Random Drug Facts

Question 1

What is the only licensed drug for the treatment of uncomplicated genital chlamydial infection that can be administered as a single dose?

Answer 1

Azithromycin

1g orally when given as a single dose

Question 2

What is the treatment of choice to treat a PE in a patient with normal renal function and no CV compromise

Answer 2

Dalteparin sodium

Dose depends on patient weight

Question 3

What would you give as a fluid bolus?

Answer 3

500ml crystalloid (containing 130-154mmol/L of sodium)

Recommended over 15 minutes

Question 4

What is the first choice antibiotic for a pregnant woman with a UTI?

Answer 4

Amoxicillin- 500mg oral tds

Nitrofurantoin 50mg qds is also safe in pregnancy until term

Question 5

What are some causes of deranged LFTs?

Answer 5

Amiodarone

Simvastatin

Question 6

What medications can cause GI bleeding?

Answer 6

NSAIDs- aspirin

Antiplatelets: clopidogrel

Question 7

What medications can raise BP?

Answer 7

Glucocorticoids- e.g. prednisolone

Antidepressants e.g. serotonin-noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors such as venlafaxine

NSAIDs: Through salt and water retention

Question 8

What are some medications that may aggravate symptoms of Parkinsons?

Answer 8

Dopamine agonists e.g. prochlorperazine and antipsychotics

Question 9

What medications can raise K+?

Answer 9

ACEI: e.g. ramipril

K-sparing diuretics: e.g. spironolactone

Question 10

What medications should be avoided in pregnancy?

Answer 10

Warfarin
Folate antagonists e.g. methotrexate
ACEI e.g. lisinopril: Adverse effects on fetal and neonatal BP, with some reports of fetal malformations.

Question 11

What medications can cause constipation?

Answer 11

Opioids

Iron supplementation

Question 12

After missing 3+ pills, what advice should you give a patient on a combined pill?

Answer 12

Additional contraception required until pills have been taken for 7 consecutive days

Question 13

How would you manage a potential paracetamol OD in a child when there is uncertainty about the time of the OD?

Answer 13

Immediate acetylcysteine IV infusion

Question 14

When is aciclovir indicated in the treatment of herpes zoster?

Answer 14

Within the first 72 hours after presenting with symptoms

Question 15

How should you administer aciclovir in a patient with shingles who is not immunocompromised?

Answer 15

Oral treatment

Question 16

What is the first line treatment of a patient with hypertension who is

Answer 16

ACEI

Question 17

What should you warn patients about to receive an adenosine infusion about?

Answer 17

Effects unlikely to last more than 1-2 minutes
Requires ECG monitoring and resusc facilities due to risk of arrhythmias and AV block
Numerous heart SEs including angina, severe bradycardia or asystole

Question 18

What do you need to warn a patient starting a gliclazide about?

Answer 18

Risk of hypos- must be aware and self-treat as required

Weight gain

Question 19

What is an important side effect you must warn patients about before commencing carbimazole therapy?

Answer 19

Bone marrow suppression- agranulocytosis and neutropenia.

Warn must seek medical attention if any signs of infection e.g. sore throat, mouth ulcer, bruising or fever

Question 20

What is the most likely side effect from nifedipine treatment?

Answer 20

Ankle oedema

Question 21

What medications may cause hyperglycaemia?

Answer 21

Corticosteroids e.g. prednisolone

Antipsychotics e.g. clozapine, olanzipine, quetiapine

Question 22

What medications are contraindicated with lithium?

Answer 22

Thiazide diuretics- increase serum lithium concentration

Question 23

How should you manage a patient with a dry cough due to ACEI treatment?

Answer 23

Switch to an ARB e.g. losartan

Question 24

What needs to be monitored when starting antipsychotic therapy?

Answer 24

FBC
Us&Es
LFTs

Annual monitoring

Question 25

What additional monitoring needs to be carried out for clozapine?

Answer 25

Differential WCC- weekly for 18 weeks then fortnightly up to a year then monthly.

Question 26

What should be monitored when starting an aminosalicylate?

Answer 26

Us&Es- before, at 3 months at annually on treatment

Question 27

What can be monitored to provide an objective measure of blood loss?

Answer 27

FBC

Question 28

What's the most appropriate monitoring option to guide adjustment of insulin infusion during the first 24 hours post DKA?

Answer 28

Capillary blood glucose

Question 29

What does "linear kinetics" mean?

