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AEMT > Quizzes 3-6 > Flashcards

Quizzes 3-6 Flashcards

1
Q

Atelectasis occurs when:
A. the alveoli are overinflated and rupture.
B. a deficiency of surfactant causes alveolar collapse.
C. deoxygenated blood diffuses across the alveoli.
D. surface tension on the alveolar walls is decreased.

A

B. a deficiency of surfactant causes alveolar collapse.

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2
Q 
The volume of air that is moved into or out of the respiratory tract in one breath is called: 
 A. tidal volume.
 B. alveolar volume.
 C. minute volume.
 D. inspiratory reserve volume.
A

A. tidal volume.

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3
Q 
The process of moving air into and out of the lungs is called:
A. respiration.
B. inhalation.
C. ventilation.  
D. exhalation.
A

C. ventilation.

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4
Q 
Changes in the rate and depth of breathing are regulated primarily by the:
A.pH of venous blood.
B. pH of the CSF.
C. saturation of oxygen and hemoglobin.
D. amount of oxygen in the blood plasma.
A

B. pH of the CSF.

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5
Q 
Hypoventilation causes a(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and leads to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. increased minute volume, hypocarbia
B. decreased minute volume, hypocarbia
C. increased minute volume, hypercarbia
D. decreased minute volume, hypercarbia
A

D. decreased minute volume, hypercarbia

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6
Q 
The condition in which the body's tissues and cells do not receive enough oxygen is called:
A. anoxia.
B. hypoxia
C. asphyxia.
D.hypoxemia.
A

B. hypoxia

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7
Q

When ventilating a patient with a bag-mask device, you note increased compliance. This means that:
A .you are meeting resistance when ventilating.
B. air can be forced into the lungs with relative ease.
C. a lower airway obstruction should be suspected.
D.the patient likely has an upper airway obstruction.

A

B. air can be forced into the lungs with relative ease.

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8
Q 
In which of the following conditions would you be LEAST likely to encounter pulsus paradoxus?
A. Moderate asthma attack
B. Pericardial tamponade
C. Tension pneumothorax
D. Decompensating COPD
A

A. Moderate asthma attack

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9
Q

If the amount of pulmonary surfactant is decreased:
A. alveolar surface tension increases.
B. diffuse alveolar hyperinflation occurs.
C. alveoli are able to expand more easily.
D. pulmonary gas exchange is enhanced.

A

A. alveolar surface tension increases.

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10
Q

Cor pulmonale is defined as:
A. increased preload caused by severe hypertension.
B. left heart failure secondary to mitral valve damage.
C. rupture of the alveoli due to increased surface tension.
D. right heart failure secondary to chronic lung disease.

A

D. right heart failure secondary to chronic lung disease.

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11
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ respirations are characterized by a grossly irregular pattern of breathing that may be accompanied by lengthy periods of apnea.
A. Biot
B. Agonal
C.  Eupneic
D.  Cheyne-Stokes
A

A. Biot

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12
Q 
The by-product of cellular respiration is:
A. oxygen.
B. lactic acid.
C. pyruvic acid.
D. carbon dioxide.
A

D. carbon dioxide.

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13
Q 
The barrel-chest appearance classically seen in emphysemic patients is secondary to:
A. widespread atelectasis.
B. chest wall hypertrophy.
C. air trapping in the lungs.
D. carbon dioxide retention.
A

C. air trapping in the lungs.

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14
Q

COPD is characterized by:
A. narrowing of the smaller airways that is often reversible with prompt treatment.
B. changes in pulmonary structure and function that are progressive and irreversible.
C. small airway spasms during the inhalation phase, resulting in progressive hypoxia.
D. widespread alveolar collapse due to increased pressure during the exhalation phase.

A

B. changes in pulmonary structure and function that are progressive and irreversible.

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15
Q

One of the hallmarks of a pulmonary embolism is:
A. the disappearance of radial pulses during inhalation. B. pleuritic chest pain that occurs after a strong cough.
C. cyanosis that does not resolve with oxygen therapy.
D. jugular venous distention while in a supine position.

