Quizzes Flashcards
(111 cards)
1
Q
In the Medical Symptom Questionnaire or MSQ, a red flag would be any number equal to or higher than
A
30
2
Q
Based on the new (not old) functional medicine tree, the core clinical imbalances that must be restored are
A
Assimilation (Digestive, absorptive, and microbiological imbalances)
Defense and Repair (Immune and inflammatory imbalances)
Energy (Oxidation-reduction imbalances and mitochondropathy)
Biotransformation and Elimination (Detoxification)
Communication (Hormonal and neurotransmitter imbalances)
Transport (Circulatory)
Structural integrity (Imbalances from cellular membrane function to the musculoskeletal system)
3
Q
True or False? According to the Textbook of Functional Medicine, low-carbohydrate, low-fat diets should be recommended to everyone.
A
False
4
Q
On the bottom section of the FM matrix, there is a list of Modifiable Personal Lifestyle Factors. In this section, the FM practitioner would write
Select one:
a.
The current and modifiable lifestyle factors of the patient
b.
The past and modifiable lifestyle factors of the patient
c.
The recommended lifestyle interventions
d.
All of them
e.
None of them
A
The current and modifiable lifestyle factors of the patient
5
Q
True or False? According to the Textbook of Functional Medicine, millions of variations of genes, called single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs), exist within the gene pool.
A
True
6
Q
FM questionnaires are important tools to assess patient symptoms and concerns. Which forms does the patient complete?
A
MSQ Diet, nutrition, lifestyle journal Stress questionnaire Toxin exposure questionnaire Sleep questionnaire
7
Q
The ABCDs of the Functional Medicine Evaluation includes which of the following?
A
Anthropometrics (e.g., weight, height, blood pressure, temperature, etc.)
Clinical indicators (e.g., vision, smell, skin appearance, hair distribution, etc.)
Diet and lifestyle assessments (e.g., toxin exposure, exercise, diet and nutrition, etc.)
Biomarkers and labs (e.g., protein, fats, carbohydrates, minerals, vitamins, and phytonutrients)
8
Q
Take a look at the Phytonutrient Spectrum Foods handout. To incorporate more phytonutrients, functional medicine recommends a minimum daily servings of whole plant foods. How much?
A
9-13
9
Q
By definition, phytonutrients can be obtained from
A
Fruits, Herbs, Spices, Vegetables, Nuts, Legumes, Whole grains, Seeds
10
Q
One of the most important goals of functional medicine is to
Select one:
a.
Restore balance in the patient’s environment, lifestyle, and physiological processes
b.
Diagnose the condition or disease
c.
Match the diagnosis with the correct DOSE of a pharmaceutical drug
d.
Match the diagnosis with the correct FORM of a pharmaceutical drug
e.
Match the diagnosis with the correct TYPE of pharmaceutical drug
f.
c, d, and e
A
Restore balance in the patient’s environment, lifestyle, and physiological processes
11
Q
The tendency of organisms to maintain stability/balance is called _______.
A
Homeostasis
12
Q
By definition, SNPs need to occur in at least _________ of the population.
A
1%
13
Q
Principles of functional medicine include the following (please choose ALL that apply).
There will be a 10% penalty for each incorrect answer.
Select one or more:
a.
The understanding of the biochemical individuality of each patient
b.
The realization that FM is science-based
c.
The importance of a disease-centered approach
d.
The search for a dynamic balance between external and internal factors in a patient’s body, mind, and spirit
e.
The understanding that body systems and organs are unique and separate from each other
f.
The definition of health as simply the absence of disease
g.
The promotion of organ reserve to enhance health and lifespan
A
a.
The understanding of the biochemical individuality of each patient
d.
The search for a dynamic balance between external and internal factors in a patient’s body, mind, and spirit
g.
The promotion of organ reserve to enhance health and lifespan
14
Q
T/F. All SNPs cause deleterious effects.
A
False
15
Q
Which two of the following statements apply to the field of epigenetics?*
Select one or more:
a.
Comprises some “omic” fields, e.g., pharmacogenomics, nutrigenomics, proteomic, metabolomics, etc.
b.
Characterized by single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs), which occur in 10% of the population
c.
Characterized by single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs), which occur in 1% of the population
d.
Characterized by single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs), which occur in 0.1% of the population
e.
