Rad210 Final Review Flashcards by Amaya Barnes

How Many separate bones are in the human body?

A. 236
B. 215
C. 206
D. 191

C. 206

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Which of the following bone is classified as a long bone?

A. Cranium
B. Humerus
C. Carpal Bone
D. Scapula

B. Humerus

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Which of the following bones are classified as a short bone?

A. Phalanges (toes)
B. Scapulae
C. Vertebra
D. Carpal (Wrist bones)

D. Carpal (wrist bones)

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Examples of flat bones are the

A. sternum and illia of pelvis only
B. calvaria ,ribs , scapulae and sternum
C. ribs , sternum , patella and illia of pelvis
D. Sternum , scapulae , illia of pelvis and basic of cranium

B. calvaria ,ribs , scapulae and sternum

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The structural term for freely movable joint is

A. Synovial
B. Cartilaginous
C. Fibrous
D. Gomphosis

A. Synovial

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An upright position with the arms abducted palms forward and head forward describes the ________ position ?

A. Decubitus
B. Anatomic
C. Anteroposterior (AP)
D. Oblique

B. Anatomic

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A representation of the patients anatomic structures that can be obtained , viewed, manipulated and stored digitally is the definition for

A. Radiographic Examination
B. Radigraphic Position
C. Radiography
D. Radiographic Image

D. Radiographic Image

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The vertical plane that divides the body into equal right and left halves describe the ________ plane

A. Coronal
B. Medial or midsagittal
C. Horizontal
D. Longitudinal

B. Medial Or Midsagittal

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A longitudinal plane that divides the body into equal anterior and posterior parts is the _____ plane.

A. horizontal
B. oblique
C. midcoronal
D. midsagittal

C. Midcoronal

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A patient is erect with the left side directly against the image receptor. The central ray (CR) enters the right side of the body. What is this radiographic position?

A. Dorsal decubitus
B. Left lateral
C. Right lateral
D. Left lateral decubitus

B. Left Lateral

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A patient is lying on her back. The x-ray tube is horizontally directed with the CR entering the right side of the body. The image receptor is adjacent to the left side of the body. What is the radiographic position?

A. Right lateral decubitus
B. Left lateral decubitus
C. Left lateral
D. Dorsal decubitus

D. Dorsal Decubitus

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A patient is erect facing the image receptor. The left side of the body is turned 45 degrees toward the image receptor. The CR enters the posterior aspect of the body and exits the anterior. What is this radiographic position?

A. LPO
B. LAO
C. Left lateral
D. Posteroanterior (PA)

B. LAO

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What type of projection is created with the CR directed along or parallel to the long axis of a structure or anatomic part?

A. Lordotic
B. Tangential
C. Transthoracic
D. Axial

D. Axial

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A projection in which the CR skims a body part to project it in profile is termed:

A. axial.
B. lordotic.
C. tangential.
D. decubitus.

C. Tangential

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The two most common landmarks for chest positioning are the:

A. lower margin of thyroid cartilage and vertebra prominens.
B. top of shoulders and xiphoid process.
C. jugular notch and vertebra prominens.
D. jugular notch and top of shoulders.

C. Jugular notch and vertebra prominens

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The vertebra prominens corresponds to the level of:

A. C4-5.
B. T2.
C. C7.
D. C5.

C. C7

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What is a common palpable landmark for the AP chest projection on the bariatric (obese) patient?

A. Jugular notch
B. Costal angle
C. Xiphoid process
D. Vertebra prominens

A. Jugular notch

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The central ray (CR) for an anteroposterior (AP) supine, adult chest projection, should be centered:

A. at the xiphoid process.
B. 3 to 4 inches (8 to 10 cm) below the jugular notch.
C. to the level of T4.
D. to the level of iliac crest

B. 3 to 4 inches (8 to 10 cm) below the jugular notch

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Which type of body habitus typically requires that the image receptor be placed landscape rather than portrait for a posteroanterior (PA) chest?

A. Asthenic
B. Hypersthenic
C. Sthenic
D. Hyposthenic

B. Hyperstenic

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A well-inspired healthy adult chest PA projection will have a minimum of ____ posterior ribs seen above the diaphragm.

A. 7
B. 10
C. 12
D. 8

B. 10

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Which of the following objects does NOT have to be removed or moved before a chest radiography?

A. T-shirt
B. Bra
C. Necklace
D. Hearing aids

D. Hearing Aids

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Which of the following analog technical factors is ideal for adult chest radiography?

A. 100 kVp, 60-inch (150-cm) source–image receptor distance (SID)
B. 120 kVp, 72-inch (180-cm) SID
C. 125 kVp, 40-inch (100-cm) SID
D. 120 kVp, 60-inch (150-cm) SID

B. 120 kVp, 72-inch(180 cm) SID

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A PA chest radiograph reveals that only seven ribs are seen above the diaphragm on a healthy adult. Which of the following suggestions would improve the inspiration of lungs?

A. Use a shorter exposure time.
B. Use higher kVp to penetrate the diaphragm.
C. Take exposure on the second inspiration rather than on the first.
D. Perform chest position supine.

C. Take exposure on the second inspiration rather than on the first.

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What is the primary disadvantage of performing an AP projection of the chest rather than a PA?

