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Final Exam Rad II Study Prep > Rad Procedures II Final Exam Review > Flashcards

Rad Procedures II Final Exam Review Flashcards

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1
Q

The bones of the instep are:

  1. Phalanges
  2. Metatarsals
  3. Tarsals
  4. Metacarpals
A
  1. Metatarsals
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2
Q 
Which of the following is NOT an arch of
the foot?
1. Vertical
2. Transverse
3. Longitudinal
4. Both 1 and 2
A
  1. Vertical
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3
Q

The MTP joints are located at the ____ of
the metatarsals
1. bases
2. heads

A
  1. heads
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4
Q 
Which tarsal articulates with the 4th and 5th
metatarsals and the calcaneus?
1. Navicular
2. 1st cuneiform
3. Talus
4. Cuboid
A
  1. Cuboid
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5
Q 
Sesamoid bones are located on the \_\_\_\_
surface of the foot
1. dorsal
2. lateral
3. plantar
4. medial
A
  1. plantar
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6
Q

The lateral malleolus is located on the:

  1. Tibia
  2. Talus
  3. Calcaneus
  4. Fibula
A
  1. Fibula
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7
Q

CR location for the AP Axial Foot:

  1. Head of 5th metatarsal
  2. Base of 5th metatarsal
  3. Head of 3rd metatarsal
  4. Base of 3rd metatarsal
A
  1. Base of 3rd metatarsal
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8
Q 
The foot is rotated \_\_\_degrees for a
medial oblique view
1. 15
2. 30
3. 45
4. 70
A
  1. 30
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9
Q 
Tube angulation for Plantodorsal view of
the heel:
1. 15 degrees cephalic
2. 30 degrees cephalic
3. 30 degrees caudal
4. 40 degrees cephalic
A
  1. 40 degrees cephalic
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10
Q 
The foot must be \_\_\_\_ for all views of the
ankle
1. extended
2. dorsiflexed
3. inverted
4. everted
A
  1. dorsiflexed
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11
Q 
Located between the two tibial condyles on
the superior surface of the tibia
1. Intercodylar fossa 
2. Intercondylar eminence
3. Intercondylar sulcus
4. Tibial tuberosity
A
  1. Intercondylar eminence
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12
Q

The most proximal end of the fibula:

  1. Head
  2. Neck
  3. Apex
  4. shaft
A
  1. Apex
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13
Q

The anterior surface of the femur:

  1. Patellar
  2. Popliteal
  3. Dorsal
  4. Ventral
A
  1. Patellar
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14
Q 
The intercondylar fossa is located on the
\_\_\_\_ aspect of the femur
1. anterior
2. posterior
3. medial
4. lateral
A
  1. posterior
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15
Q

Classified as a fibrous, syndesmosis joint:

  1. Distal tibiofibular joint
  2. Proximal tibiofibular joint
  3. Patellofemoral joint
  4. Femorotibial join
A
  1. Distal tibiofibular joint
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16
Q 
The \_\_\_\_ ligaments attach at the sides of
the knee
1. cruciate
2. collateral
3. retinaculum
4. achilles
A
  1. collateral
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17
Q

In a true AP projection of the tib/fib, the
femoral condyles will appear ___ to the IR
1. Parallel
2. Perpendicular
3. Superimposed

A
  1. Parallel
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18
Q 
How should the CR be angled for an AP
projection of the knee?
1. 5 degrees cephalic
2. 5 degrees caudal
3. 15 degrees cephalic
4. 15 degrees caudal
A
  1. 5 degrees cephalic
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19
Q 
The proximal tib/fib articulation is seen in
the:
1. AP Knee
2. Lateral Knee
3. Medial Oblique Knee
4. Lateral Oblique Knee
A
  1. Medial Oblique Knee
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20
Q 
Which of the following is NOT a name for
the axial view of the patella?
1. Settegast
2. Sunrise
3. Skyline
4. Skyfall
A
  1. Skyfall
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21
Q

The region above the pelvic brim:

  1. False pelvis
  2. Greater pelvis
  3. True pelvis
  4. Both 1 & 2
A
  1. Both 1 & 2 False pelvis & Greater pelvis
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22
Q