Defined as changes in gene expression caused by mechanisms other than changes in the underlying DNA sequence (e.g., via DNA methylation)
A
a.
Comprises some “omic” fields, e.g., pharmacogenomics, nutrigenomics, proteomic, metabolomics, etc.
e.
Defined as changes in gene expression caused by mechanisms other than changes in the underlying DNA sequence (e.g., via DNA methylation)
16
Q
The most important congenital antecedent of illness is one’s:
Select one:
a.
Genetic heritage
b.
Gender
c.
Family history
d.
Age
e.
Nutritional status
A
B. Gender
17
Q
True or False? The current dietary reference intakes (DRIs) recommend variable amounts of nutrients needed by a polymorphic population for optimal health.
A
False
18
Q
The process or mechanism by which organisms achieve stability/balance is called _______.
A
Allostasis
19
Q
As explained in the polymorphisms handout, there are several types of polymorphisms or changes in the DNA sequence. For example, mutations, deletions, insertions, inversions, and duplications. These are all different types of polymorphisms.
Within the family of polymorphisms, SNPs are examples of
Select one:
a.
Mutations
b.
Deletions
c.
Insertions
d.
Inversions
e.
Duplications
A
a.
Mutations
20
Q
the most important developmental antecedent of illness is one’s
Select one:
a.
Genetic heritage
b.
Gender
c.
Family history
d.
Age
e.
Nutritional status
A
d.
Age
21
Q
Define homeostasis
A
Tendency of organisms to maintain stability/balance
22
Q
Define homeostatic load
A
-
23
Q
Define homeodynamics
A
-
24
Q
Define allostasis
A
The process or mechanism by which organisms achieve stability/balance
25
Define allostasic load
-
26
The 6 principles of func med
1- An understanding of the biochemical individuality of each patient.
2- The search for a dynamic balance between external and internal factors in a patient’s body, mind, and spirit.
3- The web-like interconnectedness of the human body, mind, and spirit.
4- The definition of health as positive vitality (not simply the absence of disease).
5- The promotion of organ reserve to enhance health span and life span.
6-
27
In functional medicine, health signifies full function of the body, mind, and spirit, not just the absence of disease. This concept, which was derived from the World Health Organization, is the essence of which principle of functional medicine?
Select one:
a.
Biochemical individuality
b.
Patient-centered approach
c.
Homeostasis
d.
Web-like interconnections
e.
Health as a positive vitality
f.
Promotion of organ reserve
e.
| Health as a positive vitality
28
The statement "The difference between the maximal function of a vital organ and the level of function required to maintain an individual’s daily life" corresponds to which principle of functional medicine?
Select one:
a.
An understanding of the biochemical individuality of each patient.
b.
The importance of patient-centered approach to care as opposed to a disease-centered approach.
c.
The search for a dynamic balance between external and internal factors in a patient’s body, mind, and spirit.
d.
The web-like interconnectedness of the human body, mind, and spirit.
e.
The definition of health as positive vitality (not simply the absence of disease).
f.
Promotion of organ reserve to enhance health span and life span.
f.
| Promotion of organ reserve to enhance health span and life span.
29
The statement "Core imbalances can influence many different body functions and systems (e.g., circulatory, respiratory, digestive, endocrine, immune, lymphatic, muscular, nervous, reproductive, respiratory, skeletal, and urinary)" corresponds to which principle of functional medicine?
Select one:
a.
An understanding of the biochemical individuality of each patient.
b.
The importance of patient-centered approach to care as opposed to a disease-centered approach.
c.
The search for a dynamic balance between external and internal factors in a patient’s body, mind, and spirit.
d.
The web-like interconnectedness of the human body, mind, and spirit.
e.
The definition of health as positive vitality (not simply the absence of disease).
f.
Promotion of organ reserve to enhance health span and life span.
d.
| The web-like interconnectedness of the human body, mind, and spirit.
30
In a patient, one core imbalance is contributing to a plethora of disorders that are affecting multiple body systems. This captures the essence of which principle of functional medicine?
Select one:
a.
An understanding of the biochemical individuality of each patient.
b.
The importance of patient-centered approach to care as opposed to a disease-centered approach.
c.
The search for a dynamic balance between external and internal factors in a patient’s body, mind, and spirit.
d.
