Radiographic Procedures Flashcards
(157 cards)
1
Q
Which of the following statement is (are) correct regarding the parietoacanthial projection (Waters’ method) of the skull?
- The head is rested on the extended chin.
- The orbitomeatal line (OML) is perpendicular to the (IR).
- The maxillary antra should be projected above the petrosa
A
1 and 3.
2
Q
Skeletal conditions characterized by faulty bone calcification include
- Osteoarthritis
- Osteomalacia
- Rickets
A
2 and 3.
3
Q
In which of the following positions/projections will the talocalcaneal joint be visualized?
- Dorsoplantar projection of the foot
- Plantodorsal projection of the os calicos
- Medial oblique position of the foot
- Lateral foot
A
2.
4
Q
When comparing the male and female bony pelves, it is noted that the
- Male pelvis is deeper
- Female pubic arch is greater than 90 degrees
- Female greater sciatic notch is wider
A
1,2, and 3
5
Q
Angulation of the central ray may be required
- To avoid superimposition of overlying structure
- To avoid foreshortening or self superimposition
- To project through certain articulations
A
1,2, and 3
6
Q
All of the following statements regarding respiratory structures are true except
- The right lung has two lobes
- The uppermost portion of the lung is the apex
- Each lung is enclosed in pleura
- The trachea bifurcates into monster bronchi
A
1.
7
Q
All of the following statements regarding an exact PA projection of the skull, with the central ray perpendicular to the IR, are true except
- The orbitomeatal line is perpendicular to the IR
- The petrous pyramids fill the orbits
- The midsagittal plane (MSP) is parallel to the IR
- The central ray exits at the nasion
A
3.
8
Q
Ingestion of barium sulfate is contraindicated in which of the following situations?
- Suspected perforation of a hollow viscus
- Suspected large-bowel obstruction
- Presurgical patient
A
1,2, and 3.
9
Q
“flattening” of the hemidiaphragms is characterized of which of the following conditions?
- Pneumothorax
- Emphysema
- Plural effusion
- Pneumonia
A
2.
10
Q
Which of the following structures is (are) located in the right lower quadrant (RLQ)?
- Gallbladder
- Hepatic flexure
- Cecum
A
3.
11
Q
During an upper gastrointestinal (GI) examination, the AP recumbent projection of a stomach of average shape will usually demonstrate
- Anterior and posterior aspects of the stomach
- Barium-filled fungus
- Double-contrast body and astral portion
A
2 and 3
12
Q
The ridge that marks the bifurcation of the trechea into the right and left primary bronchi is the
- Root
- Hilus
- Carina
- Epiglottis
A
3.
13
Q
Which projection of the foot will best demonstrate the longitudinal arch?
- Mediolateral
- Lateromedial
- Lateral weight- bearing
- 30 degrees medial oblique
A
3.
14
Q
Cells concerned with the formation and repair of bone are
- Osteoblasts
- Osteoclasts
- Osteomas
- Osterons
A
1.
15
Q
The axiolateral or horizontal beam, projection of the hip requires the cassette to be placed
- In contact with the lateral surface of the body
- In a vertical position and exactly perpendicular to the long axis of the femoral neck
- With top edge slightly above the iliac crest
A
1 and 3.
16
Q
In the AP axial projection (Towne method) of the skull, with the central ray directed 30 degrees caudal to the OML and passing midway between the eternal auditory meaty, which of the following is best demonstrated?
- Occipital bone
- Frontal bone
- Facial bone
- Basal foramina
A
1.
17
Q
The best way to control voluntary motion is
- Immobilization of the part
- Careful explanation of the procedure
- Short exposure
- Physician restraint
A
2.
18
Q
What are the position most commonly employed for a radiographic examination of the sternum
- Lateral
- RAO
- LAO
A
1 and 2.
19
Q
Which of the following are demonstrated in the oblique position of the cervical spine?
- Intervetebral foramina
- Apophyseal joints
- Intervertebral joints
A
1.
20
Q
Aspirated foreign bodies in older children and adults are most likely to lodge in the
- Right main bronchus
- Left main bronchus
- Esophagus
- Proximal stomach
A
1.