The lesser sciatic notch is found on the:

  1. Ilium
  2. Ileum
  3. Ischium
  4. Pubis
A
  1. Ischium
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23
Q

The most inferior structure on the pelvis:

  1. Iliac crest
  2. Obturator foramen
  3. Ischial spine
  4. Ischial tuberosity
A
  1. Ischial tuberosity
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24
Q

What bones comprise the obturator
foramen? 1.ilium 2.ischium 3.pubis

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 2 and 3
  3. 1 and 3
  4. 1, 2, and 3
A
  1. 2 and 3 ischium & pubis
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25
``` The most prominent part of the greater trochanter is in the same plane as the: 1. Ischial spine 2. Ischial tuberosity 3. ASIS 4. Pubic symphysis ```
4. Pubic symphysis
26
``` The intertrochanteric crest is seen on the ___ aspect of the femur 1. anterior 2. posterior 3. lateral 4. medial ```
2. posterior
27
``` The movement of the pubic symphysis is classified as: 1. Amphiarthrodial 2. Synarthrodial 3. Diarthrodial ```
1. Amphiarthrodial
28
``` For the AP Pelvis, the legs should be rotated internally _____ degrees 1. 5-7 2. 10-15 3. 15-20 4. 30-45 ```
3. 15-20
29
``` What should be seen in profile on an AP hip radiograph? 1. ASIS 2. Greater trochanter 3. Lesser trochanter 4. Femoral condyles ```
2. Greater trochanter
30
``` The CR enters at the ___ for a lateral projection of the hip 1. femoral neck 2. femoral head 3. ischial spine 4. acetabulum ```
1. femoral neck
31
Most superior aspect of the sternum: 1. Manubrium 2. Body 3. Xiphoid process 4. Sternal angle
1. Manubrium
32
The jugular notch corresponds to: 1. T1-T2 2. T2-T3 3. T4-T5 4. T10-T11
2. T2-T3
33
The body of the sternum is also known as: 1. Corpus 2. Diaphysis 3. Gladiolus 4. 1 & 3 only 5. 1, 2, & 3
4. 1 & 3 only Corpus & Gladiolus
34
The xiphoid process corresponds to: 1. T4-T5 2. T7 3. T10 4. L2-L3
3. T10
35
``` The ___ of the rib attaches to the body of the thoracic vertebra 1. head 2. tubercle 3. groove 4. apex ```
1. head
36
``` Joint between the sternum and the costal cartilage of the true ribs: 1. Costotransverse 2. Manubriosternal 3. Costochondral 4. Sternocostal ```
4. Sternocostal
37
Interchondral joints are found in ribs: 1. 1-7 2. 8-12 3. 6-10 4. 1-12
3. 6-10
38
``` The exposure for an AP projection of the lower ribs should be taken on: 1. Inspiration 2. Expiration 3. Shallow breathing 4. No breathing instructions required ```
2. Expiration
39
What is SID for the RAO sternum? 1. 30 inches 2. 40 inches 3. 48 inches 4. 72 inches
1. 30 inches
40
``` How many degrees is the patient rotated for the RAO sternum? 1. 0 2. 15-20 3. 30 4. 45 ```
2. 15-20
41
Which of the following curves are primary? 1. Thoracic & pelvic 2. Thoracic & cervical 3. Cervical & lumbar 4. Lumbar and pelvic
1. Thoracic & pelvic
42
Most posterior aspect of a vertebra: 1. Pedicle 2. Lamina 3. Transverse process 4. Spinous process
4. Spinous process
43
``` Articulation between the superior and inferior articular processes of two vertebrae: 1. Intervertebral joint 2. Zygapophyseal joint 3. Intervertebral foramina 4. Vertebral foramen ```
2. Zygapophyseal joint
44
``` The ______ is formed by the inferior vertebral notch articulating with the superior vertebral notch of an adjacent vertebra 1. intervertebral disk 2. intervertebral foramina 3. articular pillar 4. costal facet ```
