Radio Aids & Flight Planning

Question 1

What is skip zone?

Answer 1

the space between the end of ground wave coverage the point at which the first sky wave is returned to earth.

Question 2

Single Sideband (SSB) HF radios eliminate one sideband and all or most of the carrier wave in order to increase transmission power. The carrier is reinserted by the receiver to reproduce the original message.

Question 3

SELCAL operates with a single selective call consisting of a combination of four preselected audio tones requiring about two seconds transmission time. These tones are generated in the ground station coder and are received by a decoder in the airborne receiver.

Question 4

You’re flying IFR within controlled airspace and the plane has 2 VORs, 2 DMEs and 1 ADF. If the ADF becomes inop, what should you do?

Answer 4

advise ATC of the failure immediately.

Question 5

VORs depend upon a phase difference between two signals transmitted simultaneously from a ground station.

Question 6

What’s the tolerance of published VOR airway radials maintained by Nav Canada?

Answer 6

+/- 3 degrees

Question 7

What’s the minimum reception distance and height for a VOR signal assuming no terrain interference?

Answer 7

40nm at 1000 feet

Question 8

When doing a VOR check, what is the tolerance in the air and on the ground?

Answer 8

+/- 4°

Question 9

You’re bassing abeam a VOR adn you see the CDI is fully deflected and there’s no TO/FROM flag, why?

Answer 9

your crossing a radial that’s 90° to the one selected

Question 10

The operating principle of a DME is the measurement of the time between the ___ of an aircraft interrogating signal and the receipt of a matched pulse reply signal from a ___.

Answer 10

transmission, ground station

Question 11

What are the localizer coverage limits?

Answer 11

Question 12

How many degrees are there from centered to full scale deflection on a VOR and on an ILS?

Answer 12

VOR = 10°

ILS = 2.5°

Question 13

How many degrees is the beam depth of an ILS glide path?

Answer 13

1.4°

Question 14

What does an X mean before the 3-letter identifier for a localizer on an approach plate?

Answer 14

means the localizer alignment exceeds 3° from the runway heading

Question 15

ADF coastal refraction error is greatest when the ADF beam crosses the shoreline at an angle of ___

Answer 15

less than 30 degrees.

Question 16

When is ADF night effect most pronounced?

Answer 16

just after sunset and just before sunrise.

Question 17

NDB systems are flight checked to an accuracy of ___for an approach and ___ for enroute.

Answer 17

+/-5° and +/-10°

Question 18

The RMI is an instrument which can provide ___and ___bearing information to LF/MF VHF omnidirectional range facilities

Answer 18

heading, magnetic

Question 19

A Track Line Computer (TLC) nav system shows left/right CDI deviation as 1 dot of deflection for every ___ nm off course for enroute navigation.

Answer 19

0.5nm

Question 20

How does an Inertial Navigation System (INS) work?

Answer 20

measures acceleration against time to determine speed and position.

Question 21

An INS can provide the following 4 things….

Answer 21

• steering info to the autopilot
• attitude info for flight instruments
• antenna stabilization for airborne wx radar
• horizontal nav data

Question 22

How many GPS satellites are required to obtain a 3D position fix?

Answer 22

4

Question 23

WAAS geo satellites provide a ___ signal which improves___.

Answer 23

ranging, availability

Question 24

If RAIM is not available prior to crossing the FAF, the GPS will not go into the approach ___mode.

Answer 24

“ACTIVE”

Question 25

Only ___ and higher can issue both vertical and horizontal avoidance guidance.

Answer 25

TCAS III

Question 26

TCAS II and ACAS II use a sophisticated ___ altimeter when computing the vertical flight paths of intruder aircraft.

Answer 26

absolute

Question 27

An Electronic Flight Information System (EFIS) utilizes cathode ray tubes (CRTs) to electronically display flight information. Symbol generator units (SGUs) receive inputs from aircraft systems and send them to the CRTs.

Question 28

Primary Surveillance Radar (PSR) does not require a ___ and is capable of detecting ___.

Answer 28

transponder, weather

Question 29

With respect to airborne weather radar, drop ___ determines radar echo intensity to a much greater extent than does drop ___.

Answer 29

size, number

Question 30

Hooks and fingers on a weather radar identify areas of…

Answer 30

hail and turbulence

Question 31

Red contoured thunderstorms with tops over 30,000’ should be avoided by at least ___.

Answer 31

20nm

Question 32

When a thunderstorm contours on an airborne weather radar, it should be avoided by at least ___nm when the aircraft is flying below the freezing level.

Answer 32

5nm

Question 33

Airborne radar can suffer from attenuation, which reduces its ability to detect storm cells. This is caused by

Answer 33

moderate to heavy rain in the antenna near field

Question 34

When using the tilt function of a weather radar to find CBs, it’s best to scan what area of the CB first?

Answer 34

the middle/lower area of the CB

Question 35

A straight line on a Lambert Conformal Conic is a…

Answer 35

great circle track

Question 36

What info does a VOLMET include?

Answer 36

METARs, TAFs, SIGMETs, transmitted on frequencies found in the CFS.

Question 37

What’s the formula for distance to the Critical point?

Note: Use reduced 3-engine TAS if applicable

Answer 37

Question 38

Review North Atlantic MNPS airspace flight planning procedures

Answer 38

• south of 70°N, east-west directions, half or whole degrees latitude and 10° longitude
• north of 70°N, east-west directions, half or whole degrees latitude and 20° longitude
• north-south directions, whole degrees longitude and 5° latitude

Question 39

North Atlantic Minimum Nav Performance Airspace (NAT MNPSA) exists over the North Atlantic between what flight levels?

Answer 39

FL285 and FL420

Question 40

What are the vertical dimensions of the:

• Northern Control Area (NCA)
• Arctic Control Area (ACA)
• North part of the Southern Control Area (SCA), which has been designated CMNPS airspace.

Answer 40

FL330 - FL410

Question 41

What equipment do you need to check before entering RVSM airspace?

Answer 41

• 2 separate and independent altimeter systems
• 1 autopilot with altitude hold
• 1 altitude alerting device