21
Q
How should a chest examination to rule out air-fluid levels be obtained on a patient having traumatic injury?
- Perform the examination in the Trendelenburg position
- Erect inspiration and expiration images should be obtained
- Include a dorsal decubitus lateral chest projection
- Perform the examination AP supine at 44 inches SID
A
3.
22
Q
What should you do if you discover while taking the patient history that a patient scheduled for an intravenous urogram (IVU) takes Glucophage (metformin hydrochloride) daily?
- Proceed with the examination
- Reschedule the examination until the patient has been off Glucophage for 48 hours
- Instruct the patient to withhold the Glucophage for 48 hours after examination
A
1 and 3.
23
Q
Which the following positions is obtained with the patient lying prone recumbent on the radiophonic table, and the central ray directed horizontally to the iliac crest?
- Ventral decubitus position
- Dorsal decubitus position
- Left lateral decubitus position
- Right lateral decubitus position
A
1.
24
Q
All of the following positions may be used to demonstrate the sternoclavicular articulations except
- Weight bearing
- RAO
- LAO
- PA
A
1.
25
Which of the following is a radiologic procedure that functions to dilate a stenotic vessel?
1. Percutaneous nephrolithotomy
2. Percutaneos angioplasty
3. Renal arteriography
4. Surgical nephrostomy
2.
26
When examining a patient whose elbow is in partial flexion, how should an AP projection be obtained?
1. With humerus parallel to IR, central ray perpendicular
2. With forearm parallel to IR, central ray perpendicular
3. Through the partially flexed elbow, resting on the olecranon process, central perpendicular
1 and 2.
27
Which of the following positions is required to demonstrate small amounts of fluid in the pleura cavity?
1. Lateral decubitus, affected side up
2. Lateral decubitus, affected side down
3. AP Trendelenburg
4. AP supine
2.
28
Place the following anatomic structures in order from anterior to posterior
1. Trachea
2. Apex of heart
3. Esophagus
2,1, and 3.
29
Which of the following projections will best demonstrate the carpal scaphoid?
1. Lateral wrist
2. Ulnar flexion/ deviation
3. Radial flexion/ deviation
4. Carpal tunnel
2.
30
To better demonstrate the mandibular rami in the PA position, the
1. Skull is oblique toward the affected side
2. Skull is oblique away from the affected side
3. Central ray is angled cephalad
4. Central ray is angled caudad
3.
31
Which of the following projections can be used to supplement the traditional "open mouth" projection, when the upper portion of the odontoid process cannot be well demonstrated?
1. AP or PA through the foramen magnum
2. AP oblique with R and L head rotation
3. Horizontal beam lateral
4. AP axial
1.
32
The left sacroiliac joint is positioned perpendicular to the IR when the patient is positioned in a
1. Left lateral position
2. 25 degrees to 30 degrees LAO position
3. 25 degrees to 30 degrees LPO position
4. 30 degrees to 40 degrees LPO position
2.
33
A lateral projection of the hand in extension is often recommended to evaluate
1. a fracture
2. a foreign body
3. soft tissue
2 and 3
34
Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding lower-extremity venography?
1. The patient is often examined in the semi erect position
2. Contrast medium is injected through a vein in the foot
3. Imaging begins at the hip and proceeds inferiorly
1 and 2.
35
Which of the following projections or positions will best demonstrate subacromial or subcoracoid discolation?
1. tangential
2. AP axial
3. Transthoracic lateral
4. PA oblique scapular Y
4.
36
Which of the following will best demonstrate the size and shape of the liver and kidneys?
1. Lateral abdomen
2. AP abdomen
3. Dorsal decubitus abdomen
4. Ventral decubitus abdomen
2.
37
Which of the following positions will demonstrate the right axillary ribs?
1. RAO
2. LAO
3. RPO
2 and 3.
38
In which projection of the foot are the sinus tarsal, cuboid, and tuberosity of the fifth metatarsal best demonstrated?
1. Lateral oblique foot
2. Medial oblique foot
3. Lateral foot
4. Weight-bearing foot
2.
39
The manurial notch is at approximately the same level as the
1. Fifth thoracic vertebra
2. T2-3 interspace
3. T4-5 interspace
4. Costal margin
2.