The web-like interconnectedness of the human body, mind, and spirit.
e.
The definition of health as positive vitality (not simply the absence of disease).
f.
Promotion of organ reserve to enhance health span and life span.
d.
| The web-like interconnectedness of the human body, mind, and spirit.
31
Biochemical therapies are defined as the correction of innate or acquired chemical imbalances using amino acids, vitamins, minerals, and other biochemicals naturally present in the body.
Which of the following are biochemical therapies?
Select one or more:
a.
Acupuncture
b.
Intentional relaxation
c.
Massage
d.
Meditation
e.
Moxibustion
f.
Spinal manipulation
g.
Yoga
h.
None of these are biochemical therapies
h.
| None of these are biochemical therapies
32
The statement "The Fries hypothesis holds that chronic illness can be postponed by changes in lifestyle and that morbidity can be compressed into a much shorter period close to the time of death (i.e., the rectangularization of the morbidity curve)" corresponds to which principle of functional medicine?
Select one:
a.
An understanding of the biochemical individuality of each patient.
b.
The importance of patient-centered approach to care as opposed to a disease-centered approach.
c.
The search for a dynamic balance between external and internal factors in a patient’s body, mind, and spirit.
d.
The web-like interconnectedness of the human body, mind, and spirit.
e.
The definition of health as positive vitality (not simply the absence of disease).
f.
Promotion of organ reserve to enhance health span and life span.
f.
| Promotion of organ reserve to enhance health span and life span.
33
True or false? Genetic uniqueness may cause an individual to require 100 times as much of a particular vitamin, mineral, or accessory nutrient as another individual for good health.
True
34
Which are the organs most significantly affected to changes in organ reserve as a result of age?
Select one or more:
a.
bones
b.
muscles
c.
heart
d.
pancreas
e.
liver
f.
kidneys
g.
spleen
h.
lungs
i.
small and large intestines
Heart
Kidneys
Lungs
35
T/F. In developed countries, we have entered a transition where causes of death are less associated with degenerative and age-related causes and more associated with infectious diseases and accidental death.
False
36
smokers in the contemplation stage can be given three choices to progress to the preparation stage (please choose THREE [3] answers)*:
*There will be a 10% penalty for each incorrect answer.
Select one or more:
a.
Quit for 24 hours in the next month
b.
Delay the first cigarette by an extra 30 minutes
c.
Discard all types of cigarettes immediately
d.
Stop smoking forever
e.
Reduce the number of cigarettes they smoke by three or four
Quit for 24 hours in the next month
Delay the first cigarette by an extra 30 minutes
Reduce the number of cigarettes they smoke by three or four
37
```
The type(s) or degree(s) of rapport not recommended to FM practitioners as they establish a connection with the patient is/are ____________ .
Please choose all that apply
```
Select one or more:
a.
Romantic
b.
Warm; good/best friends
c.
Understanding; empathy
d.
Cool
e.
Intolerant
Romantic
Warm; good/best friends
Cool
Intolerant
38
A patient plans on beginning an exercise routine in the next month, when he stops traveling so much. This patient is in which motivation stage?
Select one:
a.
Pre-contemplation
b.
Contemplation
c.
Preparation
d.
Action
e.
Maintenance
c.
| Preparation
39
Healing language encompasses which of the following? Please choose ALL that apply.
Select one or more:
a.
Self-empowerment
b.
Direction
c.
Motivation
d.
Feedback
e.
All of the above
All of the above
40
T/F. According to the Textbook of Functional Medicine, people can change their emotional state simply by changing their focus of attention and remembering a pleasant past experience.
True
41
T/F. Re-telling the story that the patient told the FM practitioner is a step in the GO TO IT.
True
42
The GATHER phase of the GO TO IT can be facilitated by forms, such as ____________ (please choose ALL that apply). Hint - think of forms that would help the FM practitioner when they are gathering information from the patient.
Select one or more:
a.
Toxin Exposure Questionnaire
b.
Life Stress Questionnaire
c.
3-Day Diet Diary/Record
d.
Environmental Sensitivity Questionnaire
e.
Medical Symptoms Questionnaire
f.
All of the above
f.
| All of the above
43
While doing mindfulness meditation, one should mainly focus on what aspect?
