Rapid Review Flashcards
(460 cards)
1
Q
Sawtooth P waves
A
Classic ECG finding in atrial flutter.
2
Q
Angina is new, is worsening, or occurs at rest
A
Definition of unstable angina.
3
Q
ACEI
A
Antihypertensive for a diabetic patient with proteinuria.
4
Q
Hypotension, distant heart sounds, and JVD
A
Beck’s triad for cardiac tamponade.
5
Q
β-blockers, digoxin, calcium channel blockers
A
Drugs that slow AV node transmission.
6
Q
Niacin
A
Hypercholesterolemia treatment that → flushing and pruritus.
7
Q
Anticoagulation, rate control, cardioversion
A
Treatment for atrial fibrillation.
8
Q
Immediate cardioversion
A
Treatment for ventricular fibrillation.
9
Q
Dressler’s syndrome: fever, pericarditis, ↑ ESR
A
Autoimmune complication occurring 2-4 weeks post-MI.
10
Q
Treat existing heart failure and replace the tricuspid valve
A
IV drug use with JVD and holosystolic murmur at the left sternal border. Treatment?
11
Q
Echocardiogram (showing thickened left ventricular wall and outflow obstruction)
A
Diagnostic test for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.
12
Q
Pulsus paradoxus (seen in cardiac tamponade)
A
A fall in systolic BP of > 10 mmHg with inspiration.
13
Q
Low-voltage, diffuse ST-segment elevation
A
Classic ECG findings in pericarditis.
14
Q
BP > 140/90 on three separate occasions two weeks apart
A
Definition of hypertension.
15
Q
Renal artery stenosis, coarctation of the aorta, pheochromocytoma, Conn’s syndrome, Cushing’s syndrome, unilateral renal parenchymal disease, hyperthyroidism, hyperparathyroidism
A
Eight surgically correctable causes of hypertension.
16
Q
Abdominal ultrasound and CT
A
Evaluation of a pulsatile abdominal mass and bruit.
17
Q
> 5.5 cm, rapidly enlarging, symptomatic, or ruptured
A
Indications for surgical repair of abdominal aortic aneurysm.
18
Q
Morphine, O2, sublingual nitroglycerin, ASA, IV β-blockers, heparin
A
Treatment for acute coronary syndrome.
19
Q
Abdominal obesity, high triglycerides, low HDL, hypertension, insulin resistance, prothrombotic or proinflammatory states
A
What is the metabolic syndrome?
20
Q
Exercise stress treadmill with ECG
A
Appropriate diagnostic test? ■ A 50-year-old male with angina can exercise to 85% of maximum predicted heart rate.
21
Q
Pharmacologic stress test (e.g., dobutamine echo)
A
Appropriate diagnostic test? ■ A 65-year-old woman with left bundle branch block and severe osteoarthritis has unstable angina.
22
Q
Angina, ST-segment changes on ECG, or ↓ BP
A
Signs of active ischemia during stress testing.
23
Q
ST-segment elevation (depression means ischemia), flattened T waves, and Q waves
A
ECG findings suggesting MI.
24
Q
Prinzmetal’s angina
A
A young patient has angina at rest with ST-segment elevation. Cardiac enzymes are normal.
25
CHF, shock, and altered mental status
Common symptoms associated with silent MIs.
26
V/Q scan
The diagnostic test for pulmonary embolism.
27
Protamine
An agent that reverses the effects of heparin.
28
PT
The coagulation parameter affected by warfarin.
29
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
A young patient with a family history of sudden death collapses and dies while exercising.
30
Oral surgery—amoxicillin; GI or GU procedures—ampicillin and gentamicin before and amoxicillin after
Endocarditis prophylaxis regimens.
31
Pain, pallor, pulselessness, paralysis, paresthesia, poikilothermia
The 6 P's of ischemia due to peripheral vascular disease.
32
Stasis, hypercoagulability, endothelial damage
Virchow's triad.
33
OCPs
The most common cause of hypertension in young women.
34
Excessive EtOH
The most common cause of hypertension in young men.
35
Seborrheic keratosis
Stuck-on appearance.