A. Distortion of the ribs
B. AP projection requires more kVp as compared with the PA projection
C. Increased magnification of the heart
D. More radiation exposure to the lungs

C. Increased magnification of the heart

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Of the following factors, which one is most crucial to demonstrate possible air and fluid levels in the chest? A. High-kVp technique B. Patient in erect or decubitus position C. 72-inch (180-cm) SID D. Using high mA and short exposure time

B. Pt in erect or decubitus position

A PA chest radiograph reveals that the left sternoclavicular joint is closer to the spine than the right joint. What specific positioning error has been committed? A. Rotation into the right anterior oblique (RAO) position B. Right tilt C. Rotation into the left anterior oblique (LAO) position D. Left tilt

C. Rotation into the left anterior oblique (LAO) position

Which of the following factors must be applied to minimize distortion of the heart? A. 72-inch (180-cm) SID B. High-kVp technique C. Performing study recumbent D. Using high mA and short exposure time

A. 72-inch (180-cm) SID

Of the following positioning actions, which one will remove most of the scapulae from the lung fields? A. Roll shoulders forward. B. Elevate chin. C. None of the options. D. Depress shoulders.

A. Roll shoulders forward.

For an average-size female patient, where is the CR placed for a PA projection of the chest? A. 7 inches (18 cm) below the vertebra prominens B. 3 inches (7.6 cm) below the jugular notch C. 2 inches (5 cm) above the shoulders D. 8 inches (20 cm) below the vertebra prominens

A. 7 inches (18 cm) below the vertebra prominens

A patient enters the emergency department (ED) to be treated for severe trauma. The physician orders an AP supine chest to evaluate the lungs. What can the technologist do to reduce the magnification of the heart? A. Place the cassette landscape. B. Increase SID as much as possible. C. Increase super optical device (SOD) as much as possible. D. Use a short exposure time.

B. Increase SID as much as possible.

An ambulatory patient comes to radiology with a clinical history of possible pneumonia. The patient complains of pain in the center of her chest. What positioning routine should be performed on this patient? A. PA and right and left lateral projections B. AP and right lateral projections C. PA and left lateral projections D. PA and both decubitus projections

C. PA and left lateral projections

Why must the technologist slightly angle the CR caudad for most AP projections of the chest? A. Separates the heart from the great vessels. B. Prevents clavicles from obscuring apices of the lungs. C. Prevents overlap of the chin on the upper airway. D. Elongates the carina.

B. Prevents clavicles from obscuring apices of the lungs.

Situs inversus is a condition in which: A. the heart is located in the left thorax. B. the thymus gland is absent. C. the liver is in the left abdomen. D. all major organs are in the opposite side of the body.

D. all major organs are in the opposite side of the body.

The CR for an AP supine chest should be aligned: A. perpendicular to the long axis of the clavicles. B. perpendicular to the long axis of sternum. C. at the level of the xiphoid process. D. at the level of the jugular notch.

B. perpendicular to the long axis of sternum.

The xiphoid process is a reliable positioning landmark for determining the lower margin of the lungs for chest positioning. False True

False

Top of image receptor placed approximately 3 inches (7.6 cm) above the shoulders is a recommended centering technique for adult chest radiography. True False

False

Scoliosis and kyphosis may produce asymmetry of the sternoclavicular joints and rib cage as demonstrated on a PA chest radiograph. True False

True

The CR is centered to midsternum for the AP apical lordotic projection with a 14- × 17-inch (35- × 43-cm) image receptor (IR). True False

True

As a general rule, the use of high kVp (110 to 120 kVp) requires the use of a grid during chest radiography. False True

true

Which projection will BEST demonstrates the apices? A. RPO Upright B. PA Supine C. PA Upright D. RAO Supine

C. PA Upright

What is the relationship of the coronal and sagittal planes to the IR for a lateral position of the chest? A. the coronal plane is parallel and the sagittal plane is parallel to IR B. the coronal plane is perpendicular and the sagittal plane is perpendicular to IR C. the coronal plane is perpendicular and the sagittal plane is parallel to IR

C. the coronal plane is perpendicular and the sagittal plane is parallel to IR

What is the degree of body rotation for a (LPO) left posterior oblique position of the chest? A. 45 degrees B. 35 degrees C. 55 degrees D. 25 degrees

A. 45 degrees

What position most accurately demonstrates the heart region without as much magnification? A. right lateral projection B. left lateral projection C. AP projection D. PA projection

B. left lateral projection

The heart is located primarily where in the thoracic cavity? A. anteriorly and on the right B. posteriorly and on the right C. posteriorly and on the left D. anteriorly and on the left

D. Anteriorly and on the left

The right lung is usually about 1 inch shorter than the left lung. True False

false

All adult chest x-ray images should be obtained using a 62 inch SID True False

False

Posterior oblique projections provide best visualization of the side CLOSEST to the IR. True False

false

What 2 projections of the chest are the most commonly performed as a routine exam within a radiology department?

PA Chest Lateral Chest

How many carpal bones are found in the wrist? A. 8 B. 7 C. 5 D. 14

A. 8

The joint found between the base of the third metacarpal and carpal bone is the: A. proximal metacarpophalangeal. B. intercarpal. C. interphalangeal. D.carpometacarpal.

D.carpometacarpal.

