Quizzes Flashcards
1
Q
A score of 10 on the GCS is indicative of:
A
moderate brain injury
2
Q
Which potential spinal cord injury complication could be addressed by including tilt table activities?
A
Orthostatic hypotension
3
Q
Which type of CVA is characterized by symptoms that do not fully present until 1-2 days after onset?
A
Stroke in evolution
4
Q
At what age would a typical infant be expected to crawl forward and begin to walk along furniture?
A
8-9 months
5
Q
Damage to which structure will result in ipsilateral impairment?
A
Cerebellum
6
Q
Which sense is assessed by asking a patient to close their eyes and identify the direction in which a joint is moving?
A
Kinesthesia
7
Q
A PF and inversion response of the foot is produced with which deep tendon reflex associated with the L4-5 spinal level?
A
Tibialis posterior tendon
8
Q
A therapist performs sharp and dull sensory testing to asses the:
A
trigeminal nerve
9
Q
Which cranial nerve contains both sensory and motor fibers?
A
Facial
10
Q
Which muscle is not innervated by the musculocutaneous nerve?
A
Anconeus
11
Q
Which form of aphasia is characterize by severe expressive and receptive impairments?
A
Global aphasia
12
Q
A tuning fork may be used to assess which cranial nerve?
A
Vestibulocochlear
13
Q
The adductor muscle group derives its primary innervation from the:
A
obturator nerve
14
Q
A therapist evaluates a 47-yo male patient with symptoms including distal extremity weakness that has been progressing proximally. This is most indicative of:
A
ALS
15
Q
Which of the following best describes a cauda equina injury?
A
considered a peripheral nerve injury
16
Q
Receptive aphasia is also referred to as:
A
Wernicke’s
17
Q
A 3-month-old infant would be expected to exhibit which of the following reflexes?
A
positive support reflex
18
Q
A patient’s ability to move within a weight bearing position or rotate around a long axis is best described as:
A
mobility
19
Q
Which Rancho level of cognitive functioning presents with heightened activity levels, confabulation, inability to follow directions, and non-purposeful behaviors?
A
Confused-Agitated
20
Q
Which brain structure controls body temperature, sleep, and appetite?
A
hypothalamus
21
Q
Which lobe of the brain receives auditory, motor, sensory, memory, and visual info which is processed to provide meaning to objects?
A
Parietal
22
Q
Which of the following is an example of a lower motor neuron disease?
A
Muscular dystrophy
23
Q
Which structure is found within the cerebrum?
A
lateral ventricles
24
Q
What structure in the diencephalon is responsible for receiving information from the autonomic nervous system and assisting in hormone regulation?
A
hypothalamus
25
Which of the following structures is not a part of the vestibular system?
Cochlea
26
A patient demonstrates goal directed behaviors with cues from the therapist, but gives incorrect verbal responses in conversation. This is what Ranch level?
Confused appropriate
27
Weakness in serratus anterior is most likely associated with damage to the
long thoracic nerve
28
A lesion at which nerve root level would be associated with weakness of the extensor hallucis?
L5
29
Positional changes detected by the inner ear stimulate which primitive reflex?
tonic labyrinthine reflex
30
Balance and posture are primarily controlled by which brain structure?
Cerebellum
31
Weakness of the SCM would be associated with which myotome?
C2
32
A patient who has had a left hemisphere CVA is most likely to show deficits relating to
mathematical calculations
33
The medial leg and great toe are associated with which dermatome?
L4
34
Which of the following is not innervated by the sacral plexus?
Biceps femoris
35
The buttock, posterior thigh, and posterior lower extremity are associated with which dermatome?
S1
36
Which of the following is a sensory tract responsible for lower extremity proprioception?
fasciculus gracilis
37
Which type of pharm agent may be prescribed during treatment following a spinal cord injury, CV accident, or MS?
antispasticity agents
38
Touch and pain sensations on the skin of the face are associated with which cranial nerve?
Trigeminal
39
What cranial nerve is responsible for voluntary movement of the tongue?
hypoglossal
40
Which neurological rehab model utilizes concepts such as compensation, plasticity, and strategy?
