Rapid Review 2 Flashcards
(200 cards)
1
Q
neutralizing substance for
Sda
A
guinea pig urine
2
Q
neutralizing substance for
P1
A
hydatid cyst fluid
and
pigeon eggs
3
Q
neutralizing substance for
H
A
saliva
Ulex europaeus
lotus tetragonolobus
4
Q
neutralizing substance for
Le a
A
saliva
5
Q
neutralizing substance for
I (big i)
A
breast milk
6
Q
neutralizing substance for
chido
A
plasma
7
Q
neutralizing substance for
rodgers
A
plasma
8
Q
neutralizing substance for
A1
A
dolichos biflorus
9
Q
neutralizing substance for
B
A
bandeiraea simplicifolia
10
Q
neutralizing substance for
T
A
arachis hypogaea
11
Q
neutralizing substance for
N
A
vicea graminea
12
Q
generally insignificant allo antibodies
A
LoveLy & Pretty MeaNingless
Le a
Le b
P1
M
N
13
Q
when should you use an F test?
A
to decide if one test is more precise than the other
(i.e. how different are the distributions of 2 data sets)
14
Q
on a Lineweaver Burke plot, what is the y intercept?
A
1 over Vmax
15
Q
on a Lineweaver Burke plot, what is the x intercept?
A
1 over Km (Michaelis constant)
16
Q
how do competitive inhibitors relate to a drug without an inhibitor?
A
same y intercept
different x intercept (bc Km increases)
17
Q
how do non-competitive inhibitors relate to a drug without an inhibitor?
A
same x intercept
different y intercept (bc they alter V and Vmax)
18
Q
on a Lineweaver Burke plot, what is the x axis?
A
1 over [S]
19
Q
on a Lineweaver Burke plot, what is the y axis?
A
1 over V
20
Q
put the thyroid hormones in order from most to least metabolically active
A
T3 > T4 > rT3
21
Q
Best marker for pancreatic insufficiency
A
fecal elastase test (abnormal = low, <100)
22
Q
what happens to the pH, pO2, and pCO2 of blood if you leave it in the tube/syringe for a while?
A
pH goes down
pO2 goes down
pCO2 goes up
pO2 goes down & pCO2 goes up bc the pyruvate cycle is going
23
Q
what happens to the pH, pO2, and pCO2 of blood if you leave it open to ambient air for a while?
A
pH goes up
pO2 goes up
pCO2 goes down
it starts to ~become the air
24
Q
Wilson disease
mode of inheritance & gene
A
auto recessive
ATP7B mutation
25
what's this
cryptococcus neoformans
26
what's this
cryptococcus neoformans
27
what's this
cryptococcus neoformans
28
what's this
cryptococcus neoformans
29
what's this
coccidioides immitis
30
what's this
coccidioides
31
what's this
coccidioides
32
fungus from southwestern US
coccidioides
33
what's this
coccidioides
34
what's the bat guano fungus
histoplasmosis
35
what's this
histoplasma
36
what's this
histoplasmosis
37
what's this
entamoeba histoloytica
38
what's this
balamuthia mandrillaris
amoeba
39
what's this
balamuthia mandrillaris
amoeba
40
what's this
babesia
41
what's this
babesia
42
what's this
plasmodium falciparum
banana = gametocyte
rings in RBC = trophozoite
43
which malaria is quotidian?
plasmodium knowlesi
DAILY - fevers spike q24
quotidian = quotidien (Fr) = daily
44
which malaria is quartan?
plasmodium malariae
3 day cycle
45
which malaria is tertian?