Which of the carpal bones is considered to be the largest? A. Triquetrum B. Trapezium C. Hamate D. Capitate

D. Capitate

Which is the most commonly fractured carpal bone? A. Trapezium B. Hamate C. Lunate D. Scaphoid

D. Scaphoid

Which of the following bony structures is found on the distal aspect of the ulna? A. Olecranon process B. Coronoid process C. Head D. All of the options

C. Head

Which of the following structures is considered to be most proximal? A. Radial styloid process B. Radial tuberosity C. Olecranon process D. Head of ulna

C. Olecranon process

Which of the following structures is considered to be most lateral? A. Capitulum B. Head of ulna C. Coronoid tubercle D. Trochlea

A. Capitulum

What two bony landmarks are palpated for positioning of the AP elbow? A. Humeral condyles B. Ulnar and radial heads C. Humeral epicondyles D. Trochlea and capitulum

C. Humeral epicondyles

An ellipsoidal joint allows movement in ____ directions. A. four B. all C. two D. six

A. four

The bending or forcing of the hand outwardly with the hand pronated in a posteroanterior (PA) projection is known as: A. ulnar extension. B. radial abduction. C. ulnar deviation. D. radial deviation.

C. ulnar deviation.

Grids are generally not required unless the anatomy measures greater than _____ cm in thickness. A. 14 B. 8 C. 5 D. 10

D. 10

Where is the central ray (CR) placed for a PA projection of the third digit? A. At the metacarpophalangeal joint B. At the proximal interphalangeal joint C. At the distal interphalangeal joint D. At the head of the third metacarpal

B. At the proximal interphalangeal joint

Local or generalized infection of bone or bone marrow caused by bacteria introduced by trauma or surgery is a condition termed: A. Paget disease. B. osteoarthritis. C. osteomyelitis. D. cellulitis.

C. osteomyelitis.

Why is it recommended that the PA oblique (with medial rotation) projection be performed rather than the PA oblique (with lateral rotation) for the second digit of the hand? A. Is more comfortable for the patient. B. Minimizes optimal immunomodulating dose (OID). C. Minimizes object image–receptor distance (OID). D. Opens up joints better.

C. Minimizes object image–receptor distance (OID).

Where is the CR centered for a PA projection of the hand? A. At the base of the third metacarpal B. At the third metacarpophalangeal joint C. At the third distal interphalangeal joint D. At the third proximal interphalangeal joint

B. At the third metacarpophalangeal joint

Why is it important to keep the phalanges parallel to the IR for a PA oblique projection of the hand? A. Prevents foreshortening of radiocarpal joint. B. Demonstrates the sesamoid bones near the first interphalangeal joint. C. Opens up the carpometacarpal joints. D. Prevents foreshortening of phalanges and obscuring of interphalangeal joints.

D. Prevents foreshortening of phalanges and obscuring of interphalangeal joints.

Which specific anatomy is better visualized with a fan lateral as compared with the other lateral projections of the hand? A. Carpometacarpal joints B. Sesamoid bones C. Phalanges D. Carpals

C. Phalanges

How much rotation of the humeral epicondyles is required for the AP medial oblique projection of the elbow? A. 30 degrees B. 45 degrees C. 90 degrees D. 20 degrees

B. 45 degrees

Which special projection of the wrist will open up the interspaces on the ulnar side of the wrist? A. Ulnar deviation B. Carpal canal C. Carpal bridge D. Radial deviation

D. Radial deviation

Which of the following actions will lead to the proximal radius crossing over the ulna? A. Supination of the hand B. Pronation of the hand C. Placing epicondyles parallel to the image receptor D. External rotation of the elbow

B. Pronation of the hand

Which routine projection of the elbow best demonstrates the olecranon process in profile? A. Medial rotation oblique B. AP C. Lateral rotation oblique D. Lateral

D. Lateral

Which basic projection of the elbow best demonstrates the trochlear notch in profile? A. Medial rotation oblique B. AP C. Lateral D. Lateral rotation oblique

C. Lateral

How should the humeral epicondyles be aligned for a lateral projection of the elbow? A. 30 degrees to image receptor B. 45 degrees to image receptor C. Perpendicular to image receptor D. Parallel to image receptor

C. Perpendicular to image receptor

A radiograph of the elbow demonstrates the radius directly superimposed over the ulna and the coronoid process in profile. Which projection of the elbow has been performed? A. Medial (internal) rotation oblique B. AP C. Lateral D. Lateral (external) rotation oblique

A. Medial (internal) rotation oblique

A radiograph of a PA oblique of the hand reveals that the midshaft of the fourth and fifth metacarpals is superimposed. What specific positioning error has been committed? A. Incorrect CR angulation B. Fingers of the hand are not parallel to IR C. Excessive rotation of the hand and/or wrist laterally D. Insufficient rotation of the hand and/or wrist laterally

C. Excessive rotation of the hand and/or wrist laterally

A radiograph of a PA projection of the hand reveals that the distal radius and ulna and the carpals were cut off. What should the technologist do to correct this problem? A. Accept the radiograph. Carpals and distal radius and ulna are not part of a hand study. B. Make sure the carpals, distal radius, and ulna are included on the lateral projection. C. If the injury to the patient did not involve the carpal region and distal forearm, do not repeat it. D. Repeat the PA projection to include all the carpals and about 1 inch (2.5 cm) of the distal radius and ulna.