40
What is the position of the gallbladder in an asthenic patient?
1. Superior and medial
2. Superior and lateral
3. Inferior and medial
4. Inferior and lateral
3.
41
To demonstrate esophageal varices, the patient must be examined in
1. The recumbent position
2. The erect position
3. The anatomic position
4. Fowler's position
1.
42
Which of the following criteria are used to evaluate a PA projection of the chest?
1. Ten posterior ribs should be visualized
2. Sternoclavicular joints should be symmetrical
3. The scapulae should be lateral to the lung fields.
1, 2, and 3.
43
Which of the following is (are) valid criterial for lateral projection of the forearm?
1. The radius and ulna should be superimposed proximally and distally
2. The coronoid process and radial head should be superimposed
3. The radial tuberosity should face anteriorly
2 and 3.
44
Which of the following projections of the ankle would best demonstrate the distal tibiofibular joint?
1. Medial oblique 15 degrees to 20 degrees
2. Lateral oblique 15 degrees to 20 degrees
3. Medial oblique 45 degrees
4. Lateral oblique 45 degrees
3.
45
The advantage of digital subtraction angiography over film angiography include
1. Greater sensitivity to contrast medium
2. Immediately available images
3. Increased resolution
1 and 2.
46
The usual patient preparation for an upper GI series is
1. Clear fluids 8 hours prior to examination
2. NPO after midnight
3. Enemas until clear before examination
4. Light breakfast the day of the examination
2.
47
Which projections of the abdomen would be used to demonstrate pneumoperiotoneum?
1. Right lateral decubitus
2. Left lateral decubitus
3. Upright
2 and 3.
48
Which of the following structures should be visualized through the foramen magnum in the AP axial projection (Grashey method) of the skull for occipital bone?
1. Posterior crinoid processes
2. Dorsal sella
3. Posterior arch of C1
2 and 3.
49
Which of the following criteria is (are) required for visualization of the greater tubercle in profile?
1. Epicondyles paralle to the IR.
2. Arm in external rotation
3. Humerus in AP postion
1, 2, and 3.
50
What instructions might a patient be given following an upper GI examination?
1. Drink plenty of fluid
2. Take a mild laxative
3. Increase dietary
1,2, and 3.
51
Which of the following tube angle and direction combinations is correct for an axial projection of the clavicle, with patient in the PA position?
1. 5 degrees to 15 degrees caudal
2. 5 degrees to 15 degrees cephalad
3. 15 degrees to 30 degrees caudal
4. 15 degrees to 30 degrees cephalad
4.
52
Which of the following should be performed to rule out subluxation or fracture of the cervical spine?
1. Oblique cervical spine, seated
2. AP cervical spine, recumbent
3. Horizontal beam lateral
4. Laterals in flexion and extension
3.
53
What portion of the humerus articulates with the ulna to help form the elbow joint?
1. Semilunar/trochlear notch
2. Radial head
3. Capitulum
4. Trochlea
4.
54
The true lateral position of the skull uses which of the following principles?
1. Interpupillary line perpendicular to the IR
2. MSP perpendicular to the IR
3. Infraorbitomeatal line (IOML) parallel to the transverse axis of the IR
1 and 3.
55
During pyelography, contrast medium is introduced into the
1. Subdural space
2. Subarachnoid space
3. Epidural space
4. Epidermal space
2.
56
An axiolateral inferosuperior projection of the femoral neck is particularly useful
1. When the axiolateral is contraindicated
2. For patients with bilateral hip fractures
3. For patients with limited movement of the unaffected leg
1,2, and 3.
57
Examples of synovial pivot articulations include the
1. Atlantoaxial joint
2. Radioulnar joint
3. Temporomandibular joint
1 and 2.
58
The pars interarticularis is presented by what part of the " scotty dog" seen in a correctly positioned oblique lumbar spine?
1. Eye
2. Front foot
3. Body
4. Neck
4.
59
Which of the following will separate the radial head, neck, and tuberosity from superimposition on the ulna?
1. AP
2. Lateral
3. Medial oblique
4. Lateral oblique
4.
