/o displacement
- A fractured long bone that had 4 pieces and an external wound that communicated with the fracture site would be classified as open and comminuted
a. True
- The expected fracture pattern in a long bone subjected to a pure compression force would be:
a. Oblique- compression
comminuted- bending
spiral oblique- torsion
avulsion fracture- tension at point of muscel attachement
- A comminuted fracture requires the applied implant to function in which mode?
a. Buttress
- Surgical incision into the abdomen is termed a celiotomy.
a. True
- When performing a caudal abdominal in the male dog, it is necessary to ligate which vessels?
a. Caudal superficial epigastric vessels
- Failure to reappose which muscle with suture may lead to misalignment of the prepuce following a caudal approach to the abdomen in the male dog?
a. Prepultialis m.
- Which muscle is exposed if you stray off of the center of the linea alba?
a. Rectus abdominus m.
- Which abdominal layer has the greatest suture holding strength?
a. External leaf of the rectus sheath
- Even if done properly, closing the linea alba with a simple continuos pattern increases the risk of dehiscence?
a. False
- Which of the following is considered the “gold standard’ for bone grafts because it functions in all aspects of bone regeneration?
a. Cancellous bone autograft
- The preferred method to diagnosis the causative organism of osteomyelitis is to swab the draining tract and streak it on blood agar.
a. False
- A study done here at Iowa State demonstrated that swimming resulted in a greater range of motion in the stifle and tarsus in the dog than did walking.
a. True
- What are the benefits of post operative rehabilitation following orthopedic surgery?
a. Increase range of motion
b. Improved cartilage nutrition
c. Decreased adhesions and periarticular fibrosis
d. All of the above
- Which of the following procedures could not be performed using laparoscopy at this time?
a. Gastrotomy
- In evaluating a synovial aspirate for possible septic arthritis, if only a small amount of fluid is obtained, the first priority is to:
a. Perform a direct smear
- Following an acute injury, it is almost always a good idea to apply local hypothermia (cryotherapy) for the first _____ hours.
a. 72
- What procedure does NOT rely on triangulation to perform necessary tasks?
a. Endoscopy
- The gas most commonly used to produce pneumoperitoneum during laparoscopy is _________.
a. Carbon dioxide
- What is the name of this splint?
a. Kimzey leg saver splint
- In the secondary bone healing with callus formation, the most favorable mechanical environment for bone formation is:
a. Tension
- An autogenous cancellous bone graft can be collected for all of the bones listed except the:
a. Proximal humerus
b. Mid-diaphysis of the radius
c. Proximal tibia
d. Rib
b. Mid-diaphysis of the radius
- This fracture healing can be best characterized as:
picture of leg w/ screws/rod
a. Secondary bone healing
- To adequately stabilize a limb fracture for transport, it is important to try to immobilize the joint above and below the fracture
a. True