D. Repeat the PA projection to include all the carpals and about 1 inch (2.5 cm) of the distal radius and ulna.

A radiograph of an AP oblique elbow with medial rotation reveals that the radial head is superimposed over part of the coronoid process. What positioning error has been committed? A. Excessive medial rotation B. Incorrect CR angulation C. Flexion of the elbow D. Excessive lateral rotation

A. Excessive medial rotation

A patient enters the ED in severe pain with a possible dislocation of the elbow. The patient has the elbow flexed more than 90 degrees. Which one of the following routines should be performed to confirm the diagnosis? A. Jones method and limited lateral projection B. Lateral elbow only C. Coyle method and limited lateral projection D. Partially flexed AP and limited lateral projections

D. Partially flexed AP and limited lateral projections

A radiograph of the PA scaphoid projection reveals extensive superimposition of the scaphoid and adjacent carpals. Which of the following factors can lead to this problem? A. Insufficient CR angle distally B. Slight flexion of the phalanges C. Elevation of the hand and wrist D. Insufficient ulnar deviation

D. Insufficient ulnar deviation

The radiographic criteria for a true lateral finger indicate equal concavity of the anterior and posterior aspects of the phalanges. True False

true

What are the routine projections for a chest xray?

PA and Lateral

What is the central ray for a abdomen (KUB) supine?

level of iliac crests, with bottom margin at symphysis pubis

What is the minimum SID for all upper limb images?

40in

What special projection of the wrist requires the CR be angle 10-15 degrees proximally? A. Lateral B. PA Axial scaphoid with ulnar deviation of the wrist C. AP Axial projection D. PA projection

B. PA Axial scaphoid with ulnar deviation of the wrist

The proper centering point (CR) for a PA projection of the hand is the? A. midshaft of the third metacarpal B. third metatarsophalangeal joint C. third metacarpophalangeal joint D.first metacarpophalangeal joint

C. third metacarpophalangeal joint

For a lateral projection of the wrist: A. The central ray is parallel B. The radial surface must be in contact with the image receptor C. The radius and ulna should be superimposed D. Use the fastest image receptor speed possible

C. The radius and ulna should be superimposed

For a lateral projection of the forearm, which statements are true? 1. The ulnar surface must be in contact with the image receptor 2. The thumb should be in a relaxed position 3. The humerus and forearm should be in contact with the table 4. The elbow should be flexed 45 degrees 5. The central ray is directed toward the injured joint A. 1, 3 B. 1, 2, 3 C. 1, 5 D. 1, 4, 5

A. 1, 3

For an AP projection of the elbow, which of the following statements are true? 1. The forearm and humerus should be at right angles 2. The central ray is directed perpendicular to the joint 3. The forearm and humerus should be parallel to the table 4. The hand must be pronated 5. The patient may have to lean laterally to ensure AP alignment A. 1, 4, 5 B. 3, 4, 5 C. 1 only D. 2, 3, 5

D. 2, 3, 5

What is the degree of flexion the elbow should be place in for a true lateral image of the elbow? A. 62 degrees B. 10-15 degrees C. 45 degrees D. 90 degrees

D. 90 degrees

Ginglymus or hinge type joints move in two directions only, flexion and extension. True False

True

With the hand flat, the thumb will be in the following position: A. Oblique B. PA C. Lateral D. AP

A. Oblique

Optimal _________________will provide the proper penetration to demonstrate the bony cortex and bony trabecular markings. A. instructions B. kVp C. mAs D. positioning

B. kVp

What projection and body part does this describe? Patient position: Seated, forearm extended resting on table with hand on IR ulnar side down Part position: a. Rotate hand and wrist 45 degrees b. place digits on a 45 degree angle to show interphalangeal joints c. Adjust digits parallel to IR Central Ray: Perpendicular to 3rd metacarpophalangeal joint

PA Hand Oblique

What projection and body part does this describe? Patient position: Seated, with hand and arm fully extended, palm supinated Part position: a. Drop shoulder to place upper limb on same horizontal plane b. Align and center forearm to long axis if IR, ensuring both wrist and elbow joints are included c. Palpate the medial and lateral epicondyles to ensure the are same distance from IR Central Ray: Perpendicular to IR, directed to midpoint of forearm

AP Foreman

The _____________ is the largest and longest bone of the upper limb. A. clavicle B. humerus C. ulna D. radial

B. humerus

The process directly below the anatomic neck on the anterior surface of the humerus is the ___________________________. A. lesser tubercle B. coracoid process C. greater tubercle D. acromion

A. lesser tubercle

Which of the following joints is considered to have a ball and socket (spheroidal) type of movement? A. Sternoclavicular joints B. Acromioclavicular joints C. Scapulohumeral joint D. Bicipital joint

C. Scapulohumeral joint

Which rotation of the humerus will result in a lateral position of the proximal humerus? A. None of the options B. Neutral rotation (epicondyles 45 degrees to the image receptor) C. Internal rotation (epicondyles perpendicular to image receptor) D. External rotation (epicondyles parallel to the image receptor)

C. Internal rotation (epicondyles perpendicular to image receptor)

Which AP projection of the shoulder and proximal humerus is created by placing the affected palm of the hand facing inward toward the thigh? A. AP axial B. Internal rotation C. External rotation D. Neutral rotation

D. Neutral rotation

Which of the following shoulder projections best demonstrates the glenoid cavity in profile? A. Garth method B. AP shoulder, neutral rotation C. Clements modification D. Grashey method