60
In which of the following positions can the sesamoid bones of the foot be demonstrated free of superimposition with the metatarsals or phalanges?
1. Doroplantar metatarsals/toes
2. Tangential metatarsals/toes
3. 30 degrees medial oblique foot
4. 30 degrees lateral oblique foot
2.
61
Tangential axial projections of the patella can be obtained in which of the following positions?
1. Supine flexion 45 degrees ( Merchant)
2. Prone flexion 90 degrees (Settegast)
3. Prone flexion 55 degrees (Hughston)
1, 2, and 3.
62
With the patient in the PA position and the OML and central ray and perpendicular to the IR, the resulting radiograph will demonstrate the petrous pyramids?
1. Below the orbits
2. In the lower one third of the orbits
3. Completely within the orbits
4. Above the orbits
3.
63
Which of the following are part of the bony thorax?
1. 12 thoracic vertebrae
2. Scapulae
3. 24 ribs
1 and 3.
64
During atrial systole, blood flows into the right ventricle by way of what valve?
1. Pulmonary semilunar
2. Aortic
3. Mitral
4. Tricuspid
4.
65
With the patient seated at the end of the x-ray table. elbow flexed 80 degrees, CR directed 45 degrees laterally from the shoulder to the elbow joint, which of the following structures will demonstrated best?
1. Radial head
2. Ulnar head
3. Coronoid process
4. Olecranon process
3.
66
The following procedure can be employed to better demonstrate the carpal scaphoid:
1. Elevate hand and wrist 20 degrees
2. Place wrist in ulnar deviation
3. Angle CR 20 degrees distally (toward finger)
1 and 2
67
Which of the following are demonstrated in the lateral projection of the thoracic spine?
1. Intervertebral spaces
2. Apophyseal joints
3. Intervertebral foramina
1 and 3.
68
Which structure can be located midway between the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) and pubic symphysis?
1. Dome of the acetabulum
2. Femoral neck
3. Greater trochanter
4. Iliac crest
1.
69
During chest radiography, the act of inspiration
1. Elevates the diaphragm
2. Raises the ribs
3. Depresses the abdominal viscera
2 and 3
70
What process is best seen using a perpendicular CR with the elbow in acute flexion and with the posterior aspect of the humerus adjacent to the image receptor?
1. Coracoid
2. Coronoid
3. Olecranon
4. Glenoid
3.
71
The patient's chin should be elevated during chest radiography to
1. Permit the diaphragm to move to its lowest position
2. Avoid superimposition on the apices
3. Assist in maintaining an upright position
4. Keep the MSP parallel
2.
72
The primary center of ossification in long bones is the
1. Diaphysis
2. Epiphysis
3. Metaphysic
4. Apophysis
1.
73
To make the patient as comfortable as possible during a single-contrast barium enema (BE), the radiographer should
1. Instruct the patient ti relax the abdominal muscles to prevent intra-abdominal pressure
2. Instruct the patient to concentrate on breathing deeply to reduce colonic spasm
3. Prepare a warm barium suspension (98 to 105 degrees F) to aid in retention
1 and 2.
74
The pedicle is represented by what part of the "scotty dog" seen in a correctly positioned oblique lumber spine?
1. Eye
2. Front foot
3. Body
4. Neck
1.
75
Which of the following projections will best demonstrate the tarsal navicular free of superimposition?
1. AP oblique, medial rotation
2. AP oblique, lateral rotation
3. Mediolateral
4. Lateral weight bearing
1.
76
At what level do the carotid arteries bifurcate?
1. Forearm magnum
2. Trachea
3. Pharynx
4. C4
4.
77
During a double-contast BE, which of the following positions would afford the best double-contrast visualization of both colic flixure?
1. LAO and RPO
2. Lateral
3. Left lateral decubitus
4. AP and PA erect
4.
78
To evaluate the interphalangeal joints in the oblique and lateral positions, the fingers
1. rest on the cassette for immobilization
2. Must be supported parallel to the IR
3. Are radiographed in natural flexion
4. Are radiographed in palmar flexion
2.
79
Which of the following examinations involves the introduction of a radiopaque contrast medium through a uterine cannula?
