RAD PATIENT CARE FOR MOCK Flashcards

(55 cards)

1
Q

what modalities do not use ionizing radiation?

A

MRI & sonography (US)

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2
Q

what are accreditation agencies? certification bodies? professional societies? joint commission? for radiography?

A

ensure programs meet standards;
JRCERT
award credentials; ARRT
voluntary organizations; ASRT
accreditation for hospitals/clinics

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3
Q

what are the 2 types of history taking data?

A

subjective; feelings & attitudes
objective; measurable

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3
Q

what are the sacred seven medical histories?

A

localization (where does it hurt?)
chronology (when did it start?)
quality (describe the symptoms?)
severity (scale 1-10)
onset (was there an event?)
aggravating factors (hurt more or less when you stand?)
associated manifestations (do other symptoms occur at the same time?)

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3
Q

how many views must be on all radiographs? how many degrees apart?

A

2 views; 90 degrees apart

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4
Q

where is the center of gravity located at? what angle should wheelchair transfers be at to the table?

A

second sacral segment
45 degrees

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5
Q

what is the goal of immobilization techniques?

A

to reduce motion

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5
Q

what are WRMSD (work-related Musculoskeletal disorders) caused by?

A

single event or repetition (US)

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6
Q

what are the rules regarding restraints?

A

do not remove restraint w/o permission
do not restrain w/o permission

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7
Q

what are the average temperatures & locations of these?
oral:
axillary:
tympanic:
temporal:
rectal:

A

98.6 (mouth)
97.6 (armpit)
97.6 (ear)
100 (head)
99.6 (butt)

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8
Q

what is the range for hypothermia by oral temperature? hyperthermia?

A

below 97.7 degrees
above 99.5 degrees

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9
Q

what are the average respiratory rates for children? adults?

A

20-30 breaths per min
12-20 breaths per min
(key number is 20)

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10
Q

what are these terms?
bradypnea:
tachypnea:
bradycardia:
tachycardia:

A

slow breathing rate
fast breathing rate
slow pulse rate
fast pulse rate

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10
Q

what is hypotension? hypertension?

A

low blood pressure
high blood pressure

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11
Q

what is the normal range for oxygen saturation? what is the normal blood pressure number? what is considered a drug? what color is the flowmeter labeled?

A

95-100%
120/80; systolic/diastolic
oxygen; green

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11
Q

what is the average pulse rate for children? adults?

A

70-120 BPM
60-100 BPM

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12
Q

what is bacteria? classified by? cause?

A

microscopic single celled, resides in host as colony
classified by shape
strep throat or food poisoning

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12
Q

what is the chain of infection?

A

pathogen (bacteria, fungi, virus, or parasite)
reservoir (people, animals, soil, food, or water)
portal of exit (coughing/sneezing, bodily secretions, or feces)
mode of transmission (direct or indirect contact or vectors (insects)
portal of entry (mouth, nose, eyes, cuts)
susceptible host (elderly, infants, or immunocompromised, or anyone)

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12
Q

what is a virus? what can it infect?what does it cause?

A

microscopic organism that infects human, plants, or animals
can’t produce w/o host or live long outside cell
flu, cold, COVID

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13
Q

what are these types of tubes?
endotracheal tubes:
thoracostomy tubes:
central lines:

A

x-ray needed for placement; 1-2” superior to carina
chest tubes; drain fluid from pleura space
catheter inserted into large vein; subclavian, internal jugular, or femoral veins

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14
Q

what is a fungi? what can it cause?

A

single celled or complex multicellular organism
small no. of fungi affect animals
athlete’s foot, ringworm, or thrush

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15
Q

what are parasitic protozoa? classified by?

A

neither plant or animal but larger than bacteria
classified by movement; live at the expense of the host

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16
Q

what is the parasitic disease that causes the most deaths globally?

17
Q

what are these types of transmission?
direct contact:
droplet:
blood borne:
airborne:
vector:
fomite:

A

person to person
pathogen transfer via bodily secretion
transmitted through blood
pathogens remain suspended in air long after person left; smaller than 5 microns
insects transport pathogen
inanimate objects