D. Grashey method

How much CR angulation is required for a PA oblique (scapular Y) projection? A. 10 to 15 degrees B. 20 to 30 degrees C. 35 to 45 degrees D. No CR angle is required

B. 20 to 30 degrees

Where is the CR centered for a transthoracic lateral projection for proximal humerus? A. Midaxilla B. Level of the greater tubercle C. Level of surgical neck D. 1-inch (2.5-cm) inferior to the acromion

C. Level of surgical neck

Which projection of the shoulder requires that the patient be rotated 45 to 60 degrees toward the IR from a PA position? A. Inferosuperior axiolateral projection B. None of the options C. AP oblique projection D. PA oblique projection-Scapular Y lateral

D. PA oblique projection-Scapular Y lateral

Which alternative landmark can be palpated if unable to locate the coracoid process for the shoulder projection for the obese shoulder? A. Lesser tubercle of humerus B. AC joint C. Greater tubercle of humerus D. Inferior angle of scapula

B. AC joint

Where is the CR centered for the bilateral acromioclavicular (AC) joint projection on a single 14 × 17 inch (35 × 43 cm) image receptor? A. 1 inch (2.5 cm) above the jugular notch B. At the affected AC joint C. At the level of the thyroid cartilage D. At the sternal angle

A. 1 inch (2.5 cm) above the jugular notch

How much CR angulation is required for an asthenic patient for an AP axial projection of the clavicle? A. 30 degrees B. No CR angulation should be used for this projection C. 45 degrees D. 15 degrees

A. 30 degrees

A radiograph of an AP oblique (Grashey method) projection for the glenoid cavity reveals that the anterior and posterior rims of the glenoid process are not superimposed. Which of the following modifications should produce a more acceptable image? A. Abduct the arm slightly. B. Angle CR 5- to 10-degree caudad. C. Angle CR 5- to 10-degree cephalad. D. Increase rotation of the body toward the IR.

D. Increase rotation of the body toward the IR.

A radiograph for an AP projection with external rotation of the proximal humerus reveals that the greater tubercle is profiled laterally. What should be changed to improve this image for a repeat exposure? A. Move the patient obliquely 10 to 15 degrees toward the affected side. B. Rotate epicondyles so they are perpendicular to the image receptor. C. Positioning is acceptable; do not repeat it. D. Rotate the arm to place palm of the patient’s hand against the thigh.

D. Rotate the arm to place palm of the patient’s hand against the thigh.

A radiograph of a transthoracic lateral projection reveals that it is difficult to visualize the proximal humerus due to the ribs and lung markings. The following analog exposure factors were used: 75 kVp, 30 mAs, 40-inch (100-cm) SID, grid, and suspended respiration. Which of the following changes will improve the visibility of the proximal humerus? A. Use an orthostatic (breathing) technique. B. Use a 72-inch (180-cm) SID. C. Make the exposure on second inspiration. D. Use a compression band to prevent patient movement.

A. Use an orthostatic (breathing) technique.

A radiograph of an AP clavicle reveals that the sternal extremity is partially collimated off. What should the technologist do? A. Only repeat it if the patient’s pain/symptoms involve the sternal extremity. B. Make sure the sternal extremity is included on the AP axial projection. C. Ask the radiologist whether he or she wants the projection repeated. D. Repeat the AP projection and correct collimation.

D. Repeat the AP projection and correct collimation.

A radiograph of a PA oblique (scapular Y) lateral position reveals that the scapula is slightly rotated (the vertebral and axillary borders are not superimposed). The axillary (medial) border of the scapula is determined to be more lateral compared with the vertebral (lateral) border. Which of the following modifications should be made for the repeat exposure? A. Increase rotation of thorax (toward the IR). B. Decrease rotation of thorax (away from the IR). C. Abduct the arm more and flex it at the elbow. D. Decrease CR angle.

A. Increase rotation of thorax (toward the IR).

A patient comes to the emergency department (ED) with a possible right AC joint separation. Right clavicle and AC joint examinations are ordered. The clavicle is taken first, and a small linear fracture of the midshaft of the clavicle is discovered. What should the technologist do in this situation? A. Slowly give the patient more weight to hold until he begins to complain and then complete the AC joint study. B. Perform the weight-bearing phase as ordered. C. Reduce the amount of weight that would normally be given to the patient and perform the weight-bearing study. D. Consult with the ED physician before continuing with the AC joint study.

D. Consult with the ED physician before continuing with the AC joint study.

A patient enters the ED with a midshaft humeral fracture. The AP projection taken on the cart demonstrates another fracture near the surgical neck of the humerus. The patient is unable to stand or rotate the humerus because of the extent of the trauma. What other projection should be taken for this patient? A. Rotational lateral projection for humerus B. Horizontal beam transthoracic lateral projection for humerus C. Scapular Y lateral—AP oblique projection D. Apical oblique projection

B. Horizontal beam transthoracic lateral projection for humerus

The AP humerus requires that the humeral epicondyles are _____ to the IR. A. parallel B. slightly oblique C. set at a 45-degree angle D. perpendicular

A. parallel

A patient enters the ED with multiple injuries including a possible fracture of the left proximal humerus. Which positioning rotation should be performed to determine the extent of the humerus injury? A. AP and apical oblique shoulder without any arm rotation B. AP shoulder as is; show radiograph to the ED physician before attempting a rotational lateral projection C. AP neutral shoulder rotation and carefully rotated internally proximal humerus D. AP and horizontal beam transthoracic lateral shoulder projection