1. Retrograde pyelogram
2. Voiding cystourethrogram
3. Hysterosalpingogram
4. Myelogram
3.
80
All of the following statements regarding large-bowel radiography are true except
1. The large bowel must be completely empty prior to examination
2. Restained fecal material can simulate pathology
3. Single-contrast studies help to demonstrate polyps
4. Double-contrast studies help to demonstrate intraluminal lesions
3.
81
In the lateral projection of the knee, the
1. Femoral condyles are superimposed
2. Patellofemoral joint is visualized
3. Knee is flexed about 20 to 30 degrees
1, 2, and 3.
82
To demonstrate the pulmonary spices with the patient in the AP position, the
1. Central is directed 15 to 20 degrees cephalad
2. Central ray is directed to 15 to 20 degrees caudal
3. Exposure is made on full exhalation
4. Patient's shoulders are rolled forward
1.
83
All of the following statements regarding the infer superior axial (non trauma, Lawrence method) projection of the shoulder are true, except
1. The coracoid process and lesser tubercle are seen in profile
2. The arm is abducted about 90 degrees from the body
3. The arm should be in internal rotation
4. The CR is directed medially 25 to 30 degrees through the axilla
3.
84
Double-contrast examinations of the stomach or large bowel are performed to better visualize the
1. Position of the organ
2. Size and shape of the organ
3. Diverticula
4. Gastric or bowel muscosa
4.
85
The sternoclavicular joints are best demonstrated with the patient PA and
1. In a slight oblique position, affected side adjacent to the image receptor
2. In a slight oblique position, affected side away from the image receptor
3. Erect and weight bearing
4. Erect, with and without weights
1.
86
Which of the following statements conditions is operative cholangiography a useful tool?
1. Biliary tract calculi
2. Patency of the biliary ducts
3. Function of the sphincter of Oddi
1,2, and 3.
87
Which of the following articulations may be described as diarthrotic?
1. Knee
2. Intervertebral joints
3. Temporomandicular joint (TMJ)
1 and 3.
88
A patient is usually required to drink barium sulfate suspension to demonstrate which of the following structure?
1. Esophagus
2. Pylorus
3. Ilium
1 and 2.
89
The apophyseal articulations of the thoracic spine are demonstrated with the
1. Coronal plane 45 degrees to the IR
2. Midsagittal plane 45 degrees to the IR
3. Coronal plane 70 degrees to the IR
4. Midsaggital plane 70 degree to the IR
4.
90
Which of the following may be used to evaluate the glenohumeral joint?
1. Scapular Y projection
2. Inferosuperior axial
3. Transthoracic lateral
1, 2, and 3
91
During lower-limb venography, tourniquets are applied above the knee and ankle to
1. Suppress filling of the superficial veins
2. Coerce filling of the deep veins
3. Fill the anterior tibial vein
1 and 2.
92
Which of the following women is likely to have the most homogeneous, glandular breast tissue?
1. A postpubertal adolescent
2. A 20-year-old with one previous pregnancy
3. A menopausal woman
4. A postmenopausal 65- year-old
1.
93
Which of the following positions/projections of the skull with rest in the most shape distortion?
1. 0 degree PA
2. 23 degrees Caldwell
3. 37 degrees Towne/Grashey
4. 25 dares Haas
3.
94
Which of the following examinations require(s) special identification markers in addition to the usual patient name and number, date, and side marker?
1. IVU
2. Tomography
3. Abdominal survey
1,2, and 3.
95
Which of the following is most likely to be the correct routine for a radiographic examination of the forearm?
1. PA and medial oblique
2. AP and lateral oblique
3. PA and lateral
4. AP and lateral
4.
96
The body habits characterized by along and narrow thoracic cavity and low, midline stomach and gallbladder is the
1. Asthenic
2. Hyposthenic
3. Sthenic
4. Hypersthenic
1.
97
Which of the following fracture classifications describes a small bony fragment pulled from a bony process?
1. Avulsion fracture
2. Torus fracture
3. Comminuted fracture
4. Compound fracture
1.
98
Which of the following is proximal to carpal bones?
1. Distal interphalageal joints
2. Proximal interphalangeal joints
3. Metacarpals
4. Radial styloid process
4.