The breath
44
The statement "an ongoing process of helping patients feel comfortable in the clinical setting by adjusting some aspect of your external behavior through mirroring and matching key elements of the patient’s physiology, tonality, and words" defines which concept?
Select one:
a.
Rapport
b.
Pacing
c.
Self-efficacy
b.
| Pacing
45
According to the Textbook of Functional Medicine, there are different "levels" of functionality that FM practitioners can assess/evaluate before initiating an intervention. What are those levels? Please choose ALL that apply.
Select one or more:
a.
whole-body (the “macro” level)
b.
organ system
c.
metabolic/cellular
d.
subcellular/mitochondrial
e.
subcellular/gene expression
f.
all of the above
f.
| all of the above
46
T/F. Air pollution affects adults more than the young.
False
47
What dietary recommendations can be provided to minimize the causes of insulting resistance (IR)?
Select one or more:
a.
Eliminate junk food and processed foods
b.
Eliminate refined flours and sugars
c.
Eliminate sodas and sweetened drinks
d.
Eliminate trans or hydrogenated fats
e.
Limit caffeine
f.
Limit consumption of beans, lentils, peanuts, and soybeans
g.
Replace protein and fat in meals/snacks with carbohydrates
a.
Eliminate junk food and processed foods
b.
Eliminate refined flours and sugars
c.
Eliminate sodas and sweetened drinks
d.
Eliminate trans or hydrogenated fats
e.
Limit caffeine
48
what are some of the health benefits of physical exercise?
A. Improves mood & combats depression, anxiety, and stress
b.
Boosts energy
c.
Improves brain health
d.
Controls BMI
e.
Combats several health conditions
All of them
49
Which of the following essential fatty acids can lower cardiovascular risk and have anti-inflammatory potential (i.e., both conditions apply)? Please choose ALL that apply.
Select one or more:
a.
α-Linolenic acid
b.
Linoleic acid
c.
DHA
d.
EPA
e.
Arachidonic acid
a.
α-Linolenic acid
c.
DHA
d.
EPA
50
```
Which two (2) of the following is NOT a characteristic of a healthy diet?
Select one or more:
```
a.
Rich in fruits, vegetables, nuts, seeds, and legumes
b.
High in fiber, essential fatty acids, and nutrients
c.
Low in saturated fat, trans fat, and refined sugars
```
d.
Low pH (acidic)
```
e.
High sodium-to-potassium ratio
```
d.
Low pH (acidic)
```
e.
High sodium-to-potassium ratio
51
T/F. People with celiac disease or gluten sensitivity can consume moderate amounts of any oat product.
False
52
Which are the primary health-promoting characteristics of the Mediterranean diet?
Select one or more:
a.
Foods rich in monounsaturated and polyunsaturated fat
b.
Foods rich in saturated, monounsaturated, and polyunsaturated fat
c.
Carbohydrates that are highly unrefined, fiber-rich, and phytonutrient rich
d.
Low ratio of omega-6 to omega-3 fatty acids
e.
High ratio of omega-6 to omega-3 fatty acids
f.
Abundant fruits, vegetables, and nuts
g.
Olive oil
Foods rich in monounsaturated and polyunsaturated fat
Carbohydrates that are highly unrefined, fiber-rich, and phytonutrient rich
Low ratio of omega-6 to omega-3 fatty acids
Abundant fruits, vegetables, and nuts
Olive oil
53
In the "old" and "new" functional medicine tree (the graphical representation that IFM uses), the root causes of disease are shown/depicted here.
The roots
54
Lipophilic xenobiotics are _________; therefore, they tend to get stored mostly in the __________.
Select one:
a.
Water soluble; liver
b.
Fat soluble; liver
c.
Water soluble; muscles
d.
Fat soluble; muscles
e.
Water soluble; adrenal glands
f.
Fat soluble; adrenal glands
g.
Fat soluble; adipose tissue
h.
Water soluble; adipose tissue
g.
| Fat soluble; adipose tissue
55
Based on the lecture recording and handouts, which four (4) of the following are possible side effects of lack of sleep?*
*There will be a 10% penalty for each incorrect answer.
Select one or more:
a.
Increased insulin levels
b.
Decreased insulin levels
c.
Increased leptin levels
d.
Decreased leptin levels
e.
Increased BMI
f.
Decreased BMI
g.