D. AP and horizontal beam transthoracic lateral shoulder projection

For a scapular Y projection (PA oblique) of the shoulder, which of the following are true? 1. The central ray is directed to the shoulder at a 10-degree cephalad angle 2. The anterior surface of the affected shoulder is centered to the image receptor 3. The patient is rotated so that the midcoronal plane forms a 45- to 60-degree angle with the image receptor 4. The patient continues shallow breathing during exposure A. 2, 3 B. 1, 4 C. 1, 2 D. 1, 3, 4

A. 2, 3

For a lateral projection of the humerus, which of the following are true? 1. The hand should be pronated 2. The patient may be upright or supine 3. The humeral epicondyles are placed perpendicular to the image receptor 4. The arm should be slightly adducted 5. The central ray is directed perpendicular to the midshaft A. 3, 4, 5 B. 2, 3, 5 C. 1, 2, 4, 5 D. 1 and 2 only

B. 2, 3, 5

When the clavicle is being radiographed, which of the following are true? 1. PA projection must always be used 2. A central ray angle of 25 to 30 degrees cephalad is used for the PA axial projection 3. The patient’s head should be turned away from the affected side 4. AP projection may be used for patient comfort 5. An erect position may be used for patient comfort 6. A central ray angle of 25 to 30 degrees caudad is used for the PA axial projection A. 1, 3, 4, 6 B. 3, 4, 5, 6 C. 1, 2, 5, 6 D. 2, 3, 4, 5

B. 3, 4, 5, 6

Synovial joints are called? A. synarthroses B. diarthroses C. amphiarthroses D. mesocephalic

B. diarthroses

Fibrous joints are called? A. diarthroses B. synarthroses C. amphiarthroses D. mesocephalic

B. synarthroses

The upper margin of the scapula is at the level of the second posterior rib, and the lower margin is at the level of the seventh posterior rib (T7). True False

True

____________________________ is a long bone with a double curvature that has three main parts.

Ulna

The male clavicle is usually shorter and less curved than the female clavicle. The female clavicle tends to be thicker and more curved, usually being most curved in heavily muscled women. true false

false

What are the name(s) of the upper parts of the scapula that form the Y. A. glenoid fossa and scapular notch B. coracoid process and scapular notch C. acromion and the coracoid process D. acromion and glenoid fossa

C. acromion and the coracoid process

Which rotation of the humerus will place the humerus in a true AP or frontal position? A. internal rotation B. neutral rotation C. external rotation D. none of the above

B. neutral rotation

Which of these factors are correct for adult humerus and shoulder. 1. Medium kVp, 70 to 85, with grid for shoulder thickness >10 cm (<10 cm, 70 to 75 kVp without grid) 2. Higher milliampere (mA) with short exposure times 3. Small focal spot 4. Adequate mAs for sufficient density (brightness) (for visualization of soft tissues, bone margins, and trabecular markings of all bones) 5. 40- to 44-inch (100- to 110-cm) source–image receptor distance (SID) except for AC joints, which may use a 72-inch (180-cm) SID for less beam divergence. A. All of the above B. 3 only C. 2, 4, 5 D. 1, 2, 3 only

A. All of the above

Adult shoulders generally measure 10 to 15 cm, and the use of a grid is required. True False

True

What projection and body part does this describe? (LIST BOTH) Part Position * Rotate body toward affected side as needed to bring shoulder and proximal humerus into contact with cassette. * Align humerus with long axis of IR, unless diagonal placement is needed to include both shoulder and elbow joints. * Extend hand and forearm as far as patient can tolerate. * Abduct arm slightly and gently supinate hand so that epicondyles of elbow are parallel and equidistant from IR.

AP Projection and Humerus

What projection and body part does this describe? Part Position * Rotate body 35° to 45° toward affected side. If the position is performed with the patient in the recumbent position, place supports under elevated shoulder and hip to maintain this position. * Center mid-scapulohumeral joint to CR and to center of IR. * Adjust image receptor so that top of IR is approximately 2 inches (5 cm) above shoulder and side of IR is approximately 2 inches (5 cm) from lateral border of humerus. * Abduct arm slightly with arm flexed and in neutral rotation.

PA Oblique and shoulder

Patients should not be asked to hold onto the weights with their hands; the weights should be attached to the wrists so that the hands, arms, and shoulders are relaxed and possible AC joint separation can be determined. Holding onto weights may result in false-negative radiographs because they tend to pull on the weights, resulting in contraction rather than relaxation of the shoulder muscles. True False

True

The humeral head articulates with the: A. Acromion B. Infraspinous fossa C. Coracoid process D. Glenoid cavity

D. Glenoid cavity

The scapulohumeral joint allows for the following types of movement: 1. Abduction 2. Circumduction 3. Extension A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1, 2, and 3 D. 1 only

C. 1, 2, and 3

For most shoulder dislocations, the humeral head is displaced: A. Posteriorly B. Inferiorly C. Anteriorly D. Superiorly

C. Anteriorly

For an AP projection of the shoulder, the central ray is centered: A. 1 inch inferior to the corocoid process B. 2 inches medial to the corocoid process C. 2 inches medial to the acromion D. 1 inch inferior to the acromion