36
Psoriasis
Red plaques with silvery-white scales and sharp margins.
37
Basal cell carcinoma
The most common type of skin cancer; the lesion is a pearly-colored papule with a translucent surface and telangiectasias.
38
Impetigo
Honey-crusted lesions.
39
Cellulitis
A febrile patient with a history of diabetes presents with a red, swollen, painful lower extremity.
40
Pemphigus vulgaris
#ERROR!
41
Bullous pemphigoid
- Nikolsky's sign.
42
Acanthosis nigricans. Check fasting blood sugar to rule out diabetes
A 55-year-old obese patient presents with dirty, velvety patches on the back of the neck.
43
Varicella zoster
Dermatomal distribution.
44
Lichen planus
Flat-topped papules.
45
Erythema multiforme
Iris-like target lesions.
46
Contact dermatitis
A lesion characteristically occurring in a linear pattern in areas where skin comes into contact with clothing or jewelry.
47
Pityriasis rosea
Presents with a herald patch, Christmas-tree pattern.
48
Alopecia areata (autoimmune process)
A 16-year-old presents with an annular patch of alopecia with broken-off, stubby hairs.
49
Pityriasis versicolor
Pinkish, scaling, flat lesions on the chest and back. KOH prep has a "spaghetti-and-meatballs" appearance.
50
Asymmetry, border irregularity, color variation, large diameter
Four characteristics of a nevus suggestive of melanoma.
51
Actinic keratosis
Premalignant lesion from sun exposure that can → squamous cell carcinoma.
52
Lesions of 1° varicella
Dewdrop on a rose petal.
53
Seborrheic dermatitis. Treat with antifungals
Cradle cap.
54
Acne vulgaris
Associated with Propionibacterium acnes and changes in androgen levels.
55
Herpes simplex
A painful, recurrent vesicular eruption of mucocutaneous surfaces.
56
Lichen sclerosus
Inflammation and epithelial thinning of the anogenital area, predominantly in postmenopausal women.
57
Squamous cell carcinoma
Exophytic nodules on the skin with varying degrees of scaling or ulceration; the second most common type of skin cancer.
58
Hashimoto's thyroiditis
The most common cause of hypothyroidism.
59
High TSH, low T4, antimicrosomal antibodies
Lab findings in Hashimoto's thyroiditis.
60
Graves' disease
Exophthalmos, pretibial myxedema, and ↓ TSH.
61
Iatrogenic steroid administration. The second most common cause is Cushing's disease
The most common cause of Cushing's syndrome.
62
Hypoparathyroidism
A patient presents with signs of hypocalcemia, high phosphorus, and low PTH.
63
Signs and symptoms of hypercalcemia
Stones, bones, groans, psychiatric overtones.
64
1° hyperaldosteronism (due to Conn's syndrome or bilateral adrenal hyperplasia)
A patient complains of headache, weakness, and polyuria; exam reveals hypertension and tetany. Labs reveals hypernatremia, hypokalemia, and metabolic alkalosis.
65
Pheochromocytoma
A patient presents with tachycardia, wild swings in BP, headache, diaphoresis, altered mental status, and a sense of panic.
66
α-antagonists (phentolamine and phenoxybenzamine)
Should α- or β-antagonists be used first in treating pheochromocytoma?
67
Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus (DI)
A patient with a history of lithium use presents with copious amounts of dilute urine.
68
Administration of DDAVP ↓ serum osmolality and free water restriction
Treatment of central DI.
69
SIADH due to stress
A postoperative patient with significant pain presents with hyponatremia and normal volume status.
70
Metformin
An antidiabetic agent associated with lactic acidosis.
71
1° adrenal insufficiency (Addison's disease). Treat with replacement glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and IV fluids
A patient presents with weakness, nausea, vomiting, weight loss, and new skin pigmentation. Labs show hyponatremia and hyperkalemia. Treatment?
72
Goal hemoglobin A1c for a patient with DM.
73
Fluids, insulin, and aggressive replacement of electrolytes (e.g., K+)
Treatment of DKA.
