Random Flashcards

(91 cards)

1
Q

You are evaluating a 4 year-old girl referred from a nutritionist for severe obesity. The past medical history is notable for decreased fetal movements, severe hypotonia for the first year of life, strabismus, and mild intellectual disability. At age three-years she began to rapidly gain weight and is now obsessed with food to the point that her parents have to carefully control food in the home. Which of the following tests has the best chance of confirming the likely diagnosis?
A. Growth hormone levels B. Methylation studies of chromosome 15q11-q13
C. High resolution chromosome analysis in her father
D. Sequencing of the UBE3A gene E. FISH deletion testing for PRader Willi/Angelman Syndrome

A

B. Methylation studies of chromosome 15q11-q13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A 5-year-old girl presents with classic Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy, an X-linked recessive disorder. Which of the following explanations could best explain this unsual occurrence?
A. An Xp chromosomal deletion that includes the DYSTROPHIN gene (the gene mutated in Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy)
B. An unbalanced X-autosomal chromosomal translocation that transects the DYSTROPHIN gene.
C. X linked testicular feminization
D. Autosomal translocation of SRY

A

C. X linked testicular feminization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A pregnant woman and her husband are referred for genetic counseling regarding their risk of having a second child with Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy. There is no history of his DMD disease in her family. What is the best estimate of their risk
that this fetus will have DMD?
A. 50% B. 33% C. 25% D. 17%

A

D. 17%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following best describes the frequency of occurrence of a medical problem in Down Syndrome?
A. Seizures in 25%
B. Thyroid disease in 25% C. Webbed neck in 25%
D. Autism in 50%
E. Horseshoe kidneys in 50% F. Structural GI tract defects in 50%

A

B. Thyroid disease in 25%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following approaches have been highly successful when applied to discovery of genes involved in susceptibility to common “complex” diseases such as type 1 diabetes, asthma, coronary artery disease, and many others?
A. Candidate gene DNA sequencing analysis
B. Candidate gene association studies
C. Genomewide genetic linkage studies
D. Genomewide association studies
E. All of the above

A

Genomewide association studies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A man is affected with an X linked dominant disorder which has a penetrance of 60%. His wife is homozygous normal at this locus. What is the probability that his first daughter will be affected?
A. 25% B. 40% C. 50% D. 60% E. 100%

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

An African American couple comes to the clinic for counseling because the husband’s brother is affected with sickle cell anemia. Neither the husband nor wife is are anemic. The population carrier rate for heterozygotes in the African American community is approximately 1 in 12. What is the risk that this couple will have a child with sickle cell anemia

A

1/72

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Common methylation on DNA

A

5- methylcytosine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

if 5 methylcytosine is deaminated….

A

Thymine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

deamination of cytosine….

A

uracil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Origin of replication usually rich in

A

A-T repeats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Origin binding proteins in eukaryotes and prokaryotes

A

E- ORC

P- DNAA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Helicases in P and E

A

E- MCM

P- DnaB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

SSBPs in P and E

A

E- RPA

P- SSB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Common alkylation of DNA

A

0-6 methylguanine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

O6 methylguanin->

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Enzymes that fix 06 methylguanine

A

methyltransferase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

CTD of Pol ___ is phosphorylated by ____ subunit of ____

A

II
CDK7
TFIIH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How far is the TATA box from start site?

A

30 bp upstream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

alpha amantin is a ____ inhibitor of RNA pol

A

Non competitive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Aspirin inhibits ___

A

degradation of IKB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Strong helix formers

A

Alanine and leucine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Helix breakers

A

Proline and glycine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Prions are rich in ____