A. 1 inch inferior to the corocoid process

For the AP oblique projection (Grashey method) of the shoulder, the CR is directed: A. 4 inches inferior and 4 inches medial to the superolateral border of the shoulder B. 4 inches inferior and 4 inches lateral to the superolateral border of the shoulder C. 2 inches inferior and 2 inches medial to the superolateral border of the shoulder D. 2 inches inferior and 2 inches lateral to the superolateral border of the shoulder

C. 2 inches inferior and 2 inches medial to the superolateral border of the shoulder

The inferior angle of the scapula is formed by the union of the: 1. Superior border 2. Medial border 3. Lateral border A. 2 and 3 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 1 only D. 1 and 2 only

A. 2 and 3 only

Which of the following muscles should be demonstrated on a properly exposed abdomen projection on an average-size patient? A. Erector spinae B. Psoas major C. Quadratus lumborum D. Latissimus dorsi

B. Psoas major

Which aspect of the small intestine is considered the shortest? A. Jejunum B. Ileum C. Cecum D. Duodenum

D. Duodenum

Which of the following organs is NOT considered an accessory organ for digestion? A. Liver B. Pancreas C. Gallbladder D. Spleen

D. Spleen

Which of the following solid organs is the largest in the abdomen? A. Pancreas B. Kidneys C. Liver D. Spleen

C. Liver

Which of the following structures is part of the lymphatic system? A. Suprarenal glands B. Inferior vena cava C. Spleen D. Kidneys

C. Spleen

Why is the right kidney usually lower in the abdomen than the left kidney? A. Presence of the liver B. Presence of right colic flexure C. Presence of right suprarenal gland D. Presence of the stomach

A. Presence of the liver

In which of the four major quadrants of the abdomen would the cecum be found? A. Right upper quadrant B. Left upper quadrant C. Right lower quadrant D. Left lower quadrant

C. Right lower quadrant

In which of the four major quadrants of the abdomen would the gallbladder be found? A. Left upper quadrant B. Right lower quadrant C. Left lower quadrant D. Right upper quadrant

D. Right upper quadrant

The xiphoid process is at the vertebral level of: A. L2-3. B. T5-6. C. T2-3. D. T9-10.

C. T2-3.

Which of the following analog exposure factors would produce the desired qualities for an abdominal projection on an average-size adult? A. 75 kVp, 400 mA, 1/20 seconds, nongrid, 40-inch (100-cm) SID B. 75 kVp, 400 mA, 1/15 seconds, grid, 60-inch (150-cm) SID C. 75 kVp, 600 mA, 1/30 seconds, grid, 40-inch (100-cm) SID D. 90 kVp, 600 mA, 1/20 seconds, grid, 40-inch (100-cm) SID

C. 75 kVp, 600 mA, 1/30 seconds, grid, 40-inch (100-cm) SID

Which term describes an abnormal accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity of the abdomen? A. Intussusception B. Adynamic ileus C. Volvulus D. Ascites

D. Ascites

What type of respiration should be employed prior to exposure for the anteroposterior (AP) kidneys, ureter, and bladder (KUB) abdomen projection? A. Shallow breathing during exposure B. Either inspiration or expiration C. Expiration D. Inspiration

C. Expiration

The iliac crest corresponds with the ____ vertebral level. A. T12 B. L1 C. L2-3 D. L4-5

D. L4-5

A 16-year-old female patient enters the emergency department (ED) with a possible kidney stone. She complains of pain in the right lower pelvis region. Which of the following options should be taken in regard to gonadal shielding? A. Use it on the preliminary projection only. B. Ask the patient or her parents for their permission to not shield the gonads. C. Do not use it. D. Use it on all projections if correctly placed.

C. Do not use it.

At what level should the central ray (CR) be placed for a left lateral decubitus projection of the abdomen? A. 2 inches (5 cm) above iliac crest B. ASIS C. Umbilicus D. Iliac crest

A. 2 inches (5 cm) above iliac crest

A patient comes to radiology with a clinical history of an umbilical hernia. Which one of the following abdomen projections would best demonstrate it? A. Left lateral decubitus B. Dorsal decubitus C. AP erect abdomen D. KUB

B. Dorsal decubitus

Where is the CR centered for the AP erect projection of the abdomen? A. 2 inches (5 cm) above iliac crest B. Level of iliac crest C. Xiphoid process D. 2 inches (5 cm) below iliac crest

A. 2 inches (5 cm) above iliac crest

What is the kVp range that is recommended for a AP Supine Abdomen projection (KUB) on an adult?

70-85 kVp

Why is the PA projection of the abdomen less desirable for a KUB than the AP projection? A. The PA projection is less comfortable for the patient. B. There is an increased gonadal dose with the PA projection. C. It is not less desirable, but it is the radiographer’s choice. D. Kidneys are farther from the image receptor with PA projection.

D. Kidneys are farther from the image receptor with PA projection.

A patient is in the intensive care unit after abdominal surgery. The surgeon is concerned about a possible perforated bowel. The patient cannot stand or sit. Which of the following positions will best demonstrate any possible intra-abdominal free air? A. Ventral decubitus B. Dorsal decubitus C. Right lateral decubitus D. Left lateral decubitus

D. Left lateral decubitus

What CR (central ray) should be used for a dorsal decubitus projection of the abdomen? A. At level of umbilicus B. Place bottom of image receptor at level of ASIS. C. 2 inches (5 cm) above iliac crest D. At level of iliac crest

C. 2 inches (5 cm) above iliac crest

Which of the following factors should be followed for an AP erect abdomen projection? A. Use a higher kVp technique. B. Increase SID to 72 inches (180 cm) to minimize magnification. C. Patient needs to be upright a minimum of 5 minutes before imaging. D. Collimate lower border to level of ASIS.