99
The scapular Y projection of the shoulder demonstrates
1. An oblique projection of the shoulder
2. Anterior or posterior dislocation
3. A lateral projection of the shoulder
1 and 2.
100
Which of the following projection(s) require(s) that the shoulder be placed in internal rotation?
1. AP humerus
2. Lateral forearm
3. Lateral humerus
3.
101
The fifth metacarpal is located on which aspect of the hand?
1. Medial
2. Lateral
3. Ulnar
4. Volar
1.
102
With the patient's head in a PA position and the central ray directed 20 degrees cephalad, which part of the mandibular will be visualized?
1. Symphysis
2. Rami
3. Body
4. Angle
2.
103
During intravenous (IV) urography, the prone position is generally recommended to demonstrate
1. The filling of ureters
2. The renal pelvis
3. The superior calyces
1 and 2.
104
The plane that passes vertically through the body, divided it into anterior and posterior halves, is termed the
1. Median sagittal plane
2. Midcoronal plane
3. Sagittal plane
4. Transverse plane
2.
105
To demonstrate a profile view of the glenoid fossa, the patient is AP recumbent and oblique 45 degrees
1. Toward the affected side
2. Away from the affected side
3. With the arm at the side in the anatomic position
4. With the arm in external rotation
1.
106
Pyelography is a diagnostic examination used to demonstrate
1. Extrinsic spinal cord compression resulting from disk herniation
2. Posttraumatic swelling of the spinal cord
3. Internal disk lesions
1 and 2.
107
Which of the following techniques would provide a PA projection of the gastroduodenal surfaces of the barium-filled, high and transverse stomach?
1. Place the patient in a 35 degrees to 40 degrees RAO position
2. Place the patient in a lateral position
3. Angle the central ray 35 to 45 degrees cephalad
4. Angle the central ray 35 to 45 degrees cadad
3.
108
Which of the following is recommended to better demonstrate the tarsometatarsal joints in the dorsoplantar projection of the foot?
1. Invert the foot
2. Evert the foot
3. Angle the central ray 10 degrees posteriorly
4. Angle the central ray 10 degrees anteriorly
3.
109
The tissue that occupies the central cavity within the shaft of a long bone in an adult is
1. Red marrow
2. Yellow Marrow
3. Cortical tissue
4. Cancellous tissue
2.
110
Which of the following positions will provide an AP projection of the L5-S1 interspace?
1. Patient AP with 30 degrees to 35 degrees angle cephalad
2. Patient AP with 30 to 35 degrees angle caudal
3. Patient AP with 0 degree angle
4. Patient lateral, coned to L5
1.
111
Which of the following boney landmarks is in the same transverse plane as the symphysis pubis?
1. Ischial tuberosity
2. Prominence of the greater trochanter
3. Anterior superior iliac spine
4. Anterior inferior iliac spine
2.
112
Patients are instructed to remove all jewelry. hair clips, metal prostheses, coins, and credit cards before entering the room for an examination in
1. Sonography
2. Computed tomography (CT)
3. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
4. Nuclear Medicine
3.
113
Movement of a part toward the midline of the bony is termed
1. Eversion
2. Inversion
3. Abduction
4. Adduction
4.
114
Which of the following vertebral groups form(s) lordotic curve(s)
1. Cervical
2. Thoracic
3. Lumbar
1 and 3
115
Which of the following is (are) required for a lateral projection of the skull?
1. The IOML is parallel to the IR
2. The MSP is perpendicular to the IR
3. The CR enters 2 inches superior to the external auditory meatus (EAM)
1 and 3
116
With which of the following does the trapezium articulate?
1. Fifth metarcarpal
2. First metacarpal
3. Distal radius
4. Distal ulna
2.
117
Which of the following positions will most effectively move the gallbladder away from the vertebrae in the asthenic patient?
1. LAO
2. RAO
3. LPO
4. Erect
1.
118
The ileocecal valve is normally located in which of the following body regions?
1. Right iliac
2. Left iliac
3. Right lumbar
4. Hypogastric
1.
119
Which of the following is (are) true regarding radiographic examination of the acromioclavicular joints?