74
They can mask symptoms of hypoglycemia
Why are β-blockers contraindicated in diabetics?
75
Observational bias
Bias introduced into a study when a clinician is aware of the patient's treatment type.
76
Lead-time bias
Bias introduced when screening detects a disease earlier and thus lengthens the time from diagnosis to death.
77
Confounding variable
If you want to know if race affects infant mortality rate but most of the variation in infant mortality is predicted by socioeconomic status, then socioeconomic status is a _____.
78
Sensitivity
The number of true positives divided by the number of patients with the disease is _____.
79
Out
Sensitive tests have few false negatives and are used to rule _____ a disease.
80
Highly sensitive for TB
PPD reactivity is used as a screening test because most people with TB (except those who are anergic) will have a +PPD. Highly sensitive or specific?
81
Higher prevalence
Chronic diseases such as SLE—higher prevalence or incidence?
82
Higher incidence
Epidemics such as influenza—higher prevalence or incidence?
83
Prevalence
Cross-sectional survey—incidence or prevalence?
84
Incidence and prevalence
Cohort study—incidence or prevalence?
85
Neither
Case-control study—incidence or prevalence?
86
High reliability, low validity
Describe a test that consistently gives identical results, but the results are wrong.
87
Cohort studies can be used to calculate relative risk (RR), incidence, and/or odds ratio (OR). Case-control studies can be used to calculate an OR
Difference between a cohort and a case-control study.
88
The incidence rate (IR) of a disease in exposed − the IR of a disease in unexposed
Attributable risk?
89
The IR of a disease in a population exposed to a particular factor ÷ the IR of those not exposed
Relative risk?
90
The likelihood of a disease among individuals exposed to a risk factor compared to those who have not been exposed
Odds ratio?
91
1 ÷ (rate in untreated group − rate in treated group)
Number needed to treat?
92
Patients with IBD; those with familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP)/hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC); and those who have first-degree relatives with adenomatous polyps (
In which patients do you initiate colorectal cancer screening early?
93
Prostate cancer is the most common cancer in men, but lung cancer causes more deaths
The most common cancer in men and the most common cause of death from cancer in men.
94
68%, 95.5%, 99.7%
The percentage of cases within one SD of the mean? Two SDs? Three SDs?
95
Number of live births per 1000 population
Birth rate?
96
Number of live births per 1000 women 15-44 years of age
Fertility rate?
97
Number of deaths per 1000 population
Mortality rate?
98
Number of deaths from birth to 28 days per 1000 live births
Neonatal mortality?
99
Number of deaths from 28 days to one year per 1000 live births
Postnatal mortality?
100
Number of deaths from birth to one year of age per 1000 live births (neonatal + postnatal mortality)
Infant mortality?
101
Number of deaths from 20 weeks' gestation to birth per 1000 total births
Fetal mortality?
102
Number of deaths from 20 weeks' gestation to one month of life per 1000 total births
Perinatal mortality?
103
Number of deaths during pregnancy to 90 days postpartum per 100,000 live births
Maternal mortality?
104
False. Patients may change their minds at any time. Exceptions to the requirement of informed consent include emergency situations and patients without decision-making capacity
True or false: Once patients sign a statement giving consent, they must continue treatment.
105
No. Parental consent is not necessary for the medical treatment of pregnant minors
A 15-year-old pregnant girl requires hospitalization for preeclampsia. Should her parents be informed?
106
Conflict of interest
A doctor refers a patient for an MRI at a facility he/she owns.
107
The patient is a danger to self, a danger to others, or gravely disabled (unable to provide for basic needs)
Involuntary psychiatric hospitalization can be undertaken for which three reasons?
108
False. Withdrawing and withholding life are the same from an ethical standpoint
True or false: Withdrawing life-sustaining care is ethically distinct from withholding sustaining care.
109
When there is no rationale for treatment, maximal intervention is failing, a given intervention has already failed, and treatment will not achieve the goals of care
When can a physician refuse to continue treating a patient on the grounds of futility?
110
Treat immediately. Consent is implied in emergency situations
An eight-year-old child is in a serious accident. She requires emergent transfusion, but her parents are not present.
