Radiology 4 Flashcards by Joel Welshons

When measuring a patient’s blood pressure, the first pressure read will be:

A. Systolic

B. Metastolic

C. Diastolic

D. Epistolic

Systolic

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The patient must be informed of ___ to ensure legal informed consent.

A. Potential risks of the procedure

B. Suggested alternatives

C. Consequences of not completing the exam

D. A & B

E. A, B & C

A, B & C

potential risks of the procedure, suggested alternatives, consequences of not completing the exam

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At what stage do infectious microbes begin to multiply?

A. Disease

B. Latent

C. Incubation

D. Somatic

Incubation

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Which of the following would reduce the viscosity of contrast media utilized for angiography?

A. Warm the contrast media to body temperature

B. Utilize a contrast media with a higher iodine content

C. Utilize a contrast media with an oil base

D. Cool the contrast media to 65 degrees

Warm the contrast media to body temperature

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Which of the following is NOT a type of tube used for support of patient breathing?

A. N-G tube

B. Tracheostomy tube

C. Nasal airway tube

D. Endotracheal tube

N-G tube

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The first stage of the grieving process according to Elizabeth Kubler Ross is:

A. Bargaining

B. Acceptance

C. Anger

D. Denial

Denial

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Which of the following does NOT require airborne precautions?

A. Extrapulmonary TB

B. Active TB

C. SARS

D. Measles

Extrapulmonary TB

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Any linens used by patients are:

A. Considered contaminated

B. Can serve as fomites even if not stained

C. Should be handled as little as possible

D. All of the above

All

considered contaminated, can serve as fomites even if not stained, should be handled as little as possible

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If a urinary bag needs to be emptied, it is important to:

A. Check the chart to see if urinary output needs to be measured

B. Wear protective gloves

C. Re-close clamp on bottom of bag

D. A &; B

E. A, B & C

A, B & C

check the chart to see if urinary output needs to be measured, wear protective gloves, re-close clamp on bottom of bag

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The rules of body mechanics include:

A. Use a wide base of support

B. Work at a comfortable height

C. Pull heavy objects

D. A & B

E. A, B & C

A & B

use a wide base of support, work at a comfortable height

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If you will be sending confidential information via fax, the information should be:

A. Seen only by the receiving physician

B. Preceded by a phone call to the recipient

C. Transmitted by e-mail instead

D. Transmitted by mail instead

Preceded by a phone call to the recipient

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When a patient arrives in the x-ray department with dressings covering an open wound, the radiographer should:

A. Maintain the dressings

B. Remove the dressings to prevent artifacts

C. Just replace the dressings if bleeding is severe

D. Wrap gauze tightly around the dressings to prevent further bleeding

Maintain the dressings

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Which of the following should be done before transferring a patient from their bed to a wheelchair?

A. Raise the bed as high as possible and lower the head

B. Position wheelchair parallel to the bed, wheels locked

C. Position wheelchair facing the bed, wheels locked, footrests out of the way

D. Position wheelchair back to the bed, footrests down

Position wheelchair parallel to the bed, wheels locked

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Using ___ can block communication between the radiographer and the patient.

A. Using judgmental statements

B. Acting defensive

C. Giving false reassurances

D. A & C

E. A, B & C

A, B & C using judgmental statements, acting defensive, giving false reassurances

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Which of the following individuals would perform a surgical scrub before starting an operative cholangiogram?

A. Scrub nurse

B. Circulating nurse

C. Anesthetist

D. A, B & C

Scrub nurse

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If an open sterile tray is found unattended it should be:

A. Used immediately

B. Covered until procedure starts

C. Considered sterile

D. Discarded

Discarded

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Match the radiation type with the corresponding quality factor. X-rays ___

A. 1

B. 2

C. 10

D. 50

E. 100

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Match the radiation type with the corresponding quality factor. Gamma rays ___

A. 1

B. 2

C. 10

D. 50

E. 100

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Match the radiation type with the corresponding quality factor. Alpha ___

A. 1

B. 2

C. 20

D. 50

E. 100

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When using an under-table fluoroscopy unit, the bucky slot cover should have at least ___ of lead.