1. The procedure is performed in the erect position
2. Use of weights can improve demonstartion of the joints
The procedure should be avoided if dislocation or separation is suspected
1 and 2
120
Which of the following projections of the abdomen may used to demonstrate air or fluid levels?
1. Dorsal decubitus
2. Lateral decubitus
3. AP Trendelenburg
1 and 2
121
Which of the following articulations participate(s) in formation of the ankle mortise?
1. Talotibial
2. Talocalcaneal
3. Talofibular
1 and 3
122
Which of the following skull positions will demonstrate the cranial base, sphenoidal sinuses, atlas, and odontoid process?
1. AP axial
2. Lateral
3. Parietoacanthial
4. Submentovertical (SMV)
4.
123
Which of the following is (are) located on the posterior aspect of the femur?
1. Intercondyloid fossa
2. Intertrochanteric crest
3. Intertubercular groove
1 and 2
124
An intrathecal injection is associated with which of the following examinations?
1. IVU
2. retrograde pyelogram
3. Pyelogram
4. Arthrogram
3.
125
Which of the following statements is (are) correct with respect to evaluation criteria for a PA projection of the chest for lung?
1. The sternoclavicular joints should be symmetrical
2. The sternum is seen lateral without rotation
3. Ten anterior ribs are demonstrated above the diaphragm
1
126
The coronoid process should be visualized in profile in which of the following positions?
1. Scapular Y
2. AP scapula
3. Medial oblique elbow
4. Lateral oblique elbow
3.
127
In the lateral projection of the ankle, the
1. Talotibia joint is visualized
2. Talofibular joint is visualized
3. tibia and fibula are superimposed
1 and 3
128
All of the following positions are likely to be employed for both single-contrast and double-contrast examinations of the large bowel except
1. Lateral rectum
2. AP axial rectosigmoid
3. Right and left lateral decubitus abdomen
4. RAO and LAO abdomen
3.
129
Which of the followings is essential in radiography of the paranasal sinuses?
1. Erect
2. Recumbent
3. Oblique
4. Trendelenburg
1.
130
Which of the following can be used ti demonstrate the intercondyloid fossa?
1. Patient PA, knee 40 degree, central ray directed caudal 40 degrees to the popliteal fossa
2. Patient AP, cassette under flexed knee, central ray directed cephalad to knee, perpendicular to tibia
3. Patient PA, patella parallel to IR, heel rotated 5 to 10 degrees lateral, central ray perpendicular to knee joint
1 and 2.
131
AP stress studies of the ankle may be performed
1. to demonstrate fractures of the distal tibia and fibula
2. Following inversion and eversion injuries
3. To demonstrate a ligament tear
2 and 3
132
When evaluating a PA axial projection of the skull with a 15 degrees caudal angle, the radiographer should see
1. Petrous pyramids in the lower third of the orbits
2. Equal distance from the lateral border of the skull to the lateral rim of the orbit bilaterally
3. Symmetrical petrous pyramids
1, 2, and 3.
133
In the lateral projection of the knee, the central ray is angled 5 degrees cephalad to prevent superimposition of which of the following structures on the joint space?
1. Lateral femoral condyle
2. Medial femoral condyle
3. Patella
4. Tibial eminence
2.
134
The uppermost portion of the iliac crest is at approximately the same level as the
1. Costal margin
2. Umbilicus
3. Xiphoid tip
4. Fourth lumbar vertebra
4.
135
Which of the following structures is (are) located in the left upper quardrant (LUQ)?
1. Stomach
2. Spleen
3. Cecum
1 and 2
136
In the posterior oblique position of the cervical spine, the intervertebral foramina that are best seen are those
1. Nearest the IR
2. Further from the IR
3. Seen medially
4. Seen inferiorly
2.
137
Which of the following positions demonstrates all the paranasal sinus?
1. Parietoacanthial
2. PA axial
3. Lateral
4. True PA
3.
138
In the lateral projection of the scapula, the
1. Vertebral and axillary borders are superimposed
2. Acromion and coracoid processes are superimposed
3. Patient may be examined in the erect position
1 and 3
139
Which of the following is (are) demonstrated in the AP projection of the cervical spine?