A

C. cyanosis that does not resolve with oxygen therapy.

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16
Q

The point of maximal impulse usually can be felt on the:
A. medial aspect of the chest, just below the third intercostal space.
B. left lateral chest, in the midaxillary line, at the fourth intercostal space.
C. left anterior chest, in the midaxillary line, at the fifth intercostal space.
D. left anterior chest, in the midclavicular line, at the fifth intercostal space.

A

D. left anterior chest, in the midclavicular line, at the fifth intercostal space.

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17
Q

The left main coronary artery subdivides into the:
A. left anterior ascending and descending arteries.
B. left anterior descending and circumflex arteries.
C. left posterior ascending and circumflex arteries.
B. right coronary and left posterior descending arteries.

A

B. left anterior descending and circumflex arteries.

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18
Q 
The right atrium, right ventricle, and part of the left ventricle are supplied by the:
A. circumflex artery.
B. left anterior descending artery.
C. left main coronary artery.
D. right coronary artery.
A

D. right coronary artery.

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19
Q 
What prevents the backflow of blood during ventricular contraction?
A. The aortic valve
B. Semilunar valves
C. The pulmonic valve
D. AV valves
A

D. AV valves

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20
Q

The mitral valve:
A. is located on the higher-pressure side of the heart.
B. separates the right atrium from the right ventricle.
C. prevents blood regurgitation into the left ventricle.
D. is a tricuspid valve located on the right side of the heart.

A

A. is located on the higher-pressure side of the heart.

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21
Q

Atrial kick is defined as:
A. the blood that flows passively into the ventricles.
B. pressure on the AV valves during ventricular contraction.
C. an attempt of the atria to contract against closed valves.
D. increased preload pressure as a result of atrial contraction.

A

D. increased preload pressure as a result of atrial contraction.

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22
Q

In contrast to the right side of the heart, the left side of the heart:
A. drives blood out of the heart against the relatively high resistance of the systemic circulation.
B. is a high-pressure pump that sends blood through the pulmonary circulation and to the lungs.
C. is a relatively low-pressure pump that must stretch its walls in order to force blood through the aorta.
D. drives blood out of the heart against the relatively low resistance of the pulmonary circulation.

A

A. drives blood out of the heart against the relatively high resistance of the systemic circulation.

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23
Q 
Cardiac output is influenced by:
A. heart rate.
B. stroke volume.
C. heart rate and/or stroke volume.
D. ejection fraction and heart rate.
A

C. heart rate and/or stroke volume.

24
Q

Automaticity is defined as the ability of the heart to:
A. generate an electrical impulse from the same site every time.
B. spontaneously conduct an electrical impulse between cardiac cells.
C. generate its own electrical impulses without stimulation from nerves.
D. increase or decrease its heart rate based on the body’s metabolic needs.

A

C. generate its own electrical impulses without stimulation from nerves.

25
Q

Repolarization begins when:
A. the sodium and calcium channels close.
B. calcium ions slowly enter the cardiac cell.
C. potassium ions rapidly escape from the cell.
D. the inside of the cell returns to a positive charge.

A

A. the sodium and calcium channels close.

26
Q

Baroreceptors function by:
A. sensing decreased blood flow and activating the vasomotor center.
B. dilating the blood vessels when systemic vascular resistance is low.
C. measuring subtle shifts in arterial oxygen and carbon dioxide levels.
D. constricting the blood vessels when systemic vascular resistance is high.

A

A. sensing decreased blood flow and activating the vasomotor center.

27
Q 
Systemic effects of epinephrine include:
A. bronchoconstriction.
B. decreased preload.
C. increased afterload.
D. diffuse vasodilation.
A

C. increased afterload.

28
Q

Intrapulmonary shunting occurs when:
A. nonfunctional alveoli inhibit pulmonary gas exchange.
B. the volume of anatomic dead space suddenly increases.
C. hyperinflated alveoli retain high levels of carbon dioxide.
D. resistance to airflow increases due to bronchoconstriction.