A

beta sheets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
____ read sequencers are useful for linking contiguous polymorphisms on the same haplotype
Long-read sequencers
26
52 BP1 ->
NHEJ
27
BRCA 1 ->
HR
28
HR depends on the presence of
Sister chromatids
29
Misregulated HR can lead to
Loss of heterozygosity
30
Enzyme that clears out beta amyloid
APOE
31
variation of APOE that is not very good at clearing out beta amyloid
apo 4
32
Competitive inhibitor effect on lineweaver burke plot
changes slope
33
Noncompetitive inhibitor effect on lineweaver burke plot
Changes y intercept
34
Percentage of genes in human genome that are imprinted
35
PKU defects
-Phenylalanine Hydroxylase defect (98%)  Catalyzes conversion of Phe Tyr -PAH cofactor BH4 defect (1-2%) -Defect in BH4 synthesis and recycling -BH4 important in monoamine neurotransmitter synthesis
36
Sickle cell anemia is autosomal ___
Recessive
37
Alpha thal trait common in Africa, Mediterranean and Asia
alpha thal 2 | a-/a-
38
HbH
(a-/--)
39
alpha thal trait common in SE Asia
alpha thal 1 | --
40
Achondroplasia mutation
FGFR3 | gain of function
41
Inheritance of Achondroplasia
AD
42
Inheritance of tuberous sclerosis
AD
43
Inheritance of osteogenesis Imperfecta
AD
44
Inheritance of Marfan
AD
45
Mutation of Marfan
FBN1
46
Huntington inheritance
AD
47
Paternal transmission bias Huntington
maternal- later onset | paternal- early onset
48
Hemophilia A inheritance
XR
49
Duchene muscular dystrophy inheritance
XR
50
HNPP
Deletion of PMP22
51
Charcot-Marie Tooth
duplication of PMP22 | Autosomal dominant
52
Fabry occurs with a deficiency of
alpha-galactosidase A
53
Limited insertion size of retroviral gene therapy
7-8 KB
54
Achondroplasia nucleotide mutation
Gly380Arg
55
Extraintestinal manifestation IBD
Erythema nodosum
56
Anal fistulas Crohn's vs. Ulcerative Colitis
common in Crohn's | rare in UC
57
Insulin release from beta cell
- glucose enters through GLUT2 transporter - glycolysis, increasing intracellular atp/adp ratio - close atp sensitive potassium channel - opens voltage gated calcium channel - exocytosis of insulin
58
H/K exchanger
nonexistent
59
3 ways Na/Cl absorption into blood
1. Na, Cl, and water leak in on apical side 2. Na, Cl, and water leak through shunt pathway 3. Na/2Cl/K cotransporter on apical side
60
Role of Na/K pump in action potential
Restores concentrations of Na and K
61
First stage of MS
inflammation
62
Later stage of MS
Neurodegeneration
63
Consequences of MS (2)
- decreased speed of conduction in nerves | - harder to depolarize due to constant leak of K out of cell (hyperpolarization)
64
Na channel blockers used in treatment of MS
phenytoin, flecainidine
65
K channel blockers in treatment of MS
Dalfampridine
66
Specific transporter of RanGDP into nucleus
NFT2
67
Karyopherin for mRNA and rRNA
NXF1/NXT1
68
Size cut off for nuclear import/export
20-30 KD
69
ER resident sequence
KDEL
70
Lysosome signal sequence
KFERQ (chaperone mediated autophagy) | mannose 6 phosphate
71
Function of N linked glycosylation
- keep proteins from aggregating | - monitor unfolded
72
Enzymes used in ubiquination
E1, E2, and E3
73
Alpha subunit of proteosome
Regulate substrate entry into death chamber
74
Beta subunit of proteosome
Actual clipping of subunits
75
Autophagy is induced by
nutrient starvation
76
Vesicle nucleation macroautophagy
activate a PI3K complex
77
CytC-> ____ -> _____ -> ______
Apaf-1-> caspase 9 -> caspase 3
78
Structure of microtubule
alpha and beta heterodimer
79
Functions of bones
- ca homeostasis | - protect hematopoetic tissue
80
Function of hyaline cartilage (4)
- Allows metabolites to readily diffuse through tissue - Promotes resiliency to compression forces during joint movement - Allows growth of chondrocytes and matrix from within the matrix - During growth can calcify and attract cells that initiate bone formation
81
Location of osteoprogenitor cells
periosteal and endosteal surfaces
82
location of osteoblast
line inner layers of peiosteal and endosteal surfaces
83
parathyroid hormone
calcium liberation
84
calcitonin
calcium uptake in bone
85
ALK fuses with
EML4
86
Diapedesis
leukocytes crossing vessel walls (post capillary venules)
87
Defect in one-way flap valves in veins
varicose veins
88
How blood flow is regulated in capillary beds
1. Arterio-venous shunts and metaarterioles | 2. one red blood cell can fit in its diameter
89
Majority of mutations in HCM are ____
Missense
90
Muscle cell phenotype HCM (4)
1. Cardiomyocyte and cardiac hypertrophy 2. Myocyte disarray 3. Fibrosis 4. Dysplastic intramyocardial arterioles
91
Treatment of MH
IV dantrolene