B9: vivax & ovale
Malignant: falciparum
fevers q2days
46
which malaria is BENIGN tertian?
vivax more commonly than ovale
47
which malaria is MALIGNANT tertian
falciparum
48
what stage of RBCs does vivax preferentially penetrate?
young/reticulocytes
49
how does vivax enter the RBC
via Duffy blood group antigens
50
which malaria enters the RBC via the Duffy blood group antigen?
vivax
51
most diagnosed infections of P. vivax are thought to be due to what stage of the life cycle (and doing what)?
hypnozoite reactivation
hypnozoite = dormant in liver, released days-years after initial infxn
52
which malaria can reach higher levels of parasitemia than other species, and why?
falciparum
bc it infects ALL stages of RBCs, not just young ones
53
why is the malignant tertian malaria malignant?
FALCIP \> inserts Pfemp1 into infected RBC membranes \> adheres to CD36 on endothelial cells \> microcirculation obstruction \> organ dysfxn
## Footnote
**this is called sequestration**
54
what organ does falcip go to first?
after bloodstream
liver
55
what causes the cyclical fever in malaria?
the blood stages, where RBCs synchronously rupture to release merozoites
56
which malaria can have applique forms?
falciparum
57
which malaria can have maurer's clefts?
falciparum
58
what malignancy is associated with p. falciparum?
Burkitt!
59
which malaria has Schuffner's dots?
vivax and ovale
| (the benign tertian ones)
60
which malaria prefers older RBCs?
p. malariae
61
which malaria has the characteristic band/basket form?
p. malariae
| (it's the trophozoite)
62
which malaria has comet/fimbriated cells?
ovale
| (the RBCs will be ovoid)
63
which malaria is this?
ovale
64
which malaria is this?
ovale
65
which malaria is this?
vivax
| (Schuffner's dots)
66
which malaria has a headphone-shaped ring/merozoite form?
falciparum
67
which malaria is this?
falciparum
(left arrow = headphone, right arrow = applique form)
68
which malaria is this?
malariae
| (band form)
69
which malaria is this?
malariae
| (band form)
70
which malaria is this?
p. malariae
(basket)
(schizont)
71
which malaria is this?
falciparum
(Maurer's clefts = the red dots in the RBCs)
72
what's this
coccidioides immitis
73
what's this
balantidium coli (ciliated)
74
what's this?
entamoeba histolytica
75
what's this
entamoeba histolytica
76
what's the big difference between necator americanus and ancylostoma duodenale?
necator has cutting **plates**
ancylostoma has **teeth**
77
what's the other word for roundworms?
nematodes
78
whose egg is this?
hookworm
(could be necator or ancylostoma, they look the same)
hookworms are under the umbrella "roundworm/nematode"
79
whose egg is this?
ascaris lumbricoides
80
whose egg is this?
ascaris lumbricoides
unfertilized on left, fertilized on right
81
what is the largest and most common intestinal nematode of humans?
ascaris lumbricoides
82
whose egg is this?
trichuris trichiura
83
whose egg is this?
trichuris trichiura
84
which worm is the whipworm?
trichuris trichiura
| (also a nematode/roundworm)
85
who is this
brugia malayi
86
who is this
brugia malayi
87
what's the vector for brugia & wuchereria
mosquitos :(
88
who is this
wuchereria bancrofti
89
which 3 filarial worms are sheathed?
wuchereria bancrofti
brugia malayi
loa loa
90
which 2 filarial worms are NOT sheathed?
mansonella (ozzardi, perstans, streptocerca)
onchocerca
91
whose egg is this
schistosoma haematobium
92
where do adult schistosoma haematobum worms live in a person?
in the **bladder veins**
"venous plexus of bladder"
93
where does the schistosoma haematobium worm lay its eggs in a person?
the bladder wall
94
where do adult schistosoma mansoni worms live in a patient?
portal vasculature
mesenteric venules of bowel/rectum/colon
95
whose egg is this?
schistosoma mansoni
96
whose egg is this?
schistosoma mansoni
97
where do adult schistosoma japonicum worms live in a patient?
portal vasculature
mesenteric venules of small bowel/rectum
98
whose egg is this?
schistosoma japonicum
99
whose egg is this?
schistosoma japonicum
100
whose egg is this?
taenia solium/saginata
101
whose egg is this?
taenia solium/saginata
102
who is this
taenia saginata
15-20 uterine branches in gravid proglottid
103
who is this
taenia solium
7-13 uterine branches in gravid proglottid
104
what is the longest tapeworm in humans?
diphyllobothrium latum
105
what is the bug in a hydatid cyst?
echinococcus
106
how do you screen for echinococcosis?