111
Real threat of harm to third parties; suicidal intentions; certain contagious diseases; elder and child abuse
Conditions in which confidentiality must be overridden.
112
When treatment noncompliance represents a serious danger to public health (e.g., active TB)
Involuntary commitment or isolation for medical treatment may be undertaken for what reason?
113
Treat because the disease represents an immediate threat to the child's life. Then seek a court order
A 10-year-old child presents in status epilepticus, but her parents refuse treatment on religious grounds.
114
A patient's family cannot require that a doctor withhold information from the patient
A son asks that his mother not be told about her recently discovered cancer.
115
Emergent laparotomy to repair perforated viscus, likely stomach
Patient presents with sudden onset of severe, diffuse abdominal pain. Exam reveals peritoneal signs and AXR reveals free air under the diaphragm. Management?
116
Diverticulosis
The most likely cause of acute lower GI bleed in patients > 40 years old.
117
HIDA scan
Diagnostic modality used when ultrasound is equivocal for cholecystitis.
118
Acute pancreatitis
Sentinel loop on AXR.
119
Fat, female, fertile, forty, flatulent
Risk factors for cholelithiasis.
120
Murphy's sign, seen in acute cholecystitis
Inspiratory arrest during palpation of the RUQ.
121
Campylobacter
Identify key organisms causing diarrhea: ■ Most common organism
122
Clostridium difficile
Identify key organisms causing diarrhea: ■ Recent antibiotic use
123
Giardia
Identify key organisms causing diarrhea: ■ Camping
124
ETEC
Identify key organisms causing diarrhea: ■ Traveler's diarrhea
125
S. aureus
Identify key organisms causing diarrhea: ■ Church picnics/mayonnaise
126
E. coli O157:H7
Identify key organisms causing diarrhea: ■ Uncooked hamburgers
127
Bacillus cereus
Identify key organisms causing diarrhea: ■ Fried rice
128
Salmonella
Identify key organisms causing diarrhea: ■ Poultry/eggs
129
Vibrio, HAV
Identify key organisms causing diarrhea: ■ Raw seafood
130
Isospora, Cryptosporidium, Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC)
Identify key organisms causing diarrhea: ■ AIDS
131
Yersinia
Identify key organisms causing diarrhea: ■ Pseudoappendicitis
132
Crohn's disease
A 25-year-old Jewish male presents with pain and watery diarrhea after meals. Exam shows fistulas between the bowel and skin and nodular lesions on his tibias.
133
Ulcerative colitis
Inflammatory disease of the colon with ↑ risk of colon cancer.
134
Uveitis, ankylosing spondylitis, pyoderma gangrenosum, erythema nodosum, 1° sclerosing cholangitis
Extraintestinal manifestations of IBD.
135
5-aminosalicylic acid +/− sulfasalazine and steroids during acute exacerbations
Medical treatment for IBD.
136
Mallory-Weiss—superficial tear in the esophageal mucosa Boerhaave—full-thickness esophageal rupture
Difference between Mallory-Weiss and Boerhaave tears.
137
RUQ pain, jaundice, and fever/chills in the setting of ascending cholangitis
Charcot's triad.
138
Charcot's triad plus shock and mental status changes, with suppurative ascending cholangitis
Reynolds' pentad.
139
↓ protein intake, lactulose, neomycin
Medical treatment for hepatic encephalopathy.
140
Establish the ABCs
First step in the management of a patient with acute GI bleed.
141
Hemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS) due to E. coli O157:H7
A four-year-old child presents with oliguria, petechiae, and jaundice following an illness with bloody diarrhea. Most likely diagnosis and cause?
142
HBV immunoglobulin
Post-HBV exposure treatment.
143
TB medications (INH, rifampin, pyrazinamide), acetaminophen, and tetracycline
Classic causes of drug-induced hepatitis.
144
Biliary tract obstruction
A 40-year-old obese female with elevated alkaline phosphatase, elevated bilirubin, pruritus, dark urine, and clay-colored stools.
145
Femoral hernia
Hernia with highest risk of incarceration—indirect, direct, or femoral?