Increased CVD risk
h.
Decreased CVD risk
Increased insulin levels
Decreased leptin levels
Increased BMI
Increased CVD risk
56
Lack of HCL production in the stomach may contribute to (please choose ALL that apply).
Select one or more:
a.
Infections
b.
Reduced protein digestion
c.
Reduced vitamin B12 absorption from foods (e.g., eggs, liver, fish, beef, turkey)
d.
Reduced vitamin B12 absorption from supplemental B12 (i.e., obtained from dietary supplements)
e.
Reduced mineral absorption
EVERYTHING EXCEPT REDUCED VIT B12 ABSORPTION
a.
Infections
b.
Reduced protein digestion
c.
Reduced vitamin B12 absorption from foods (e.g., eggs, liver, fish, beef, turkey)
e.
Reduced mineral absorption
57
Among all interventions, this intervention, which includes an elimination/removal step among others, is the most thorough/complete for assimilation imbalances.
Select one:
a.
The oligoantigenic diet
b.
The elimination diet
c.
The Mediterranean diet
d.
The Detoxification diet
e.
The 4R or 5R program
f.
The Paleo diet
g.
The Cardiometabolic diet
e.
| The 4R or 5R program
58
T/F. Leaky gut should be suspected in cases of multiple food allergies and when a patient initially improves then regresses on an elimination diet.
True
59
T/F. Digestion and absorption are under tight regulatory control involving both the neuronal and hormonal systems.
True
60
The Heidelberg test is a method of assessing
Select one:
a.
Intestinal permeability
b.
Intestinal function
c.
Gastric acid secretion
d.
GI inflammation/infection
e.
Food allergies
c.
| Gastric acid secretion
61
What are the functions or roles of the gastrointestinal tract?
Digestion and absorption
Protection and defense
Waste elimination
62
This laboratory result would be indicative of increased intestinal permeability:
Select one:
a.
High calprotectin levels in feces
b.
High calprotectin levels in urine
c.
High eosinophil protein X levels in feces
d.
High eosinophil protein X levels in urine
e.
High lactulose levels in feces
f.
High lactulose levels in urine
g.
High lactoferrin levels in feces
h.
High lactoferrin levels in urine
i.
High fat levels in feces
f.
| High lactulose levels in urine
63
The statement "a preparation of or a product containing viable, defined microorganisms in sufficient numbers, which alter microflora in a compartment of the host and by that exert beneficial health effects on the host" is the definition of which concept?
Select one:
a.
Probiotic
b.
Prebiotic
c.
Synbiotic (synergistic type)
d.
Synbiotic (complementary type)
e.
Dysbiosis
a.
| Probiotic
64
In the gastrointestinal tract, accessory organs include all of the following except ____________.
Select one:
a.
Liver
b.
Spleen
c.
Gallbladder
d.
Pancreas
b.
| Spleen
65
Micronutrients (vitamins and minerals) do not require any digestion. However, because some dietary vitamins and minerals are bound to proteins, protein digestion is necessary to release these micronutrients. On the other hand, macronutrients require enzymatic digestion. Carbohydrate (enzymatic) digestion begins in the __________, lipid (enzymatic) digestion begins in the _________, and protein (enzymatic) digestion begins in the ___________.
Select one:
a.
Mouth; mouth; mouth
b.
Stomach; mouth; mouth
c.
Mouth; stomach; mouth
d.
Mouth; mouth; stomach
e.
Stomach; stomach; stomach
d.
| Mouth; mouth; stomach
66
Define tumor
Swelling
67
Define rubor
Erythema “redness, arising from increased local blood flow due to vasodilatation"
68
Define calor
Heat
69
Define dolor
Pain
70
Assessment methods of inflammation include
Please choose ALL that apply.
Select one or more:
a.
Immune panels
b.
Physical examination of the patient
c.
Measurement of the arachidonic acid-to-eicosapentaenoic acid ratio
d.
Determination of the erythrocyte sedimentation rate
All of them
71
T/F. All omega-6 fatty acids are exclusively pro-inflammatory.
False
72
Inflammation is a normal response to trauma or infection. When balanced, the process is self-limited and beneficial. This defines _____________.
However, when systemic imbalances lead to loss of regulatory control, the process can become destructive and self-perpetuating. This defines __________.