ELISA with monoclonal antibodies
107
how do you confirm a diagnosis of echinococcosis after a positive screen?
immunoblot assays using specific antibodies that recognize hydatid antigens
108
what's this
echinococcal hydatid cyst
109
what's this
echinococcal hydatid cyst
110
what's this?
echinococcus (hydatid cyst)
111
what's this
echinococcus (hydatid cyst)
112
what is this
rhizopus
113
what is this
mucor
114
what is this
mucor
115
what is this
aspergillus
116
what is this
aspergillus flavus
| (phialides point in all directions)
117
what is this
aspergillus terreus
| (densely packed, biseriate)
118
what is this
aspergillus terreus
(biseriate, thingies don't go all the way around)
119
what is this
aspergillus niger
| (biseriate, all the way around)
120
what's this
fusobacterium
| (gram negative, almost filamentous)
121
what's this
fusobacterium
| (gram negative, almost filamentous)
122
what's this?
bacteroides fragilis
(Gram-negative pale-staining pleomorphic bacilli with rounded ends. Swellings and vacuoles are often present)
123
what pigment does pseudomonas make?
pyocyanin
green & water-soluble
124
what's this
pseudomonas
bottom right has pigment
and it's fucking beta hemolytic for some reason
125
what's the "mobile phase" of HPLC?
solvent
126
what's the "stationary phase" of HPLC?
separation column
127
what are the 3 costs incurred for proficiency testing?
indirect costs
fixed costs
operating expenses
128
on a Levey-Jennings plot, what is the x-axis?
run #
129
on a Levey-Jennings plot, what is the y-axis?
concentration
130
what are the 2 ways you can measure serum aluminum?
ICP-MS (inductively coupled plasma mass spec)
or
AAS (atomic absorption spectroscopy)
131
what are the chromosomal alterations in CCRCC?
3p21 mutation
| (BAP1, SETD2, PBRM1)
132
what are the chromosomal alterations in papillary RCC?
+7
+17
loss of Y
if aggro: +12/+16/+20
it has a Y in the name so it loses Y
133
what are the chromosomal alterations in chromophobe RCC?
modal chromosome number 38-39
loss of 1/2/6/10/13/17/21
134
what are the chromosomal alterations in renal oncocytoma?
-1/-14/-Y
11q13 rearrangement
(it has a Y in it so it loses Y)
135
which 5 chromosomes are the most likely to cause supernumerary marker chromosomes, and which is the MOST most likely?
MOST most: 15
13/14/15/21/22
136
what's the NCEP ATP III goal for LDL?
\<100 if CHD/risk equiv
\<130 with 2+ risk factors or Framingham 20%+
\<160 if 0 or 1 risk factors
137
what's the NCEP ATP III goal for total cholesterol?
\<200
138
what's the NCEP ATP III goal for triglycerides?
\<150
139
which anti-mitochondrial antigen is targeted by autoantibodies in syphilis?
M1
140
which anti-mitochondrial antigen is targeted by autoantibodies in primary biliary cirrhosis?
M2 & M4
i think also M8 and M9
141
which anti-mitochondrial antigen is targeted by autoantibodies in venocuran-induced pseudolupus?
M3
142
which anti-mitochondrial antigen is targeted by autoantibodies in collagen vascular disease & SLE?
M5
143
which anti-mitochondrial antigen is targeted by autoantibodies in ipronazid-induced hepatitis?
M6
144
which anti-mitochondrial antigen is targeted by autoantibodies in cardiomyopathy?
