RADIO NAVIGATION SPECIMEN EXAMINATION PAPER Flashcards
(59 cards)
1
Q
- Which wavelength corresponds to a frequency of 5035 MHz?
A
b. 5.96 cm.
2
Q
- The VDF term meaning ‘true bearing from the station’ is:
A
c. QTE.
3
Q
- A class B VDF bearing will have an accuracy of:
A
d. ± 5°.
4
Q
- ATC inform a pilot that they will provide a QGH service. The pilot can expect:
A
a. headings and heights to fly to arrive overhead the aerodrome.
5
Q
- The maximum range an ATC facility at 1369 ft amsl can provide a service to an aircraft at FL350 is:
A
a. 280 nm.
6
Q
- The Doppler effect is:
A
d. the change in frequency caused by the relative movement between a transmitter and
receiver.
7
Q
- The least accurate bearing information taken by an aircraft over the sea from a NDB will be from:
A
b. an inland beacon at an acute angle.
8
Q
- The accuracy of ADF may be affected by:
A
c. angle of bank, mountain effect, station interference.
9
Q
- The ADF error which will cause the needle to ‘hunt’ (ie oscillate around the correct bearing) is:
A
a. night effect.
10
Q
- The accuracy of ADF by day and excluding compass error is:
A
c. +/-5°
11
Q
- A NDB has emission designator N0NA1A this will require the use of the BFO for:
A
d. tuning, identification and monitoring.
12
Q
- The principle of operation of VOR is:
A
d. bearing by phase comparison.
13
Q
- The pilot of an aircraft flying at FL 240 is 250 nm from a VOR at 16 ft amsl which he selects. He receives no signal from the VOR. This is because:
A
c. the aircraft is beyond line of sight range.
14
Q
- The phase difference measured at the aircraft between the VOR FM modulation and the AM modulation is 235°. The bearing of the beacon from the aircraft is:
A
a. 055°.
15
Q
- In a Doppler VOR (DVOR) the reference signal is …………… the variphase signal is ……………. and the rotation is ……………
A
d. AM, FM, anti-clockwise
16
Q
- A pilot intends to home to a VOR on the 147 radial. The setting he should put on the OBS and the CDI indications will be:
A
d. 327, TO.
17
Q
- An aircraft is 100 nm SW of a VOR heading 080°. The pilot intends to home to the VOR on the 210 radial. The setting he should put on the OBS is …………… and the CDI indications will be:
A
a. 030, TO, Fly Right
18
Q
- Flying an ILS approach the equipment senses that the 90 Hz modulation predominates on both the localiser and the glidepath. The indications the pilot will see are:
A
d. fly right and fly down.
19
Q
- On an ILS approach using a 3.5° glidepath, the height an aircraft, groundspeed 160 kt, should be at 3.5 nm is:
A
b. 1,050 ft.
20
Q
- A category 2 ILS facility is required to provide guidance to:
A
a. below 50 ft.
21
Q
- When flying downwind abeam the upwind end of the runway the indications from the ILS on the CDI will be:
A
b. erratic on both localiser and glidepath.
22
Q
- The azimuth coverage of a 3° glidepath is:
A
c. +/-8° to 10 nm.
23
Q
- The type of radar which has no minimum range restriction is:
A
a. primary CW radar.
24
Q
- The maximum theoretical range of a radar is determined by:
A
d. PRF.
25
28. The time interval between the transmission of a pulse and receipt of the echo from a target is 925.5 microseconds. The range of the target is:
b. 75 nm.
26
29. An advantage of a slotted antenna (planar array) over a parabolic reflector are:
c. less power required.
27
30. The best resolution will be achieved on a radar display with:
b. narrow beamwidth and narrow pulse width.
28
31. A radar transmitting on 600 MHz has a PRF of 300 pps and an aerial rotation rate of 5 rpm. This radar will be:
a. an area surveillance radar.
29
32. The AWR operating frequency is:
a. 9375 MHz.
30
33. A cloud detected at 60 nm on the AWR of an aircraft flying at FL390 just disappears from the screen when the tilt is selected to 2° UP. If the beamwidth of the radar is 6°, then the altitude of the cloud tops is:
c. 33,000 ft.
31
34. The AWR frequency is selected because it gives:
a. good returns from water droplets.
32
35. On a colour AWR display, the heaviest precipitation will be displayed in:
b. red.
33
37. In SSR the ground station interrogates the aircraft on .............. MHz and receives replies from the aircraft on ................. MHz
a. 1030 1090
34
38. The altitude readout at the ground station from a mode C response will give the aircraft altitude within:
d. 50 ft.
35
39. If the aircraft DME interrogates a ground transponder on a frequency of 1199 MHz, it will look for replies on:
d. 1136 MHz.
36
40. A DME recognises replies to its own interrogating pulses because:
b. the PRF of the interrogating pulses is jittered.
37
41. The DME in an aircraft at FL630 measures a slant range of 16 nm from a ground station at 1225 ft amsl. The plan range is:
a. 12.5 nm.
38
42. If the identification of a VOR is FKL and the paired DME identification is FKZ, then:
b. the beacons are between 600 m and 6 nm apart.
39
46. The NAVSTAR/GPS operational constellation comprises:
b. 24 satellites in 6 orbits.
40
47. The model of the earth used for GPS is:
d. WGS84.
41
48. The major limitation in the use of GPS for precision approaches using wide area augmentation systems (WAAS) is:
b. the height difference between the ellipsoid and the earth.
42
49. The number of SV’s required to produce a 3D fix is:
b. 4
43
50. EGNOS provides a WAAS by determining the errors in ................ and broadcasting these errors to receivers using ................
c. SV range, geostationary satellites.
44
51. The principle error in GNSS is:
a. ionospheric propagation.
45
52. If the signal from a SV is lost during an aircraft manoeuvre:
d. the receiver position will degrade regardless of the action taken.
46
53. The purpose of the PRN codes in NAVSTAR/GPS is to:
a. identify the satellites.
47
54. If the receiver almanac becomes corrupted it will download the almanac from the constellation. This download will take:
c. 12.5 minutes.
48
55. The provision of RAIM requires a minimum of ................ SVs.
c. 5
49
56. The best position on an aircraft for the GNSS aerial is:
b. on the fuselage close to the centre of gravity.
50
57. The NAVSTAR/GPS constellation is inclined at ................ to the equator with an orbital period of ...............
d. 55°, 12 hr.
51
58. The NAVSTAR/GPS frequency available to non-authorised users is:
b. 1575.42 MHz.
52
59. The NAV and system data message is contained in the ................ signal.
a. 50 Hz.
53
60. A 2D RNAV system takes fixing inputs from:
a. co-located VOR/DME.
54
61. The accuracy required of a basic RNAV system is:
a. 5 nm.
55
62. An aircraft using a 2D RNAV system is 23 nm from the waypoint on a 50 nm leg. The waypoint is 45 nm from the VOR/DME and the aircraft is 37 nm from the VOR/DME. The range indicated to the pilot will be:
a. 23 nm.
56
63. The navigation database in a FMC:
c. can only be read by the flight crew.
57
64. The RNAV function of the FMC produces a position which:
d. combines the long term accuracy of the external reference with the short term accuracy of the IRS.
58
65. The most accurate external reference position will be provided by:
b. Twin DME.
59
74. The FMC position is:
b. derived from IRS and external reference positions using the Kalman filtering process.