Acute inflammation ; chronic inflammation
73
EPA inhibits the enzyme that catalyzes the synthesis of
Select one:
a.
DHA
b.
AA (arachidonic acid)
c.
DGLA
d.
GLA
e.
LA (linoleic acid)
f.
ALA (alpha-linolenic acid)
g.
CLA
h.
Trans fatty acids
i.
Saturated fatty acids
b.
| AA (arachidonic acid)
74
T/F. C-reactive protein (CRP), a classic acute-phase reactant, has been of interest as a predictive indicator of cardiovascular risk.
True
75
Which of the following contribute to an inflammatory lifestyle? Please choose ALL that apply.*
Select one or more:
a.
Food allergens
b.
Insufficient fiber
c.
Vitamin D deficiency
d.
Emotional stress and toxic relationships
e.
Adequate exercise
Everything except E.
76
To increase the synthesis of anti-inflammatory compounds, supplementation with GLA should be accompanied by
Select one:
```
a.
Arachidonic acid (AA)
```
b.
EPA
c.
DHA
d.
CLA
e.
Alpha-linolenic acid (ALA)
f.
None, i.e., GLA should be consumed alone
g.
All
b.
| EPA
77
Evidence suggests that while BOTH immune systems are involved, chronic inflammation seems to be MORE attributed to an overstimulated _____ system. In this system, _____ participate.
Innate; monocytes + granulocytes
78
According to the patient handout, which of the following are characteristic of an anti-inflammatory diet? Please choose ALL that apply.*
*There will be a 10% penalty for each incorrect answer.
Select one or more:
a.
Choose whole grain carbohydrates and limit the portion sizes.
b.
Include anti-inflammatory herbs and spices such as garlic, turmeric, rosemary, ginger, oregano, cumin, and cayenne in the diet.
c.
Increase vegetable and fruit intake (especially vegetables).
d.
Consume ample amounts of omega-6 fatty acids.
e.
Adopt the Okinawan philosophy of “hara hachi bu”- stopping when nearly 8/10 full and paying attention to your hunger and satiety signals.
Everything except D
79
Detoxification can be affected by these factors. Please choose ALL that apply.
Select one or more:
a.
Age and gender
b.
Medications
c.
Genes
d.
Environment
e.
Disease
All of the above
80
Define substrates
-
81
Define xenobiotics
"chemicals or molecules that are foreign to the biological system, originating externally (e.g., from the environment) or internally (e.g., from metabolism)"
82
Define inhibitors
Compound that reduces enzymatic activity
83
Define exotoxins
-
84
Define endotoxins
-
85
Endogenous and exogenous (i.e., dietary) antioxidants are very important because reactive oxygen species (ROS) are generated in the detoxification system. ROS are mostly generated during ______________.
Select one:
a.
Phase I
b.
Phase II
c.
Phase III
d.
None
a.
| Phase I
86
Chelating drugs such as DMSA, EDTA, and DMPS can be used to remove all of the following with the EXCEPTION OF
Select one:
a.
Lead
b.
Mercury
c.
Aluminum
d.
Arsenic
e.
Lipophilic xenobiotics
e.
| Lipophilic xenobiotics
87
Which of the following statements about phase II are true? Please choose ALL that apply.
*There will be a 10% penalty for each incorrect answer.
Select one or more:
a.
Phase II is the conjugation step
b.
Phase II is the biotransformation step
c.
Phase II enzymes remove a group or molecule from the metabolite
d.
Phase II enzymes add a group or molecule to the metabolite
e.
Phase II enzymes belong to the P450 group
f.
The glutathione conjugation reaction converts a toxic acetaminophen metabolite into a LESS toxic compound
A. Phase II is the conjugation step
D. Phase II enzymes add a group or molecule to the metabolite
F. The glutathione conjugation reaction converts a toxic acetaminophen metabolite into a LESS toxic compound
88
Which of the following statements about phase I are true? Please choose ALL that apply.
Select one or more:
a.
Phase I is the conjugation step
b.
Phase I is the biotransformation step
c.
The resulting metabolites from phase I are always less toxic than the original compound
d.
The resulting metabolites from phase I are always more toxic than the original compound
e.
The resulting metabolites from phase I can be either more or less toxic than the original compound
f.