M7
145
what's Lemierre syndrome?
fusobacterium necrophorum infxn \> thrombophlebitis of IJ \> carotid sheath invasion \> septic emboli (usu pulmonary)
recent h/o pharyngitis
146
cytochrome for
warfarin
CYP2C9
VKORC1
147
cytochrome for
clopidogrel
CYP2C19
(LoFxn alleles CYP2C19\*2 a/w higher rates of cardio events in pts on clopidogrel)
148
cytochrome for
tamoxifen
CYP2D6
(metabolized to a more potent endoxifen)
149
cytochrome for
azathioprine
TPMT
150
cytochrome for
ADD drugs
D4D4
151
cytochromes for
codeine
(ugh)
CYP3A4: to norcodeine
UGT2B7: to codeine-6-glucuronide
CYP2D6: to morphine and then...
to normorphine (nobody is involved i guess)
UGT2B7 & UGT1A1: to morphine-3-glucuronide and morphine-6-glucuronide
152
3 things in an ideal PCR primer
1. melting point 52-58C
2. 18-22 nucleotides long
3. GC content 60-70%
153
HLA disease association
Graves
HLA-DR3
154
HLA disease association
rheumatoid arthritis
HLA-DRB1
155
HLA disease association
granulomatosis with polyangiitis
HLA-DPBI\*0401
156
HLA disease association
ankylosing spondylitis
HLA-B27
157
HLA disease association
Behcet's disease
HLA-B51
158
HLA disease association
narcolepsy/cataplexy
HLA-DQB1\*06:02
\*\*\*tightest known association with an HLA allele\*\*\*
159
HLA disease association
celiac disease
HLA-DQ2/DQ8
160
what are the type 1 cryoglobulins
single monoclonal protein, usu IgG or IgM
161
what are the type 2 cryoglobulins?
monoclonal usu IgM
WITH
polyclonal usu IgG
(this is the "mixed" one)
162
what are the type 3 cryoglobulins
polyclonal, usu IgG or IgM
163
which cryoglobulinemia is a/w Waldenstrom/myeloma/lymphoma?
type 1
monoclonal only
164
which cryoglobulinemia is a/w hep C?
type 2 (mixed monoclonal and polyclonal)
and
type 3 (polyclonal only)
165
which PROcoagulants are synthesized in the liver ONLY?
factors: 2, 7, 9, 10, 11, 12
fibrinogen
alpha2-antiplasmin
TAFI
166
which ANTIcoagulants are synthesized in the liver ONLY?
plasminogen
167
which PROcoagulants are made in the liver and at extrahepatic sites?
factor 5, 8
PAI-1
168
which ANTIcoagulants are made in the liver & at extrahepatic sites?
antithrombin
protein C
protein S
TFPI
169
which cardiac marker increases FIRST after MI?
myoglobin
170
what is the ORDER of the 4 cardiac marker elevations after MI?
1. myoglobin
2. troponin T or I
3. CK or CK-MB
4. LD-1
my tropCKLe
(tropcicle)
171
which disease has "targets and tacos" on peripheral smear?
hemoglobin SC disease
beta S + beta C
172
in a transplant crossmatch, what do CDC and FC show you?
CDC: IgG and IgM Abs
FC: IgG only
173
in a transplant crossmatch, how do you tell if you have an IgG or IgM antibody?
FC is only IgG
CDC is IgG and IgM \> add DTT to denature IgM (DTT reveals IgG)
174
in an FC transplant crossmatch, which HLAs correspond with B & T?
B & T: HLA-I A/B/C
B only: HLA-II DR/DQ/DP
175
transplant crossmatch
predict CDC and FC results for
IgM antibodies
CDC both +
FC both -
176
transplant crossmatch
predict CDC and FC results for
Class II HLA Ab
CDC: B + only
FC: B + only
177
in a transplant crossmatch, if you have CDC T+, how will FC look?
both T & B should be +
if only T is +, you could have a non-HLA Ab
178
what is the order of complement fixing ability for IgG Abs?