2. intervertebral foramina
45
The inner part of the intervertebral disk: 1. Annulus fibrosus 2. Nucleus fibrosus 3. Annulus pulposus 4. Nucleus pulposus
4. Nucleus pulposus
46
Costal facets are found in the ____ vertebrae 1. cervical 2. thoracic 3. lumbar 4. sacral
2. thoracic
47
When performing the 45 degree RPO view of the C-spine, the intervertebral foramina are seen on the ____ side 1. up 2. down
1. up
48
In order to see the intervertebral foramina in the T-spine, which view should be performed? 1. 70-degee RPO/LPO 2. 70-degree RAO/LAO 3. 45-degree RPO/LPO 4. Lateral
4. Lateral
49
``` For a lateral c-spine, the CR should be perpendicular to: 1. C1 2. C4 3. C7 4. T2 ```
2. C4
50
``` When performing the AP projection of the C-spine at 40” SID, the CR should be angled: 1. 15 degrees cephalic 2. 15 degrees caudal 3. 0 degrees 4. 45 degrees cephalic ```
1. 15 degrees cephalic
51
CR angulation for Fuch’s view: 1. 15 degrees cephalic 2. 15 degrees caudal 3. 30 degrees cephalic 4. 30 degrees caudal
3. 30 degrees cephalic
52
``` Which kVp should be used for a soft tissue neck exam? 1. 55 kVp 2. 65 kVp 3. 80 kVp 4. 95 kVp ```
2. 65 kVp
53
CR location for the AP T-spine view: 1. C7-T1 2. T5 3. T7 4. T10
3. T7
54
The spinal cord terminates at: 1. T7 2. L1-L2 3. L3-L4 4. L5
2. L1-L2
55
``` The part of the lamina between the superior and inferior articular processes on a lumbar vertebra 1. Mamilary process 2. Accessory process 3. Spinous process 4. Pars interarticularis ```
4. Pars interarticularis
56
``` How many vertebrae fuse to form the coccyx? 1. 2 2. 3 3. 4 4. 5 ```
3. 4
57
The eye of the Scottie Dog: 1. Pedicle 2. Lamina 3. Transverse process 4. Inferior articular process
1. Pedicle
58
The body of the Scottie Dog: 1. Pedicle 2. Lamina 3. Superior articular process 4. Inferior articular process
2. Lamina
59
``` In a lateral view of the L-spine, the ____ are seen in profile 1. Intervertebral foramina 2. Zygapophyseal joints 3. Spinous processes 4. Vertebral bodies ```
3. Spinous processes
60
``` The CR is angled _____ for an AP projection of the coccyx 1. 10 degrees cephalic 2. 10 degrees caudal 3. 15 degrees cephalic 4. 15 degrees caudal ```
2. 10 degrees caudal
61
Medial junction of the upper and lower eyelids: 1. Inner canthus 2. Outer canthus 3. Nasion 4. Acanthion
1. Inner canthus
62
There is a __ degree difference between OML and IOML 1. 6 2. 7 3. 8 4. 9
2. 7
63
Reid’s baseline is another name for: 1. GML 2. OML 3. IOML 4. AML
3. IOML
64
The ____ is a posterior extension of the IOML 1. nasion 2. TEA 3. gonion 4. inion
4. inion
65
The ethmoidal notch is on the: 1. Ethmoid bone 2. Temporal bone 3. Maxillary bone 4. Frontal bone
4. Frontal bone
66
The basilar portion of the occipital bone articulates with the body of the ______ bone 1. frontal 2. sphenoid 3. temporal 4. parietal
2. sphenoid
67
The thick, conical process projecting from the cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone: 1. Crista galli 2. Labyrinth 3. Anterior clinoid process 4. Dorsum sellae
1. Crista galli
68
Posterior boundary of the sella turcica: 1. Tuberculum sellae 2. Dorsum sellae 3. Anterior clinoid process 4. Clivus
2. Dorsum sellae
69
Most vulnerable portion of the skull to fracture: 1. Parietal eminence 2. Frontal squama 3. Squamous portion of temporal bone 4. External occipital protuberance
3. Squamous portion of temporal bone
70
