RA and Gout Flashcards

(38 cards)

1
Q

What cytokines play a primary role in arthritic inflammation?

A

IL-1 and TNF-alpha

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the three hallmark signs of rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Pain, Stiffness, and Swelling of joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the three categories of drug therapies for rheumatoid arthritis?

A

NSAIDs, DMARDs, and biological response modifiers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What NSAIDs are used for RA?

A

Indomethacin, naproxen, celecoxib(better because COX2 specific)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the DMARD categories?

A

Corticosteroids, Gold salts, Anti-malarials, Sulfasalazine, Immunosuppressive drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the mechanism if the glucocorticoids’ anti-inflammatory effects? Wha tare the long-term side effects? What is the current usage regimen?

A

Inhibit prostaglandin synthesis and cytokine/COX2 induction; immunosuppressive/lymphoma risk; Bridge therapy till other drugs are effective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the MOA for gold salts? Why are they rarely used for RA today?

A

slow down immune responsiveness, especially macrophages; high levels of side effects and less efficacy than DMARDs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the major side effects of antimalarials?

A

Retinal damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the MOA for anti-malarials in RA treatment?

A

Reduce T cell activation and chemotaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the MOA for sulfasalazine in RA? Where is it primarily used? What are the major side effects?

A

TNF-alpha and IL-1 release inhibition; Europe primarily; nausea, vomiting, headaches, skin rashes, and neutropenia (30% discontinue)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the two major immunosuppressive drugs in RA? What is the major consideration in their treatment?

A

Methotrexate and Leflunomide; Take several weeks/months to show full effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the difference between dosages of methotrexate in cancer and RA chemotherapy? Why?

A

RA doses are much lower; thought to inhibit AICAR transformylase and some effect on thymidylate synthase with PMN inhibition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the side effects of methotrexate?

A

Nausea, stomatitis, and hepatotoxicity (rare)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the MOA of Leflunomide?

A

Immunosuppressive due to

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the major cytokine targets for RA therapy?

A

TNF-alpha, IL-1, and IL-6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are three routes of cytokine inhibition in RA?

A

Antibody binding (to cytokine or receptor), small-molecule binding to chytokine, and small-molecule binding to receptor

17
Q

What is the MOA for Infliximab?

A

anti-TNF Mab (chimeric) with long term effect

18
Q

What is the structure of Etanercept and its MOA?

A

TNF-RII-Fc to bind TNF in serum

19
Q

What is the MOA of Adalimumab?

A

anti-TNF Mab with effect similar to infliximab - used in combo

20
Q

What is the action of Golimumab?

21
Q

What is the action of Certolizumab?

22
Q

What is the MOA and use for Anakinra?

A

IL-1 Receptor antagonist used mono or combo with methotrexate for RA

23
Q

What is the action of Abatacept? What are its side effects?

A

T-cell activation inhibitor; headaches and infections as side effects

24
Q

What is the action of Tocilizumab?

A

IL-6R antagonist

25
What is the MOA for Rituxumab? What are its side effects?
antiCD20 Mab preventing B cell activation; headaches, hypersensitivity reactions, and infections as side effects
26
What would be the indication for a monotherapy in RA? For combination or anti-TNF therapy?
Low disease or high without complications=monotherapy; high level disease with complications is a target of combo or anti-TNF therapy
27
What enzyme and end product are at high levels in gout?
Xanthine oxidase and uric acid
28
What are the 4 strategies used in pharmacological treatment of gout?
decrease uric acid synthesis, increase uric acid excretion, decrease levels of leukacytes, combat inflammation
29
What are the 4 reasons for high urate production?
diseases with rapid cell destruction, metabolism i.e. lactic acidosis, drug induced, high purine diet
30
What three issues can cause low urate excretion?
renal function loss, suboptimal urine volumes, drug (i.e. thiazide diuretics)
31
What are the two forms of gout presentation?
Acute gouty arthritis and chronic gout with intradermal tophi
32
What are the therapies for acute gouty arthritis?
Colchizine, NSAIDs, and Corticosteroids
33
What is the MOA for colchizine? Side effects? What is a major concern in dosing?
alkaloid prevent tubulin polymerization and inhibits leukocytes; adverse: NVD, hair loss, and bone marrow depression; LOW THERAPEUTIC INDEX
34
How are corticosteroids used in acute gouty artheritis?
Intraarticular injection for local effects
35
What Uricosuric organic acid is used to inhibit urate reabsoprtion in the proximal tubules?
Probenecid (sulfinpyrazone overseas)
36
What are the side effects of probenecid?
GI effects, acute gout due to uric acid mobilization, lower penicillin secretion
37
What is the MOA of allopurinol that makes it useful in gout? What are its indications?
It is a competitive inhibitor of xanthine oxidase as it is a good substrate. Used for overproducers and also as prophylactic in chemotherapy (esp leukemia) or kidney disease patients
38
What are the three common treatments in chronic gout?
Allopurinol, probenecid, and Febuxostat