IgG3 \> 1 \> 2 \> 4
179
which HLA is restricted to only antigen-presenting cells?
HLA-II
180
mechanism for hyperacute rejection & time course
Preformed Abs to MHC Ags
minutes-hours
181
mechanism for acute rejection & time course
antibody-mediated: 3 months
cell-mediated: 1-6 weeks to years
182
what's the difference between direct & indirect allorecognition?
direct: donor-derived dendritic cells/APCs
indirect: recipient-derived dendritic cells/APCs
183
what is the minimum number of cells in a hematopoietic progenitor/stem cell transplant?
2 X 106 CD34+ CELLS PER KILOGRAM
184
which source of HPCs has the fastest engraftment?
slowest engraftment?
fastest: peripheral blood
in the middle: bone marrow
slowest: cord blood
185
what's passenger lymphocyte syndrome?
(what is it due to, what's the etiology, and what does it cause)
due to minor blood group mismatch
donor B-cells transplanted with the organ make antibodies to recipient red cell antigens (anti-A or anti-B)
causes delayed hemolysis
186
how do you cryopreserve peripheral blood derived HPC products?
suspend cells in a soln of 10% DMSO + autologous plasma
controlled-rate freezing: 1-2oC per minute to range of -30 to -50oC
OR 2-10oC per minute to -90oC
187
how do you STORE cryopreserved HPCs?
mechanical freezer oC
liquid nitrogen freezer: liquid phase -196oC
vapor phase -150oC
188
how long (and at what temp) can you store HPCs prior to/without cryopreservation?
can be stored at 4-15oC overnight/for up to 48 hours
189
if you're giving your patient G-CSF, when will the HPCs in peripheral blood peak?
on day 5, after 4 days of treatment
190
what layer of the tube are the cells for donation in?
the buffy coat/PBMC layer (smallest layer, between plt/plasma layer and Ficoll layer)
191
what is the difference between a MAJOR and a MINOR ABO mismatch in HPC transplant?
MAJOR: _donor_ _RBCs_ are incompatible with _recipient plasma_
MINOR: _donor plasma_ is incompatible with _recipient RBCs_
192
what scenarios are there in a major ABO mismatch HPC transplant?
O recipient w/ A, B, or AB donor
A recipient with B or AB donor
B recipient with A or AB donor
193
in MAJOR ABO-incompatible HPC transplant, what would cause an acute hemolytic rxn at the time of infusion?
ABO-incompatible RBCs in the donor pdt & circulating anti-\*\*\* Abs in recipient
(like the basis for the whole thing)
194
in MAJOR ABO-incompatible HPC transplant, what would cause delayed engraftment?
anti-\*\*\* Abs made by _residual recipient plasma cells_ that weren't eradicated by the conditioning regimen
195
how can you prevent sequela of a major ABO-incompatible HPC transplant?
red-cell-deplete the product via _centrifugation_, density gradient depletion, or CD34 selection
196
what scenarios are there in a minor ABO-mismatch HPC transplant?
O donor w/ A, B, or AB recipient
A or B donor w/ an AB recipient
(the order of this card [donor-recip] is backwards from the major card)
197
in MINOR ABO-incompatible HPC transplant, what would cause an acute hemolytic rxn at the time of infusion?
infusion of incompatible _plasma_ containing (the wrong) Abs
198
how can you prevent sequela of a minor ABO-incompatible HPC transplant?
plasma depletion
199
does passenger lymphocyte syndrome happen in major or minor ABO-mismatched HPC transplants?
minor
delayed hemolysis d/t anti-\*\*\* Abs by _donor_ lymphocytes
prevent with plasma depletion
200
what's a bidirectional mismatch (HPC transplant) and how do you prevent it?
major AND minor mismatch simultaneously
type A donor & type B recipient (or vice versa)
prevent via depleting both RBCs (major) and plasma (minor)