146
Confirm the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis with elevated amylase and lipase. Make patient NPO and give IV fluids, O2, analgesia, and "tincture of time"
A 50-year-old man with a history of alcohol abuse presents with boring epigastric pain that radiates to the back and is relieved by sitting forward. Management?
147
TICS—Thalassemia, Iron deficiency, anemia of Chronic disease, and Sideroblastic anemia
Four causes of microcytic anemia.
148
Fecal occult blood test and sigmoidoscopy; suspect colorectal cancer
An elderly male with hypochromic, microcytic anemia is asymptomatic. Diagnostic tests?
149
Sulfonamides, antimalarial drugs, fava beans
Precipitants of hemolytic crisis in patients with G6PD deficiency.
150
Factor V Leiden mutation
The most common inherited cause of hypercoagulability.
151
Hereditary spherocytosis
The most common inherited hemolytic anemia.
152
Osmotic fragility test
Diagnostic test for hereditary spherocytosis.
153
Diamond-Blackfan anemia
Pure RBC aplasia.
154
Fanconi's anemia
Anemia associated with absent radii and thumbs, diffuse hyperpigmentation, café-au-lait spots, microcephaly, and pancytopenia.
155
Chloramphenicol, sulfonamides, radiation, HIV, chemotherapeutic agents, hepatitis, parvovirus B19, EBV
Medications and viruses that → aplastic anemia.
156
Both have ↑ hematocrit and RBC mass, but polycythemia vera should have normal O2 saturation and low erythropoietin levels
How to distinguish polycythemia vera from 2° polycythemia.
157
Pentad of TTP—"FAT RN": Fever, Anemia, Thrombocytopenia, Renal dysfunction, Neurologic abnormalities
Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) pentad?
158
Anemia, thrombocytopenia, and acute renal failure
HUS triad?
159
Emergent large-volume plasmapheresis, corticosteroids, antiplatelet drugs
Treatment for TTP.
160
Usually resolves spontaneously; may require IVIG and/or corticosteroids
Treatment for idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) in children.
161
Fibrin split products and D-dimer are elevated; platelets, fibrinogen, and hematocrit are ↓.
Which of the following are ↑ in DIC: fibrin split products, D-dimer, fibrinogen, platelets, and hematocrit.
162
Hemophilia A or B; consider desmopressin (for hemophilia A) or factor VIII or IX supplements
An eight-year-old boy presents with hemarthrosis and ↑ PTT with normal PT and bleeding time. Diagnosis? Treatment?
163
von Willebrand's disease; treat with desmopressin, FFP, or cryoprecipitate
A 14-year-old girl presents with prolonged bleeding after dental surgery and with menses, normal PT, normal or ↑ PTT, and ↑ bleeding time. Diagnosis? Treatment?
164
Monoclonal gammopathy, Bence Jones proteinuria, "punched-out" lesions on x-ray of the skull and long bones
A 60-year-old African-American male presents with bone pain. Workup for multiple myeloma might reveal?
165
Hodgkin's lymphoma
Reed-Sternberg cells
166
Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
A 10-year-old boy presents with fever, weight loss, and night sweats. Examination shows anterior mediastinal mass. Suspected diagnosis?
167
Anemia of chronic disease
Microcytic anemia with ↓ serum iron, ↓ total iron-binding capacity (TIBC), and normal or ↑ ferritin.
168
Iron deficiency anemia
Microcytic anemia with ↓ serum iron, ↓ ferritin, and ↑ TIBC.
169
Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)
An 80-year-old man presents with fatigue, lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly, and isolated lymphocytosis. Suspected diagnosis?
170
Blast crisis (fever, bone pain, splenomegaly, pancytopenia)
A late, life-threatening complication of chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML).
171
Acute myelogenous leukemia (AML)
Auer rods on blood smear.
172
M3
AML subtype associated with DIC.
173
↓ Ca2+ , ↑ K− , ↑ phosphate, ↑ uric acid
Electrolyte changes in tumor lysis syndrome.
174
Retinoic acid
Treatment for AML M3.