The zygomatic process is found on the: 1. Frontal bone 2. Maxillary bone 3. Temporal bone 4. Zygomatic bone
3. Temporal bone
71
``` If using the GML to position for a PA Caldwell of the skull, the CR should be angled: 1. 15 degrees cephalic 2. 15 degrees caudal 3. 23 degrees cephalic 4. 23 degrees caudal ```
4. 23 degrees caudal
72
When evaluating an AP Caldwell view of the skull, the _____ should be seen in the lower 1/3 of the orbits 1. sella turcica 2. petrous pyramids 3. cristal galli 4. maxillary sinuses
2. petrous pyramids
73
For a Towne’s view of the skull, the CR should exit the: 1. foramen magnum 2. jugular foramen 3. nasion 4. glabella
1. foramen magnum
74
When positioning the patient for a Lateral view of the skull, the _____ should be perpendicular to the edge of the cassette 1. IP line 2. MSP 3. OML 4. IOML
4. IOML
75
Only facial bone to contain a paranasal sinus 1. Zygoma 2. Maxillary 3. Mandible 4. Vomer
2. Maxillary
76
The posterior ethmoid sinuses drain into the 1. Middle nasal meatus 2. Superior nasal meatus 3. Sphenoethmoidal recess 4. Both 1 & 2
2. Superior nasal meatus
77
The sphenoid sinuses lie directly below: 1. Sella turcica 2. Petrous pyramids 3. Lesser wing of sphenoid 4. Optic foramen
1. Sella turcica
78
The orbits project ___ degrees superiorly from the OML 1. 15 2. 25 3. 30 4. 37
3. 30
79
The ____ separates the superior orbital fissure and the optic canal 1. optic foramen 2. sphenoid sinus 3. orbital apex 4. sphenoid strut
4. sphenoid strut
80
The ____ bone forms most of the orbital roof. 1. zygomatic 2. maxillary 3. frontal 4. temporal
3. frontal
81
Which view best demonstrates the frontal sinuses? 1. PA Caldwell 2. PA Towne’s 3. PA Waters 4. SMV
1. PA Caldwell
82
Which sinuses are best seen in the SMV projection? 1. Frontal & maxillary 2. Frontal & sphenoid 3. Sphenoid & ethmoid 4. Ethmoid & maxillary
3. Sphenoid & ethmoid
83
Best view to demonstrate a blowout fracture: 1. Waters 2. Caldwell 3. Rhese 4. Lateral
1. Waters
84
Smallest facial bone: 1. Vomer 2. Lacrimal bone 3. Palatine bone 4. zygoma
2. Lacrimal bone
85
The anterior nasal spine is found on the: 1. Zygomatic bone 2. Maxillary bone 3. Mandible 4. Frontal bone
2. Maxillary bone
86
The malar bone is another name for: 1. Mandible 2. Maxilla 3. Zygomatic bone 4. Lacrimal bone
3. Zygomatic bone
87
``` The _____ of the palatine bone helps to form the posterior nasal cavity 1. vertical plate 2. horizontal plate 3. temporal process 4. nasal spine ```
1. vertical plate
88
Forms the inferior part of the nasal septum: 1. Maxilla 2. Palatine bone 3. Vomer 4. Nasion
3. Vomer
89
Anterior end of the mandibular notch: 1. Condyle 2. Coracoid process 3. Tubercle 4. Coronoid process
4. Coronoid process
90
Only bone that does not articulate with any other bone: 1. Hyoid 2. Patella 3. Sesamoid 4. Flabella
1. Hyoid
91
The CR is perpendicular to the _____ for the SMV view of the facial bones 1. MSP 2. IOML 3. OML 4. IP line
2. IOML
92
Which view of the nasal bones is performed table-top? 1. Waters 2. PA Caldwell 3. Lateral 4. SMV
3. Lateral
93
The CR enters at the ____ for a lateral view of the nasal bones. 1. inner canthus 2. outer canthus 3. nasion 4. EAM
1. inner canthus
94
The CR exits the ____for a PA view of the mandible 1. Nasion 2. TMJ 3. Acanthion 4. Mental protuberance
3. Acanthion

Final Exam Rad II Study Prep (6 decks)

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