A

A. nonfunctional alveoli inhibit pulmonary gas exchange.

29
Q

When auscultating the lungs of a patient with early pulmonary edema, you will MOST likely hear:
A. inspiratory rhonchi to the bilateral apices of the lungs.
B. crackles in the bases of the lungs at the end of inspiration.
C. faint rhonchi to all lung fields on inspiration and expiration.
D. coarse crackles to the bases of the lungs during inspiration.

A

B. crackles in the bases of the lungs at the end of inspiration.

30
Q

Scope of practice is defined as:
A. protocols agreed upon by a consensus of emergency physicians.
B. the level of care that an EMS employer allows the paramedic to provide.
C. national patient care guidelines established by the federal government.
D. care that a paramedic is permitted to perform under the certifying state.

A

D. care that a paramedic is permitted to perform under the certifying state.

31
Q

Air normally moves into the lungs from the:
A. Pressure gradient created when the lungs expand
B. Higher pressure within the lungs during inspiration
C. Positive pressure forcing air into the lungs
D. Increased intrathoracic pressure during inspiration

A

A. Pressure gradient created when the lungs expand

32
Q

Minute volume is the amount of air:
A. That can be inhaled after a maximal inhalation
B. In the tidal volume multiplied by the respiratory rate
C. In the dead space moved in and out of the respiratory tract each minute
D. Available for gas exchange in every minute

A

B. In the tidal volume multiplied by the respiratory rate

33
Q

The Frank Starling law states that:
A. Heart rate increases as oxygen demands increase
B. Myocardial fibers contract more forcefully when they are stretched
C. Afterload increases with increased blood pressure
D. Stroke volume decreases when the preload decreases

A

B. Myocardial fibers contract more forcefully when they are stretched

34
Q 
Depolarization takes place when:
A. Magnesium ions rush into the cell
B. Sodium ions rush into the cell
C. Potassium ions rush out of the cell
D. Calcium ions rush out of the cell
A

B. Sodium ions rush into the cell

35
Q 
In lead II placement, the positive lead is located on the:
A. Left arm
B. Left leg
C. Right shoulder
D. Right leg
A

B. Left leg

36
Q

Which of the following causes decreased cardiac output in a patient with a tension pneumothorax?
A. Blood in the pleural space
B. Pressure on the vena cava
C. Pressure in the pericardial space
D. Hypotension due to intercostal artery bleeding

A

B. Pressure on the vena cava

37
Q 
Pulmonary edema would lead to a problem with:
A. Ventilation
B. Diffusion
C. Perfusion
D. Oxygenation
A

B. Diffusion

38
Q

The peripheral nervous system is responsible for:
A. memory, understanding, and thought processes.
B. feeling and autonomic sensory and motor functions.
C. thought, perception, and voluntary motor functions.
D. sending messages to and receiving messages from the brain.

A

D. sending messages to and receiving messages from the brain.

39
Q

Hyperventilating a patient who has increased intracranial pressure (ICP) will:
A. dilate the cerebral vasculature and cause further increases in ICP.
B. constrict the cerebral vasculature and decrease cerebral perfusion.
C. increase the carbon dioxide levels in the brain through vasodilation.
D. decrease ICP and maintain adequate cerebral perfusion.

A

B. constrict the cerebral vasculature and decrease cerebral perfusion.

40
Q

When neurons are deprived of oxygen and glucose:
A. they convert to anaerobic metabolism.
B. they produce alkalotic waste products.
C. spontaneous intracerebral bleeding occurs.
D. the process of neuronal regeneration begins.

A

A. they convert to anaerobic metabolism.

41
Q

The peripheral nervous system is responsible for:
A. memory, understanding, and thought processes.
B. feeling and autonomic sensory and motor functions.
C. thought, perception, and voluntary motor functions.
D. sending messages to and receiving messages from the brain.