A. .25 mm

B. .5 mm

C. 72 mm

D. 1.0 mm

.25mm

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A group of cells with a high mitotic rate will also possess:

A. High radiosensitivity

B. Low radiosensitivity

C. The rate of mitosis does not affect radiosensitivity

High radiosensitivity

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Primary radiation barriers require ___” lead shielding.

A. 1/32

B. 1/16

C. 1/8

D. 1/4

1/16”

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Which of the following procedures, a blend of CT and Nuclear Medicine, uses a positron-emitting radionuclide?

A. PET

B. SPECT

C. DEXA

D. Functional MRI

PET

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Which of the following radiation survey instruments contains a gas-filled chamber?

A. Ionization chamber

B. Geiger-Muller detector

C. Proportional chamber

D. All of the above

All

ionization chamber, geiger-muller detector, proportional chamber

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The ___ is the site of thermionic emission. A. Anode B. Cathode C. Rectifier D. Ionization chamber

Cathode

During fluoroscopy the dose at the tabletop should be limited to \_\_\_R per minute. A. 1 B. 5 C. 10 D. 20

The Compton effect is an interaction between an x-ray photon and: A. An inner shell electron B. An outer shell electron C. A nucleus D. Another photon

An outer shell electron

Employers must provide personnel monitoring whenever it is likely that the workers would exceed ___ rem in a given year. A. .5 B. 1.25 C. 5 D. 15

The dose-response relationship of radiation induced leukemia is considered to be: A. Linear, nonthreshold B. Linear, threshold C. Nonlinear, nonthreshold D. Nonlinear, threshold

linear, nonthreshold

Possible early effects of radiation exposure include: 1. nausea and vomiting 2. carcinogenesis 3. cataract formation A. 1 only B. 1 & 2 C. 2 & 3 D. 1, 2 & 3

nausea and vomiting

Radiation badge results are reported in ___ to reflect deep and shallow doses. A. Rad B. Rem C. Roentgen D. Curie

Rem

The use of protective devices like lead aprons and lead glasses are designed to protect the user from: A. The primary beam B. Remnant radiation C. Exit radiation D. Scattered radiation

Scattered radiation

Increasing beam restriction will reduce patient dose by: A. Increasing scattered radiation B. Decreasing scattered radiation C. Decreasing field size D. B & C E. A & C

B & C decreasing scattered radiation, decreasing field size

Which of the following could decrease patient dose? A. Increased grid ratio B. Increased mAs C. Increased focal spot size D. Increased filtration

Increased filtration

Which of the following types of radiation monitors contains aluminum oxide? A. Film badge B. Thermoluminescent dosimeter C. Optically stimulated luminescence dosimeter D. Geiger counter

Optically stimulated luminescence dosimeter

The function of filtration is to attenuate: A. High frequency, short wavelength radiation B. High frequency, long wavelength radiation C. Low frequency, short wavelength radiation D. Low frequency, long wavelength radiation

Low frequency, long wavelength radiation

When performing portable x-ray exams, the area with the least scatter would be: A. The head of the bed B. At a 90 degree angle from the patient C. At a 45 degree angle from the patient D. At a 180 degree angle from the patient

At a 90 degree angle from the patient

If an individual was exposed to 1 rad of each of the following types of radiation, which one would deliver the greatest dose in rem? A. Diagnostic x-rays B. 200 Kev x-rays C. Beta radiation D. Alpha radiation

Alpha radiation

Which of the following could be used to reduce the CT scan dose to pediatric patients? A. Use technique charts based on part diameter B. Increase the pitch for helical scanning C. Reduce number of scans taken before, during, and after contrast injection D. A, B & C

A, B & C use technique charts based on part diameter; increase the pitch for helical scanning; reduce number of scans taken before, during, and after contrast injection

What is the dose equivalent limit for a radiography student under the age of 18? A. .1 rem per year B. .25 rem per year C. .5 rem per year D. 5 rem per year

.1 rem per year

To reduce patient exposure during pulsed mode fluoroscopy ___ should be chosen. A. Highest mA B. Smallest pulse width C. Lower kVp D. Reduced SSD

Smallest pulse width

Which of the following is NOT a property of x-rays? A. Highly penetrating B. Travel in straight lines C. Travel at the speed of sound D. Are not affected by magnets

Travel at the speed of sound

Which of the following procedures is least likely to produce injury to a patient's skin? A. Stent placement B. Vascular embolization C. Upper GI series D. Biliary stone removal