18
what are nosocomial infections? how many inpatients contract this?
hospital infection 5% of inpatients
18
what is the recommended handwashing time? hand rubbing time?
40-60 seconds 20-30 seconds
19
what is the PPE donning order? removal?
gown, mask, goggles, & gloves (GMGG) gloves, goggles, gown, & mask (GGGM)
20
what are four common radiology surgical procedures?
chest tube placement, dressing changes, tracheostomy, & urinary catherization
20
what is medical asepsis? what is surgical asepsis?
reduction of microorganisms from an area elimination of all microorganisms from an area
21
what are the different types of shock? what is it caused by?
hypovolemic; loss of blood/fluids cardiogenic: cardiac disorders neurogenic: spinal cord damage vasogenic: anaphylaxis
22
what are 5 common non-aseptic procedures in radiology?
NG tubes urinal use bedpan use enema barium enema
23
what are the signs of stroke?
slurred speech, dizziness, loss of vision, & one-sided paralysis
24
what do each of these drug nomenclatures mean? generic name: chemical name: trade name:
drug name given when commercially available identifies chemical structure of drug drug name based of specific company; brand name
24
what are these type of drug classifications? antiarrthymics: antidiabetic: antihistamines: antiplatelets: vasodilators:
adenosine metformin; glucophage diphenhydramine (Benadryl) aspirin nitroglycerin
25
what can influence a drug reaction?
age, health, time of day, emotional status, other drugs, genetics, diseases
26
what consists of a mild drug reaction? moderate?
anxiety, lightheadedness, nausea, vomiting, & itching urticaria, bronchospasm, angioedema, hypotension, tachycardia (over 100 bpm)
27
what are considered severe drug reactions?
bradycardia (less 50bpm), cardiac arrythmias, laryngeal swelling, convulsions, loss of consciousness, cardiac & respiratory arrest, no pulse
28
what is an idiosyncratic reaction?
unusual response to a drug because of individual genetics
28
what are the different modes of transmission for drug application?
topical; drug application directly to the skin enteral; drug through digestive system (oral, sublingual, buccal, rectal) parenteral: drug administration by needle/syringe (intradermal, intramuscular, intravenous, & subcutaneous)
29
how are needles measured? what are there sizes? what is the most common?
gauges for diameter; 14-28 (smaller the number the bigger the diameter) length varies from .25in-5in usually 1in-1.5in
30
what is the rule for venipuncture needle insertion? what are some things can happen?
insert needle next to vein at 15-30 degree angle infiltration; medicine leaking into soft tissue w/o irritation extravasation; medicine leaking with irritation
31
what do these medical abbreviations mean? _ S: NPO: SC: Stat: _ C: IM: IV: PO:
without nothing by mouth subcutaneously immediately with intramuscular intravenously by mouth
32
what is negative & positive contrast media? how do they appear? what are some examples?
negative; comprised of low atomic number elements; appear radiolucent on image (air/gas) positive; comprised of high atomic number elements; appears radiopaque on image (barium/iodine)
33
what is barium sulfate? what does it have a tendency to do? what do suspension mean? what is a must following barium studies? what is a contraindication of barium?
positive contrast media flocculation (clump) w/o the addition of sodium carbonate it mean it must be continually mixed push fluids bowel perforation
33
what is osmolality? viscosity? where do we see the most adverse reactions to contrast be a result from?
number of particles in a solution per unit liquid compared to blood thickness or friction of fluid as it flows osmolality
34
what are some considerations we should have when using contrast?
renal function; metformin usage should be discontinued 48hrs before & after the use of iodine contrast
35
what are radiopharmaceuticals? what are the two types of contamination?
emit gamma radiation monitored by gamma camera in nuclear dept external; spilled on internal; ingested
36
what are the two main sections of the ARRT standard of ethics? what do they say?
code of ethics; behaviors professionals should aspire to achieve rules of ethics; mandatory rules of acceptable conduct
37
what are these? electronic medical record (EMR): electronic health record (HER): hospital information system (HIS): radiology information system (RIS):
medical records for a single institution easily accessible medical records by patient assist in patient scheduling & billing; assigns patient number manages orders in radiology department; assigns an accession number
38
what are these? ICD-10-CM: CPT-4:
reasons for the visit, translated into code code for specific diagnostic procedure & services
39
what are the types of law involved with medical law?
constitutional; supreme law of the land legislative; statues & regulations that direct most of our daily lives case; judge or jury contract; legally enforceable agreement (NDA)
40
where do 10% of all medical negligence lawsuits originate from?
medical imaging; misdiagnosis's
41
what are the two forms of defamation?
libel; written slander; spoken
42
what two types of consent are there?
implied consent; assumed for simple procedures informed consent; requires written consent for invasive procedure
43
what do these two Latin terms mean? respondeat superior: res ipsa loquitur:
"the master speaks for the servant"; physician or institution is responsible "the thing speaks for itself"; only explanations for the injury is the medical staff/procedure