A

D. sending messages to and receiving messages from the brain.

42
Q 
What is the cerebral perfusion pressure of a patient with a mean arterial pressure of 80 mm Hg and an intracranial pressure of 5 mm Hg?
A. 60 mm Hg
B. 75 mm Hg
C. 90 mm Hg
B. 95 mm Hg
A

B. 75 mm Hg

43
Q 
Which of the following would have the MOST negative effect on the outcome of a patient with an intracranial hemorrhage?
A. Hypotension
B. Tachycardia
C. Hypertension
D. Slow rise in intracranial pressure
A

A. Hypotension

44
Q 
All of the following cranial nerves are responsible for airway control, EXCEPT the:
A. abducens.
B. trigeminal.
C. hypoglossal.
D. glossopharyngeal.
A

A. abducens.

45
Q

In contrast to patients in shock, patients with increased intracranial pressure MOST often experience:
A. systolic hypotension.
B. an increased diastolic blood pressure.
C. a widened pulse pressure.
D. tachycardia and tachypnea.

A

C. a widened pulse pressure.

46
Q

Which of the following is an example of receptive aphasia?
A. A patient with slurred speech is able to tell you his or her name.
B. You hand a patient a pencil and he or she tries to cut paper with it.
C. You ask a patient who the president is and he or she says, “January.”
D. patient responds with “no” when asked if he or she has hypertension.

A

C. You ask a patient who the president is and he or she says, “January.”

47
Q 
The involuntary, rhythmic movement of the eyes is called:
A. nystagmus.
B. hyperopia.
C. anisocoria.
D, dysphagia.
A

A. nystagmus.

48
Q

The parietal lobe of the brain:
A. is where the optic nerve originates and processes vision.
B.is important for voluntary motor action and personality traits.
C. controls somatic functions for the contralateral side of the body.
D. controls functions such as long-term memory, taste, and smell.

A

C. controls somatic functions for the contralateral side of the body.

49
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the hypothalamus is correct?
A. The hypothalamus works in conjunction with the subthalamus and regulates motor functions of the body.
B. The hypothalamus is located in the inferior portion of the diencephalon and influences body movement in response to fear.
C. The hypothalamus is located between the brainstem and cerebrum and is solely responsible for maintaining body temperature.
D. The hypothalamus is the most inferior portion of the diencephalon and controls functions such as hunger, sleep, and vomiting.

A

D. The hypothalamus is the most inferior portion of the diencephalon and controls functions such as hunger, sleep, and vomiting.

50
Q 
What portion of the brainstem is responsible for maintenance of consciousness, specifically one's level of arousal?
A. Diencephalon
B. Limbic system
C. Basal ganglia
D. Reticular activating system
A

D. Reticular activating system

51
Q 
The respiratory centers of the brainstem lie within the:
A. basal ganglia.
B. pons and medulla.
C. diencephalon.
D. midbrain.
A

B. pons and medulla.

52
Q

Which of the following statements regarding a closed head injury is correct?
A. In a closed head injury, the dura mater remains intact.
B. Diffuse brain injury occurs with all open head injuries.
C. Closed head injuries are less common than open head injuries.
D, Intracranial pressure is usually minimal in a closed head injury.

A

A. In a closed head injury, the dura mater remains intact.

53
Q 
Following a traumatic brain injury, initial swelling of the brain occurs due to:
A. severe ischemia.
B. acute hypertension.
C. cerebral vasodilation.
D. an increase in cerebral water.
A

C. cerebral vasodilation.

54
Q

A diffuse axonal injury:
A. is a specific, grossly observable brain injury that can easily be diagnosed with a computer tomography scan of the head.
B. involves stretching, shearing, or tearing of the extension of the neuron that conducts electrical impulses away from the cell body.
C.results in severe stretching or tearing of the portion of the nerve cell that receives sensory messages from the rest of the body.
D. is generally associated with better neurologic outcomes than a cerebral concussion because permanent brain damage does not occur.

A

B. involves stretching, shearing, or tearing of the extension of the neuron that conducts electrical impulses away from the cell body.

55
Q

An epidural hematoma typically causes rapid deterioration in the head-injured patient’s condition because:
A. numerous axons are severely damaged.
B. the meningeal veins are often disrupted.
C. it is associated with brisk arterial bleeding.
D. concomitant spinal cord injury is often present.

A

C. it is associated with brisk arterial bleeding.

AEMT (1 decks)

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