C. Patient needs to be upright a minimum of 5 minutes before imaging.

To ensure that the diaphragm is included on the erect abdomen projection, the top of the image receptor should be at the approximate level of the: A. jugular notch. B. xiphoid process. C. axilla. D. inferior costal margin.

C. axilla.

Where must the CR be centered for an AP supine projection of the abdomen as part of the acute abdominal series? A. 2 inches (5 cm) above iliac crest B. Level of iliac crest C. Level of umbilicus D. Level of axilla

B. Level of iliac crest

Why is the left lateral decubitus preferred over the right lateral decubitus abdomen for an acute abdomen series? A. It allows any gas in the large intestine to move toward the liver. B. Any intraperitoneal air will be visualized along the spleen. C. Any intraperitoneal air will be visualized along the lower liver margin. D. It is more comfortable for the patient.

C. Any intraperitoneal air will be visualized along the lower liver margin.

A radiograph of an anteroposterior (AP) abdomen demonstrates elongation (widening) of the left iliac wing and narrowing of the right iliac wing. Which one of the following positioning errors produced this radiographic outcome? A. Rotation to the left (left posterior oblique) B. Left hip was internally rotated more than right hip C. Rotation to the right (right posterior oblique) D. CR off center to the left

A. Rotation to the left (left posterior oblique)

Ileus is the formal term for: A. free air in the peritoneal cavity. B. bleeding in the abdomen. C. perforated bowel. D. intestinal obstruction.

D. intestinal obstruction.

A patient comes to radiology with possible bleeding within the abdomen. The patient is unable to stand or sit for any projections. Which of the following projections would be most effective in demonstrating fluid within the abdomen for this patient? A. AP supine chest B. AP KUB C. Left lateral decubitus D. Right lateral dorsal decubitus

C. Left lateral decubitus

Which of the following conditions can produce a dynamic bowel obstruction? A. Intussusception B. Crohn’s disease C. All of the options D. Fibrous adhesions

C. All of the options

Motion of the patient’s diaphragm can be stopped by providing proper breathing instructions. False True

true

The pancreas is located posterior to the stomach. False True

true

The term gastro refers to the intestine. True False

true

The most common type of involuntary motion in the abdomen is peristalsis. False True

true

The AP abdomen for the obese patient often requires two separate exposures with the IR placed landscape. False True

true

What is the correct sequence for the parts of the small intestine? A. Ileum, duodenum, jejunum B. Jejunum, ileum, duodenum C. Duodenum, jejunum, ileum D. Jejunum, duodenum, ileum

C. Duodenum, jejunum, ileum

Which topographic landmark corresponds to the level of T9-10? A. ASIS B. Xiphoid process C. Iliac crest D. Inferior costal margin

B. Xiphoid process

Which positioning error is classified as a repeatable error for an AP erect abdomen projection? A. Erect marker not seen on image B. Symphysis pubis not demonstrated on image C. Diaphragm not demonstrated on image D. Four-side collimation not evident on image

C. Diaphragm not demonstrated on image

Which organs comprise the urinary system? A. two kidneys, two ureters, one urinary bladder and two urethra B. one kidneys, two ureters, one urinary bladder and one urethra C. two kidneys, one ureters, one urinary bladder and one urethra D. two kidneys, two ureters, one urinary bladder and one urethra

D. two kidneys, two ureters, one urinary bladder and one urethra

The greater trochanter is part of the? A. Proximal femur B. Lower pelvis C. Ilium D. Sternum

A. Proximal femur

What does KUB stand for?

Kidney , Ureter , Bladder

Which ankle projection is best for demonstrating the mortise of the ankle? A. AP B. AP Oblique (medial rotation) C. AP Oblique (Lateral rotation) D. Mediolateral

B. AP Oblique (medial rotation)

Which imaginary plane should be placed against the IR for an AP projection of the knee? A. Intermalleolar B. Midcoronal C. Midsagittal D. Interepicondylar

D. Interepicondylar

What is a common term for chondromalacia patellae? A. Brittle bone disease B. Runners Knee C. Degenerative joint disease D. Giant Cell tumor

B. Runners Knee

A Patient is referred to radiology for a possible Lisfranc Injury. Which of the following routines best demonstrate this condition? A. weight-bearing knee study B. Ap and lateral lower leg C. Knee routine to include intercondylar fossa projection D. weight-bearing foot study

B. Ap and lateral lower leg

Why is a PA Projection of the patella preferred to an AP Projection? A. Less OID B. Less distortion of patella C. Less magnification of patella D. All of these

D. All of these

What is the major disadvantage of settegast method ? A. Requires AP Positioning B. Requires use of specialized equipment C. Requires the use of long OID D. Requires overflexion of the knee

D. Requires overflexion of the knee

What is considered the smallest tarsal bone? A. Medial cuneform B. Navicular C. Intermediate cuneform D. Lateral Cuneform

C. Intermediate cuneform

Rad210 Final Review Flashcards

(181 cards)