Random Flashcards

1
Q

What is CFL?

A

the greater of the total runway distances required to accelerate on all engines, experience a failure of the most critical engine (Vcef) from the standpoint of control of the airplace, and then to either continue the takeoff to lift-off or stop

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2
Q

What is Vcef?

A

accelerate-stop speed that equates to CFL

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3
Q

What is minimum runway length for normal takeoff?

A

Critical field length

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4
Q

For peace-time, do not use runways less than ______ feet

A

3,000

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5
Q

What is the acceleration distance based on?

A

based on all engines set at the computed takeoff power, not exceeding 19,600 inch-pounds of torque

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6
Q

Bleeds closed decreases takeoff factor by ____

A

0.1

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7
Q

What is Vr?

A

Refusal speed. Based on runway available and is defined as the max speed to which the airplane can accelerate with engines at takeoff power and then stop within the remainder of the runway available, with two engines (symmetrical power) in reverse, one engine in ground idle, one propeller windmilling and max anti-skid braking

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8
Q

Vrot (rotation speed) is set to ___ knots below take-off speed

A

5 knots

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9
Q

Why is Vrot set to 5 knots below Vto?

A

Allows for the airplane to have sufficient acceleration capability to achieve Vto over the time interval during which is is rotated to its pitch attitude/angle-of-attach required for take-off

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10
Q

Calculate Vrot as 5 KIAS less than the take-off speed or ______, whichever is higher

A

Vmca

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11
Q

What is Vmcg?

A

the minimum airspeed at which the airplane may lose an outboard engine during the takeoff ground run and still maintain directional control

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12
Q

What is Vmcg based on?

A
  1. No 1 engine inoperative with the propeller windmilling on NTS
  2. Maximum power on all operating engines
  3. Zero bleed (good for any bleed condition)
  4. Flaps 50 percent with 3,000 PSI rudder boost
  5. Max available rudder deflection limited by 180-pound rudder pedal force or maximum rudder surface deflection, whichever occurs first
  6. Max deviation from runway center line of 30 feet
  7. Maintain wings level
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13
Q

When is Vmcg not applicable?

A

after a takeoff is aborted and asymmetrical power conditions no longer exist

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14
Q

When is Vmcg applicable?

A

When a takeoff is continued after a critical engine failure. (Vmcg <= Vr < Vto)

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15
Q

When must the acceleration check be done?

A

When Vr is lower than Vto

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16
Q

What is takeoff distance?

A

the total distance required to accelerate to takeoff speed, lift-off, and climb to a 50 foot height above the lift-off point. (takeoff ground run [distance from brake release to lift-off point] plus the distance from the lift-off point up to 50 feet above the lift-off elevation)

16
Q

What is ground effect?

A

reduction in the drag of an airplane when operated in close proximity to the ground. (1/2 wing span - 66 feet is largest drag duration)

17
Q

New TOLD will be required any time gross weights changes ______ pounds or more, OAT changes ___ degrees celsius or more, or pressure altitude changes ______ feet or more

A

5,000; 5; 1,000

18
Q

What is cruise ceiling?

A

the altitude at which the airplane rate of climb capability at maximum continuous power and at Best Climb speed is 300 fpm

19
Q

What is Service Ceiling?

A

The altitude at which the airplane rate of climb capability at maximum continuous power and at Best Climb speed is 100 fpm

20
Q

What is Range Capability?

A

function of fuel consumed and ground speed

21
Q

Vt/Wf - Specific Range: what is it

A

True airspeed divided by total fuel flow; or air nautical miles per pound of fuel

22
Q

What is long range cruise?

A

identifies flight of the airplane at the speed for 99% (Vt/Wf) MAX

23
Q

What is the normal landing gross weight? What max sink rate does this allow?

A

130,000 lbs or less; allows a max sink rate of 540 fpm

24
Q

What is the max landing gross weight? What max sink rate does this allow?

A

155,000 lbs (175,000 max overload); max rate of sink of 300 fpm

25
Q

What’s the max recommended taxi speed on hard surface taxiways?

A

20 knots

26
Q

Do not exceed ___ KIAS with the landing gear extended

A

165 KIAS

27
Q

Do not exceed ______ KIAS with the ramp (or ramp and cargo door) open regardless of whether the paratroop doors are open or closed or the position of the air deflectors.

A

150 KIAS

28
Q

Do not exceed ______ KIAS with the ramp up and locked and cargo door open

A

185 KIAS

29
Q

Do not exceed ______ KIAS when operating the paratroop air deflectors or with the air deflectors extended regardless of whether the paratroop doors are open or closed

A

150 KIAS

30
Q

Max airspeed with the paratroop doors open and locked is ______ KIAS

A

250 KIAS

31
Q

Max airspeed during opening/closing of the doors, and with the doors open but not locked is ______ KIAS

A

150 KIAS

32
Q
A