Answer 29

Any change in dosage will lead to a proportionate change in serum concentration

Question 30

What are some medications that have linear kinetics?

Answer 30

Digoxin

Question 31

How would you manage hypercalcaemia due to dehydration?

Answer 31

Rehydrate the patient- IV sodium chloride 0.9%

Question 32

What medications should be stopped without replacement preop?

Answer 32

OCP Antiplatelets Anticoagulants

Question 33

What medications should be stopped and supplemented with other medications pre-op?

Answer 33

Anti-DM, insulin- replace with sliding scale

Question 34

What is the treatment dose of aspirin? How long is it given for?

Answer 34

300mg- 2 weeks post stroke/MI (75mg thereafter)

Question 35

Which NSAID doesn't cause renal failure?

Answer 35

Aspirin

Question 36

What medications predispose to gastric ulceration?

Answer 36

NSAIDs | Oral steroids

Question 37

What drugs should you avoid changing pre-op?

Answer 37

Beta blockers | CCB

Question 38

When should lithium be stopped preop?

Answer 38

Day before surgery

Question 39

What are common causes of ARF?

Answer 39

Ibuprofen

Question 40

What drugs can significantly reduce lithium excretion

Answer 40

NSAIDs ACEI (Thiazide) diuretics

Question 41

What drugs should not be abruptly stopped?

Answer 41

``` Anti-Epileptics Beta blockers, CCBs Baclofen Antidepressants Steroids ```

Question 42

What is the first line pharmacological management of a patient with kidney disease and T2DM?

Answer 42

Sulphonylureas e.g. gliclazide

Question 43

What is the maximum daily dose of paracetamol?

Answer 43

4g

Question 44

When are pro kinetic antiemetics e.g. metoclopramide CI?

Answer 44

Bowel obstruction

Question 45

When are 5HT3 antiemetics most useful?

Answer 45

Chemically-induced nausea

Question 46

When is haloperidol best used as an antiemetic?

Answer 46

Palliative care

Question 47

What are the effects of steroids?

Answer 47

Gastric ulceration (oral) Osteoporosis- give Ca ± bisphosphonates DM Hypertension

Question 48

What drugs should not be prescribed with methotrexate?

Answer 48

Folate antagonists e.g. trimethoprim, co-trimoxazole

Question 49

What dietary restrictions are in place while a patient is on steroids?

Answer 49

Grapefruit juice

Question 50

What drugs are contraindicated in patients prescribed simvastatin?

Answer 50

Clarithromycin

Question 51

When is methotrexate contraindicated?

Answer 51

Active infection | Pregnancy

Question 52

What are the sick day rules for steroids?

Answer 52

Doubled to meet physiological standards

Question 53

What medications are given for immediate relief of dyspepsia?

Answer 53

Magnesium carbonate, magnesium trisilicate,

Question 54

What medications must have a stop/review date?

Answer 54

Antibiotics

Question 55

What are the contraindications to stimulant laxative use?

Answer 55

Colitis | Cramps

Question 56

What are examples of stimulant laxatives?

Answer 56

Senna, bisocodyl, sodium picosulfate (latter used for bowlel prep)

Question 57

What are the best laxatives to prescribe in a patient requiring immediate (quick) relief from constipation?

Answer 57

Stimulant laxatives

Question 58

What are contraindications to osmotic laxatives?

Answer 58

Bloating

Question 59

What are examples of osmotic laxatives?

Answer 59

Lactulose

Question 60

When should you give stimulant laxatives?

Answer 60

At night

Question 61

What are the typical SEs of tramadol?

Answer 61

Agitation/hallucinations

Question 62

What is the correct way to test tacrolimus level?

Answer 62

Trough doses before morning or evening dose

Question 63

What is the best measure of serum response in DKA?

Answer 63

Serum ketones

Question 64

What should trough levels of vancomycin be?

Answer 64

10-15mg/l

Question 65

What are documented SEs of CCBs?

Answer 65

Ankle oedema | Facial flushing

Question 66

What are the SEs of antimuscarinics?

Answer 66

Urinary retention, constipation, blurred vision, dried mouth, GI disturbance

Question 67

What is an e.g. of an anti-muscarinic?

Answer 67

Cyclizine NB CI in HF

Question 68

How should you manage a patient with a raised INR who is bleeding?

Answer 68

Vit K by slow IV injection