Upper GI series

Determine the missing factor that will produce the same exposure to the image receptor as the original set of exposure factors. 400 mA 200 mA .04 second ____ second 65 kVp 75 kVp A. 04 B. .08 C. .12 D. .16 E. .30

.04

Determine the missing factor that will produce the same exposure to the image receptor as the original set of exposure factors. 200 mA ____ mA .07 second .14 second 5:1 grid 8:1 grid A. 200 B. 300 C. 400 D. 500 E. 600

200

Determine the missing factor that will produce the same exposure to the image receptor as the original set of exposure factors. 600 mA 400 mA .07 second ___ second 90 kVp 77 kVp A. .03 B. .06 C. .12 D. .21 E. .50

.21

Determine the missing factor that will produce the same exposure to the image receptor as the original set of exposure factors. 300 mA ____ mA .10 second .25 second 5:1 grid 6:1 grid 48" SID 72" SID A. 200 B. 300 C. 400 D. 500 E. 600

400

Determine the missing factor that will produce the same exposure to the image receptor as the original set of exposure factors. 200 mA 100 mA .20 second ___ second 45" SID 40" SID A. .04 B. .08 C. .16 D. .32 E. .50

.32

A portable lateral radiograph of the lumbar spine is obtained using the following exposure factors: 200 mA, 1.5 sec., 90 kVp, 40" SID, 8:1 grid, and 1.2 mm, focal spot. The kVp is increased to 104. In order to compensate for the change in receptor exposure with all other factors remaining the same, the exposure time should be adjusted to: A. 1/2 second B. 3/4 second C. 1 second D. 2 seconds E. 3 seconds

3/4 second

A portable lateral radiograph of the lumbar spine is obtained using the following exposure factors: 200 mA, 1.5 sec., 90 kVp, 40" SID, 8:1 grid, and 1.2 mm, focal spot. The kVp is increased to 104. In order to compensate for the change in receptor exposure with all other factors remaining the same, the exposure time should be adjusted to: 3/4 second. Due to the compensated change, what would be the resultant effect to patient dose? A. Increased patient dose B. Decreased patient dose C. Patient dose would not be affected

Decreased patient dose

A portable lateral radiograph of the lumbar spine is obtained using the following exposure factors: 200 mA, 1.5 sec., 90 kVp, 40" SID, 8:1 grid, and 1.2 mm, focal spot. The kVp is increased to 104. In order to compensate for the change in receptor exposure with all other factors remaining the same, the exposure time should be adjusted to: 3/4 second. Due to the compensated change, what would be the resultant effect to exposure latitude? A. Increase B. Decrease C. Remain the same

Increase

A portable lateral radiograph of the lumbar spine is obtained using the following exposure factors: 200 mA, 1.5 sec., 90 kVp, 40" SID, 8:1 grid, and 1.2 mm, focal spot. Resultant effect of utilizing a .6 mm focal spot. A. Increased spatial resolution, no effect to receptor exposure B. Decreased spatial resolution, increased receptor exposure C. Increased magnification D. Decreased spatial resolution

Increased spatial resolution, no effect to receptor exposure

A portable lateral radiograph of the lumbar spine is obtained using the following exposure factors: 200 mA, 1.5 sec., 90 kVp, 40" SID, 8:1 grid, and 1.2 mm, focal spot. Resultant effect of utilizing a .35" SID. A. Increased spatial resolution B. Increased contrast C. Increased magnification D. Decreased magnification

Increased magnification

The letter A refers to the ___ layer. A. Protective B. Phosphor C. Support D. Conductor

Protective

Which letter refers to the phosphor layer? A. Letter A B. Letter B C. Letter C D. Letter E

Letter B

Which of the following pathological conditions would require an increase in mAs or kVp to maintain an acceptable density? A. Osteoporosis B. Pneumothorax C. Pleural effusion D. Osteolytic tumor

Pleural effusion

A stationary anode x-ray tube utilizes copper: A. As the target material B. To conduct heat away from the tungsten anode C. In the construction of the filament D. In the construction of the focusing cup

To conduct heat away from the tungsten anode

The Moire effect can be caused by: A. Grid error with a digital image receptor system B. Poor monitor quality control C. Overexposing the image receptors D. Underexposing the image receptors