Motor control: a Task Oriented Approach
41
Which of the following is a pyramidal motor tract responsible for contralateral voluntary movement?
corticospinal tract
42
Which of the following is most characteristic of an upper motor neuron disease?
hyperactive reflexes
43
The brachioradialis reflex is associated with which nerve root level?
C5
44
Which of the following is considered a left hemisphere characteristic?
production of written and spoken language
45
A complete spinal cord lesion at the T4 level would be documented as
paraplegia
46
During which developmental stage would a child be expected to demonstrate skipping and manipulation of small buttons?
5-8 years
47
A patient has difficulty performing rapid alternating pronation and supination of the forearms. This would be characterized as
dysdiadochokinesia
48
Which structure is located within the cerebrum?
basal ganglia
49
The supraspinatus muscle is innervated by the
suprascapular nerve
50
Which part o the brain contains the thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus?
diencephalon
51
Sho flexion, adduction, and lateral rotation are components of which UE proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation pattern?
D1 flexion
52
The efferent fibers of which cranial nerve can be assessed by stimulating the gag reflex?
glossopharyngeal
53
Based on the Motor Control: A Task Oriented Approach for neuromuscular rehab, the ability to utilize previous strategies to return to the same level of functioning is best termed
recovery
54
Which muscle is innervated by nerves arising from both the medial and lateral cords of the brachial plexus?
pec major
55
Which neuro rehab model defines stages of recovery used to evaluate and document a patient's progress?
Brunnstrom
56
Which of the following is responsible for the production of CSF?
choroid plexus
57
A pt who has had a CVA exhibits a UE extensor synergy. Which of the following would not be a component of this pattern?
forearm supination
58
Slurred speech due to a motor deficit of the tongue or essential speech muscles is best termed
dysarthria
59
Which part of the brain is primarily responsible for primitive survival functions?
brainstem
60
An example of an upper motor neuron disease is
cerebral palsy
61
An infant that exhibits the symmetrical tonic neck reflect would assume which body position with neck flexion?
UE flexion and LE extension
62
Which CN's efferent fibers influence an individual's ability to swallow and say ah?
vagus
63
Which LE proprioceptive NM facilitation pattern is characterized by ankle PF and inversion?
D2 extension
64
Which nerve root level would correspond to a muscle-related bladder dysfunction?
S4
65
What reflex is elicited through light touch on the cheek and causes an infant's mouth to open and the head to turn towards the side of the stimulus?
rooting reflex
66
What age group is highest risk for acquiring a TBI?
15-24 yo males
67
The use of overflow from motor output of unaffected areas to produce active movement of affected areas is encouraged in which neuro rehab model?
Brunnstrom
68
A therapist observes a pt ambulating with a Trendelenburg gait due to a neuro deficit. Which nerve is most likely involved?
superior gluteal nerve
69
Sx of festinating gait, bradykinesia, and difficulty initiating movement are symptoms commonly associated with
Parkinson's
70
Asking a pt to identify an object placed in their hand without looking at it is used to assess
stereognosis
71
A pt performs a combo of bilateral UE movements with hands clasped to facilitate trunk stability. This PNF pattern is termed
chopping
72
Damage to which nerve would most likely result in foot drop during gait?
deep peroneal
73
The superior oblique muscle of the eyeball is innervated by which cranial nerve?
trochlear
74
Depakote, Dilantin, and Klonopin are bran name examples of what type of pharm agent?
anti epileptic agents
75
A sudden onset of severe headache, vomiting, and high BP are indicative of what type of stroke?
hemorrhagic stroke
76
Which nerve root innervates both the poses and the hip adductors?
L2
77
A lesion of C8 root would most likely be associated with weakness in
thumb extension
78
A pt sustains a corticospinal tract lesion at the level of the brainstem that produces extension of the trunk and extremities. This would be termed
decerebrate rigidity
79
Which structure is an extrapyramidal tract responsible for ipsilateral postural adjustments?
vestibulospinal tract
80
Broca's aphasia AKA
expressive aphasia
81
Lesion of C4 root would most likely be associated with weakness of
levator scapulae
82
Primary risk factor for CVA is
heart disease
83
Deltoid weakness would be associated with an injury to which nerve?
axillary
84
The majority of CN originate from which structure in the brain?
brainstem
85
Which of the following is responsible for providing proprioceptive information to the CNS regarding balance?
somatosensory receptors
86
Which balance strategy is most commonly utilized for high level tasks, such as surfing, that require both stability and mobility?
suspensory
87
Frontal lobe of the brain is responsible for
expression of speech
88
Which of the following is a passive PNF technique used to decrease hypertonia?
rhythmical rotation
89
The dermatome that begins in the deltoid area and extends anteriorly to the base of the thumb is
C5
90
The use of reflex inhibiting postures to influence abnormal tone and reflexes are components of which model?