175
CML
A 50-year-old male presents with early satiety, splenomegaly, and bleeding. Cytogenetics show t(9,22). Diagnosis?
176
Intracellular inclusions seen in thalassemia, G6PD deficiency, and postsplenectomy
Heinz bodies?
177
Glanzmann's thrombasthenia
An autosomal-recessive disorder with a defect in the GPIIbIIIa platelet receptor and ↓ platelet aggregation.
178
Parvovirus B19
Virus associated with aplastic anemia in patients with sickle cell anemia.
179
O2, analgesia, hydration, and, if severe, transfusion
A 25-year-old African-American male with sickle cell anemia has sudden onset of bone pain. Management of pain crisis?
180
Iron overload; use deferoxamine
A significant cause of morbidity in thalassemia patients. Treatment?
181
Infection, cancer, and autoimmune disease
The three most common causes of fever of unknown origin (FUO).
182
Fever, pharyngeal erythema, tonsillar exudate, lack of cough
Four signs and symptoms of streptococcal pharyngitis.
183
Postinfectious glomerulonephritis
A nonsuppurative complication of streptococcal infection that is not altered by treatment of 1° infection.
184
Encapsulated organisms--pneumococcus, meningococcus, Haemophilus influenzae, Klebsiella
Asplenic patients are particularly susceptible to these organisms.
185
105 bacteria/mL
The number of bacterial culture on a clean-catch specimen to diagnose a UTI.
186
Pregnant women. Treat this group aggressively because of potential complications
Which healthy population is susceptible to UTIs?
187
Coccidioidomycosis. Amphotericin B
A patient from California or Arizona presents with fever, malaise, cough, and night sweats. Diagnosis? Treatment?
188
1° syphilis
Nonpainful chancre.
189
Rubella
A "blueberry muffin" rash is characteristic of what congenital infection?
190
Group B strep, E. coli, Listeria. Treat with gentamicin and ampicillin
Meningitis in neonates. Causes? Treatment?
191
Pneumococcus, meningococcus, H. influenzae. Treat with cefotaxime and vancomycin
Meningitis in infants. Causes? Treatment?
192
Check for ↑ ICP; look for papilledema
What should always be done prior to LP?
193
Bacterial meningitis
CSF findings: ■ Low glucose, PMN predominance
194
Aseptic (viral) meningitis
CSF findings: ■ Normal glucose, lymphocytic predominance
195
Subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH)
CSF findings: ■ Numerous RBCs in serial CSF samples
196
MS
CSF findings: ■ ↑ gamma globulins
197
Cutaneous anthrax. Treat with penicillin G or ciprofloxacin
Initially presents with a pruritic papule with regional lymphadenopathy and evolves into a black eschar after 7-10 days. Treatment?
198
Tabes dorsalis, general paresis, gummas, Argyll Robertson pupil, aortitis, aortic root aneurysms
Findings in 3° syphilis.
199
Arthralgias, migratory polyarthropathies, Bell's palsy, myocarditis
Characteristics of 2° Lyme disease.
200
Mycoplasma
Cold agglutinins.
201
Candidal thrush. Workup should include an HIV test. Treat with nystatin oral suspension
A 24-year-old male presents with soft white plaques on his tongue and the back of his throat. Diagnosis? Workup? Treatment?
202
≤ 200 for PCP (with TMP); ≤ 50-100 for MAI (with clarithromycin/azithromycin)
Begin Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP) prophylaxis in an HIV-positive patient at what CD4 count? Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare (MAI) prophylaxis?
203
Pregnancy, vesicoureteral reflux, anatomic anomalies, indwelling catheters, kidney stones
Risk factors for pyelonephritis.
204
7-10 days
Neutropenic nadir postchemotherapy.
205
Lesion of 1° Lyme disease
Erythema migrans.
206
Fever, heart murmur, Osler's nodes, splinter hemorrhages, Janeway lesions, Roth's spots
Classic physical findings for endocarditis.
207
Parvovirus B19
Aplastic crisis in sickle cell disease.
208
Taenia solium (cysticercosis)
Ring-enhancing brain lesion on CT with seizures
209
Actinomyces israelii
Name the organism: ■ Branching rods in oral infection.