Grid error with a digital image receptor system

Which of the following would improve the contrast resolution on a digital image? A. Smaller pixel size B. Larger pixel size C. Smaller pixel bit depth D. Larger pixel bit depth E. Larger matrix

Larger pixel bit deepth

The ___ selector uses an autotransformer. A. mA B. Timer C. kVp D. AEC chamber

kVp

What is between the TV or CCD camera and the computer of a digital fluoro system? A. Image storage device B. Image intensifier tube C. Analog to digital converter D. Digital to analog converter

Analog to digital converter

A ___ grid is recommended for digital imaging to obtain the best quality images. A. High ratio B. Low ratio C. High frequency D. Low frequency

High frequency

Which of the following would eliminate white and black pixels that contribute little diagnostic information in digital radiography? A. Histogram equalization B. Unsharp masking C. Background substraction D. Energy substraction

Histogram equalization

The output current of a full-wave rectifier is: A. Alternating current B. Direct current C. Pulsating direct current

Pulsating direct current

The photocathode of the image intensifier emits: A. Light photons B. X-ray photons C. Protons D. Electrons

Electrons

The exposure timer on a three phase generator can be evaluated using a/an: A. Spinning top B. Synchronous spinning top C. Ion chamber D. B & C E. A, B & C

B & C synchronous spinning top, ion chamber

Which type of x-ray generator (power supply) should provide the highest quality x-ray beam? A. Self rectified B. High frequency C. Full wave rectified D. Three-phase, six pulse

High frequence

DQE can be defined as: A. The quality of digital enhancement B. The quantity of digital enhancement C. How efficiently a system converts the x-ray exposure into an image D. Quality control of digital systems

How efficiently a system converts the x-ray exposure into an image

The structure designated as No. 1 on Radiograph A is the: A. Articular pillar B. Body C. Pedicle D. Transverse process

Body

The structure designated as No. 2 on Radiograph B is the: A. Vertebral foramen B. Lamina C. Transverse foramen D. Intervertebral foramen

Intervertebral foramen

In order to improve Radiograph A, the technologist should: A. Increase patient obliquity B. Decrease patient obliquity C. Increase CR angle D. Decrease CR angle

Increase patient obliquity

In order to obtain a projection similar to Radiograph B, the degree of angulation between the mid-sagittal plane and the plane of the film should be adjusted to approximately: A. 20-25 degrees B. 30-35 degrees C. 40-45 degrees D. 50-55 degrees E. 60-65 degrees

40-45 degrees

What are the four MAIN divisions of the respiratory system? A. Diaphragms, lungs, trachea, esophagus B. Nasopharynx, oropharynx, epiglottis, lungs C. Nasopharynx, laryngopharynx, trachea, lungs D. Pharynx, trachea, bronchi, lungs

Pharynx, trachea, bronchi, lungs

Which of the following bones of the skull articulates with the spinal comumn? A. Sphenoid bone B. Temporal bone C. Occipital bone D. Parietal bone

Occipital bone

The body of the ischium forms the: A. Anterior portion of the obturator foramen B. Anterior portion of the acetabulum C. Posterior portion of the acetabulum D. Medial portion of the SI joint

Posterior portion of the acetabulum

The superior articulation of the calcaneus is with the: A. Distal tibia B. Talus C. Cuboid D. Cuneiforms

Talus

Which of the following would reduce foreshortening of the scaphoid? A. PA projection B. Radial deviation position C. Ulnar deviation position D. Lateral projection

Ulnar deviation position

In order to obtain a lateral projection of the humerus with the patient supine, it would be necessary to: A. Abduct the humerus slightly and place back of hand against the body B. Abduct the humerus and place palm of hand flat on table C. Abduct the humerus and extend the elbow D. Abduct the humerus and flex the elbow

Abduct the humerus slightly and place back of hand against the body

The clavicle articulates with the: A. Sternum and spine B. Humerus and sternum C. Scapula and sternum D. Scapula and humerus

Scapula and sternum

The function of the thoracic duct is to transmit: A. Blood to the intercostal muscles B. Air from the trachea to the bronchi C. Blood from the superior vena cava to the heart D. Lymph to the left subclavian vein