Neuromuscular Developmental Treatment
91
A pt exhibits a flexor synergy of the LE during an assisted transfer to chair. Which positioning is most likely to be seen?
great toe extension
92
Anticipated normal response to brachioradialis reflex testing is
elbow flexion and forearm supination
93
Which dermatome level would be assessed by lightly touching the occiput?
C2
94
Which of the following terms is not commonly associated with the Brunnstrom approach to neuro rehab?
mass movement patterns
95
Which of the following is not considered an inhibitory sensory stimulation technique in the Rood model of neuro rehab?
resistance
96
The inability to control the range of a movement and the force of muscular activity is best termed
dysmetria
97
The hemispheres of the cerebrum are joined by the
corpus callosum
98
A pt who has undergone a radical neck dissection is unable to initiate a shoulder shrug. Which nerve was most likely damaged during surgery?
accessory
99
Which of the following is an extrapyramidal motor tract?
rubrospinal
100
Which of the following is not innervated by the femoral nerve?
quadratus femoris
101
Which of the following is a sensory tract responsible for ipsilateral subconscious proprioception?
spinocerebellar
102
Which region of the brain is responsible for an individual's ability to recognize another person's face and interpret their emotions?
temporal lobe
103
Which form of incomplete spinal injury results from damage to the dorsal columns, spinothalamic, and corticospinal tracts?
central cord syndrome
104
An active normal response to DTR testing would be documented as
2+
105
Which model of neuro rehab emphasizes sensory stimulation techniques as a key component of treatment interventions?
Rood
106
The use of specific handling techniques to facilitate posture, alignment, and motor control is a component of which neuro rehab approach?
Neuromuscular Developmental Treatment
107
Which incomplete spinal cord injury presents with motor function that is typically preserved and sensory impairments that include two-point discrimination and stereognosis?
posterior cord syndrome
108
Which disease presents with demyelination of myelin sheaths, resulting in brain and spinal cord plaques?
multiple sclerosis
109
Which of the following is a genetic disorder that is typically fatal within 15-20 years after the manifestation of clinical symptoms?
Huntington's
110
A pt is asked to distinguish between sweet and salty substances placed on the anterior aspect of the tongue. This assesses the sensory aspect of which CN?
facial
111
The medical record indicates that a patient was classified as having a mild brain injury based on the results obtained from the GCS. The pt's most likely score was
14
112
Which of the following structures is not a part of the brainstem?
infundibulum
113
Muscle wasting of peroneals and PFors is a characteristic finding of a root lesion at
S1
114
Impaired coughing, difficulty clearing secretions, altered breathing pattern, and poor endurance are characteristics of
complete C7 tetraplegia
115
A therapist is working on supine activities with a pt who has a complete C6 injury. The pt suddenly complains of a severe headache and heavy sweating. The most appropriate therapist response is to
assist the patient into a sitting position
116
A weak or diminished Achilles tendon reflex would be associated with damage to which nerve root level?
S2
117
Which dermatome level is typically associated with the abdomen?
T8-T12
118
A surgical intervention in which specific spinal cord tracts are severed with the goal of decreasing spasticity and increasing function is best termed
myelotomy
119
The normal balance strategy used to compensate for postural sway is
ankle
120
Efferent and afferent components are found in which cranial nerve?
glossopharyngeal
121
Ataxia is best described as
the inability to perform coordinated movements
122
Which finding is typically associated with the presence of a lower motor neuron disorder but not an upper motor neuron disorder?
fasciculations
123
A full functional recovery is expected in the majority fo patients diagnosed with
Guillain-Barre syndrome
124
A pt is asked to close their eyes and identify a letter drawn on their skin by the therapist. This technique is used to assess
graphesthesia
125
Which nerve root is associated with triceps DTR?
C7