1. Intervetral disk spaces
2. C3-7 cervical bodies
3. Apophyseal joint
1 and 2
140
That ossified portion of a long bone where cartilage has been replaced by bone is known as the
1. Diaphysis
2. Epiphysis
3. Metaphysis
4. Apophysis
3.
141
Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the PA axial projection of the paranasal sinuses?
1. The central ray is directed caudally to the OML
2. The petrous pyramids are projected into the lower third of the orbits
3. The frontal sinuses are visualized
1,2, and 3
142
Tracheotomy and intubation are effective techniques used to restore breathing when there is (are)
1. Respiratory pathway obstruction above the larynx
2. Crushed trachea rings due to trauma
3. Respiratory pathway closure due to inflammation and swelling
4. All of the above
4.
143
To demonstrate the first two cervical vertebrae in the AP projection, the patient is positioned so that
1. The glabellomeatal line is vertical
2. The acanthiomeatal line is vertical
3. A line between the mentum and the mastoid tip is vertical
4. A line between the maxillary occlusal plane and the mastoid tip is vertical
4.
144
Which of the following is recommended to demonstrate small amounts of air within the peritoneal cavity?
1. Lateral decubitus, affected side up
2. Lateral decubitus, affected side down
3. AP Trendelenburg
4. AP supine
1.
145
For the average patient, the central ray for a lateral projection of a barium-filled stomach should enter
1. Midway between the midcoronal line and the anterior abdominal surface
2. Midway between the vertebral column and the lateral border of the abdomen
3. At the midcoronal line at the level of the iliac crest
4. Perpendicular to the level of L2
1.
146
Which of the following is an important consideration to avoid excessive metacarpophalangeal joint overlap in the oblique projection of the hand?
1. Oblique the hand no more than 45 degrees
2. Use a support sponge for the phalanges
3. Clench the fist to bring the carpals closer to the IR
4. Utilize ulnar flexion
1.
147
Involuntary motion can be caused by
1. Peristalsis
2. Severse pain
3. Heart muscle contraction
1,2, and 3.
148
Which of the following positions is used to demonstrate vertical patellar fractures and the patellofemoral articulation?
1. AP knee
2. Lateral knee
3. Tangential patella
4. "tunnel " view
3.
149
When the erect position requested as part of an IVU, it is used to demonstrate
1. The adrenal glands
2. The renal surfaces
3. Kidney mobility
4. The bladder neck
3.
150
AP erect left and right bending images of the thoracic and lumbar vertebrae, to include 1 inch of the iliac crest, are performed to demonstrate
1. Spondylolisthesis
2. Subluxation
3. Scoliosis
4. Arthritis
3
151
In which of the following projections is the talofibular joint best demonstrated
1. AP
2. Lateral oblique
3. Medial oblique
4. Lateral
3.
152
Free air the abdominal cavity best demonstrated in which of the following positions?
1. AP projection, left lateral decubitus position
2. AP projection, right lateral decubitus position
3. PA recumbent position
4. AP recumbent position
1.
153
Which of the following sequence correctly describe the path of blood flow as it leaves the left ventricle?
1. Arteies, anterioles, capillaries, venues veins
2. Arterioles, arteries, capillaries, veins, venues
3. Veins, venues, capillaries, arteries, arterioles
4. Venues, veins, capillaries, arterioles, arteries
1
154
Which of the following projections of the elbow should demonstrate the coronoid process free of superimposition and the olecranon process within the olecranon fossa?
1. AP
2. Lateral
3. Medial oblique
4. Lateral oblique
3.
155
Which of the following will best demonstrate acromioclavicular separation?
1. AP recumbent, affected shoulder
2. AP recumbent, both shoulders
3. AP erect, affected shoulder
4. AP erect, both shoulder
4.
156
Which fo the following statement regarding myelograhy is (are) correct?
1. Spinal puncture may be performed in the prone or flexed lateral position
2. Contrast medium distribution is regulated through X-ray tube angulation
3. The patient's neck must be in extension during Trendelenburg positions
1 and 3
157
The term that refers to parts closer to the source or beginning is
1. Cephalad
2. Caudad
3. Proximal
4. Medial
3