The up-regulation of phase I enzymes relative to phase II enzymes is desirable and contributes to health
B. Phase I is the biotransformation step
E. The resulting metabolites from phase I can be either more or less toxic than the original compound
89
ATP-binding cassette transporters (ABC) or antiporters belong to which phase system?
Select one:
a.
Phase I
b.
Phase II
c.
Phase III
c.
| Phase III
90
T/F. Biotransformation reactions may result in products that are more toxic than the parent compound.
True
91
T/F. Various medications such as SSRIs, macrolide antibiotics, and H2 blockers may induce one or more of the phase I systems.
False
92
Most of the detoxification in the body takes place in the ________.
Select one:
a.
Skin
b.
Intestine
c.
Stomach
d.
GI tract
e.
Liver
f.
Lungs
g.
Spleen
e.
| Liver
93
What lifestyle factors contribute to mitochondrial injury? Please choose ALL that apply.
Select one or more:
a.
Exposure to occupational toxins or xenobiotics
b.
Chronic high stress
c.
Heavy cigarette and alcohol use
```
d.
Poor diet (e.g., fried foods, excess sugar)
```
e.
Excessive sun exposure
All of them
94
What vitamin/compound recycles vitamin E
Vitamin C
95
What vitamin/compound recycles vitamin C
CoQ10
96
Supplementation with this compound may increase mortality in smokers. Presumably, a component of cigarette smoke interacts with this compound to generate particularly harmful by-products in the body
Beta carotene
97
Amongst all antioxidants, the most convincing evidence of a positive effect on diabetic patients has been obtained with this compound
Alpha lipoid acid
98
Administration of PUFAs requires more of this compound
Vitamin E
99
Which of the following laboratory results is indicative of a good antioxidant status and/or low oxidative stress in a patient? Please choose ALL that apply.*
*There will be a 10% penalty for each incorrect answer.
Select one or more:
a.
High levels of cysteine relative to cystine
b.
low levels of cysteine relative to cystine
c.
high levels of GSSG (glutathione disulfide or oxidized glutathione) relative to GSH (reduced glutathione)
d.
low levels of GSSG relative to GSH
```
e.
low GSH (reduced glutathione) levels
```
```
f.
high GSH (reduced glutathione) levels
```
g.
low TBARs test results
h.
high TBARs test results
i.
None
A. High levels of cysteine relative to cystine
D. low levels of GSSG relative to GSH
F. high GSH (reduced glutathione) levels
G. low TBARs test results
100
The metabolic pathway that contributes to significant ROS production is:
Select one:
a.
glycolysis
b.
gluconeogenesis
c.
alanine cycle
d.
fatty acid oxidation
e.
Krebs cycle
f.
oxidative phosphorylation
g.
glycogenolysis
h.
glycogenesis
f.
| oxidative phosphorylation
101
```
Which ONE (1) of the following statements should apply to vitamin E when it comes to supplementation?
Select one:
```
a.
Mixed tocopherols and in synthetic form
b.
Mixed tocopherols and in natural form
c.
Alpha-tocopherol and in natural form
d.
Gamma-tocopherol and in natural form
e.
Beta-tocopherol and in natural form
f.
Delta-tocopherol and in natural form
b.
| Mixed tocopherols and in natural form
102
T/F. The number of mitochondria is stable from cell to cell.
False
103
Part of cytosolic superoxide dismutase (SOD)
Copper
104
Part of mitochondrial superoxide dismutase (SOD)
Manganese
105
Part of catalase
Iron
106
Part of glutathione peroxidase
Selenium
107
The co-administration of this mineral with vitamin B6 is quite common; this vitamin-mineral combination has contributed to significant behavioral improvements in autistic children
Magnesium
108
Protects several enzymes and proteins against oxidation. For example, a deficiency in this mineral increases oxidation of insulin
Zinc
109
T/F. Most ROS are introduced into the body by the environment.
False
110
Based on the lecture handouts and the Initiate folder, which three (3) diets might be beneficial in subjects with energy imbalances?
Select one or more:
a.
The mito plan/diet
b.
The caloric restricted diet
c.
The Paleo diet
d.
The Zone diet
e.
The ketogenic diet
A. The mito plan/diet
B. The caloric restricted diet
E. The ketogenic diet
111
Define functio laesa
Loss of function