Lymph to the left subclavian vein

In the diagram, demonstrating the axial PA projection of the intercondyloid fossa, which is the correct central ray? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. None

Which of the following would be utilized to demonstrate the axillary region of the ribs with the patient prone? A. Elevate the affected side B. Elevate the unaffected side C. Direct the central ray caudad D. Direct the central ray cephalad

Elevate the affected side

A patient is suspected of having a subluxation of the cervical vertebrae. Since the patient cannot be rotated, an oblique projection could be obtained by directing the central ray to form an angel of ___ degrees with the coronal plane. A. 15 B. 25 C. 30 D. 45 E. 90

The smooth prominence located between the eyebrows and superior to the nasal bones is the: A. Acanthion B. Bregma C. Nasion D. Glabella E. Inion

Glabella

The Valsalva maneuver would be utilized to demonstrate: A. A gastric ulcer B. A gastric diverticulum C. Polyps D. Esophageal varices

Esophageal varices

Which of the following would best demonstrate the sphenoid sinuses? A. PA Axial (Caldwell method) B. Lateral projection C. Parietoacanthial Projection (Waters method) D. Posterior Profile Position (Stenvers method)

Lateral projection

A 45 degree right posterior oblique position of the lumbar vertebrae fails to adequately demonstrate the lumbosacral zygaplphyseal articulation. In order to demonstrate this area, the patient should be positioned with the mid-coronal plane and the plane of the image receptor forming an angle of: A. 30 degrees B. 45 degrees C. 60 degrees D. 90 degrees

30 degrees

A lateral projection of the tibia and fibula is to be obtained, but due to the patient's condition, the exam is performed on the stretcher with the IR flat. The leg can only be rotated externally 45 degrees. In order to obtain a lateral projection, with the leg rotated externally 45 degrees, the central ray should be directed: A. 45 degrees lateral B. 45 degrees medial C. Perpendicular to the IR D. 90 degrees medial

45 degrees lateral

The most superior process of the ulna is the: A. Radial notch B. Coronoid process C. Semilunar notch D. Olecranon process

Olecranon process

For a lateral projection of the foot, the central ray would be directed to the: A. Head of the third metatarsal B. Base of the third metatarsal C. Tibiotalar joint D. Navicular

Base of the third metatarsal

In order to demonstrate the sacroiliac joint utilizing an anterior oblique position, the central ray should be directed: A. Cephalad B. Caudad C. To the joint nearest the film D. To the joint furthest from the film

To the joint nearest the film

The concave superior border of the manubrium is terned the: A. Coastal notch B. Sternal angle C. Jugular notch D. Clavicular notch

Jugular notch

A correctly positioned open-mouth projection of the dens should demonstrate the upper incisors: A. Projected superior to the petrous pyramids B. Projected superior to the mastoid processes C. superimposed upon the cranial base D. Superimposed upon the body of the atlas

Superimposed upon the cranial base

A patient is positioned in a 45 degree right posterior oblique position. A perpendicular central ray is directed to a point 2" medial and 2" inferior to the upper outer border of the shoulder. This position would best demonstrate the: A. Right glenoid cavity B. Left glenoid cavity C. Right coracoid process D. Left coracoid process

Right glenoid cavity

Which of the following would be utilized to best demonstrate the right colic flexure during an examination of the colon? A. AP projection B. Right lateral projection C. Right anterior oblique position D. Left anterior oblique position

Right anterior oblique position

An AP projection of the scapula shows the inferolateral border superimposed by the thoracic cavity. Which of the following would correct the positioning of this radiograph? A. Pronate the hand B. Angle the central ray 10 degrees cephalic C. Abduct the humerus D. Put patient in an upright position E. No correction needed

Abduct the humerus

The structure depicted in the diagram as #1 is the: A. Glomerulus B. Glomerular capsule C. Loop of Henle D. Efferent arteriole

Glomerular capsule

The structure depicted in the diagram as #3 is the: A. Glomerulus B. Glomerular capsule C. Loop of Henle D. Efferent tubule

Loop of Henle

The network of capillaries where filtration occurs is depicted by number: A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

The functional unit of the kidney is the: A. Nephron B. Hilum C. Calyx D. Medulla

Nephron

Radiology 4 Flashcards

(100 cards)