210
Haemophilus ducreyi
Name the organism: ■ Painful chancroid.
211
Pasteurella multocida
Name the organism: ■ Dog or cat bite.
212
Sporothrix schenckii
Name the organism: ■ Gardener.
213
Toxoplasma gondii
Name the organism: ■ Pregnant women with pets.
214
Neisseria meningitidis
Name the organism: ■ Meningitis in adults.
215
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Name the organism: ■ Meningitis in elderly.
216
Klebsiella
Name the organism: ■ Alcoholic with pneumonia.
217
Klebsiella
Name the organism: ■ "Currant jelly" sputum.
218
Pseudomonas
Name the organism: ■ Infection in burn victims.
219
Pseudomonas
Name the organism: ■ Osteomyelitis from foot wound puncture.
220
Salmonella
Name the organism: ■ Osteomyelitis in a sickle cell patient.
221
Legionella pneumonia
A 55-year-old man who is a smoker and a heavy drinker presents with a new cough and flulike symptoms. Gram stain shows no organisms; silver stain of sputum shows gram-negative rods. What is the diagnosis?
222
Lyme disease, Ixodes tick, doxycycline
A middle-aged man presents with acute-onset monoarticular joint pain and bilateral Bell's palsy. What is the likely diagnosis, and how did he get it? Treatment?
223
S. aureus or S. epidermidis.
A patient develops endocarditis three weeks after receiving a prosthetic heart valve. What organism is suspected?
224
All-compartment fasciotomy for suspected compartment syndrome
A patient presents with pain on passive movement, pallor, poikilothermia, paresthesias, paralysis, and pulselessness. Treatment?
225
Spinal stenosis
Back pain that is exacerbated by standing and walking and relieved with sitting and hyperflexion of the hips.
226
MCP and PIP joints; DIP joints are spared
Joints in the hand affected in rheumatoid arthritis.
227
Osteoarthritis
Joint pain and stiffness that worsen over the course of the day and are relieved by rest.
228
Osteogenesis imperfecta
Genetic disorder associated with multiple fractures and commonly mistaken for child abuse.
229
Suspect ankylosing spondylitis. Check HLA-B27
Hip and back pain along with stiffness that improves with activity over the course of the day and worsens at rest. Diagnostic test?
230
Reactive (Reiter's) arthritis. Associated with Campylobacter, Shigella, Salmonella, Chlamydia, and Ureaplasma
Arthritis, conjunctivitis, and urethritis in young men. Associated organisms?
231
Gout. Needle-shaped, negatively birefringent crystals are seen on joint fluid aspirate. Chronic treatment with allopurinol or probenecid
A 55-year-old man has sudden, excruciating first MTP joint pain after a night of drinking red wine. Diagnosis, workup, and chronic treatment?
232
Pseudogout
Rhomboid-shaped, positively birefringent crystals on joint fluid aspirate.
233
Polymyalgia rheumatica
An elderly female presents with pain and stiffness of the shoulders and hips; she cannot lift her arms above her head. Labs show anemia and ↑ ESR.
234
Osgood-Schlatter disease
An active 13-year-old boy has anterior knee pain. Diagnosis?
235
Distal radius (Colles' fracture)
Bone is fractured in fall on outstretched hand.
236
Avascular necrosis
Complication of scaphoid fracture.
237
Wrist drop, loss of thumb abduction
Signs suggesting radial nerve damage with humeral fracture.
238
Duchenne muscular dystrophy
A young child presents with proximal muscle weakness, waddling gait, and pronounced calf muscles.
239
Developmental dysplasia of the hip. If severe, consider a Pavlik harness to maintain abduction
A first-born female who was born in breech position is found to have asymmetric skin folds on her newborn exam. Diagnosis? Treatment?
240
Slipped capital femoral epiphyses. AP and frog-leg lateral view
An 11-year-old obese, African-American boy presents with sudden onset of limp. Diagnosis? Workup?
241
Multiple myeloma
The most common 1° malignant tumor of bone.
242
Cluster headache
Unilateral, severe periorbital headache with tearing and conjunctival erythema.
243
β-blockers, Ca2+ channel blockers, TCAs
Prophylactic treatment for migraine.
244
Prolactinoma. Dopamine agonists (e.g., bromocriptine)
The most common pituitary tumor. Treatment?
245
Broca's aphasia. Frontal lobe, left MCA distribution
A 55-year-old patient presents with acute "broken speech." What type of aphasia? What lobe and vascular distribution?
246
Trauma; the second most common is berry aneurysm
The most common cause of SAH.
247
Subdural hematoma—bridging veins torn
A crescent-shaped hyperdensity on CT that does not cross the midline.
248
Epidural hematoma. Middle meningeal artery. Neurosurgical evacuation
A history significant for initial altered mental status with an intervening lucid interval. Diagnosis? Most likely etiology? Treatment?
249
Elevated ICP, RBCs, xanthochromia
CSF findings with SAH.
250
Guillain-Barré (↑ protein in CSF with only a modest ↑ in cell count)
Albuminocytologic dissociation.
251
Normal
Cold water is flushed into a patient's ear, and the fast phase of the nystagmus is toward the opposite side. Normal or pathological?
252
Lung, breast, skin (melanoma), kidney, GI tract
The most common 1° sources of metastases to the brain.
253
Absence seizures
May be seen in children who are accused of inattention in class and confused with ADHD.
254
Headache
The most frequent presentation of intracranial neoplasm.
255
Infection, febrile seizures, trauma, idiopathic
The most common cause of seizures in children (2-10 years).
256
Trauma, alcohol withdrawal, brain tumor
The most common cause of seizures in young adults (18-35 years).
257
IV benzodiazepine
First-line medication for status epilepticus.
258
Wernicke's encephalopathy due to a deficiency of thiamine
Confusion, confabulation, ophthalmoplegia, ataxia.
259
Seventy percent if the stenosis is symptomatic
What % lesion is an indication for carotid endarterectomy?
260
Alzheimer's and multi-infarct
The most common causes of dementia.
261
ALS
Combined UMN and LMN disorder.
262
Parkinson's disease
Rigidity and stiffness with resting tremor and masked facies.
263
Levodopa/carbidopa
The mainstay of Parkinson's therapy.
264
IVIG or plasmapheresis
Treatment for Guillain-Barré syndrome.
265
Huntington's disease
Rigidity and stiffness that progress to choreiform movements, accompanied by moodiness and altered behavior.
266
Sturge-Weber syndrome. Treat symptomatically. Possible focal cerebral resection of affected lobe
A six-year-old girl presents with a port-wine stain in the V2 distribution as well as with mental retardation, seizures, and leptomeningeal angioma.
267
Neurofibromatosis 1
Café-au-lait spots on skin.
268
Klüver-Bucy syndrome (amygdala)
Hyperphagia, hypersexuality, hyperorality, and hyperdocility.
269
Edrophonium
Administer to a symptomatic patient to diagnose myasthenia gravis.
270
Placental abruption and placenta previa
1° causes of third-trimester bleeding.
271
Snowstorm on ultrasound. "Cluster-of-grapes" appearance on gross examination
Classic ultrasound and gross appearance of complete hydatidiform mole.
272
46,XX
Chromosomal pattern of a complete mole.
273
Partial mole
Molar pregnancy containing fetal tissue.
274
Continuous, painful vaginal bleeding
Symptoms of placental abruption.
275
Self-limited, painless vaginal bleeding
Symptoms of placenta previa.
276
Never
When should a vaginal exam be performed with suspected placenta previa?
277
Tetracycline, fluoroquinolones, aminoglycosides, sulfonamides
Antibiotics with teratogenic effects.
278
Obstetric conjugate: between the sacral promontory and the midpoint of the symphysis pubis
Shortest AP diameter of the pelvis.
279
Betamethasone or dexamethasone × 48 hours
Medication given to accelerate fetal lung maturity.
280
Uterine atony
The most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage.
281
Uterine massage; if that fails, give oxytocin
Treatment for postpartum hemorrhage.
282
IV penicillin or ampicillin
Typical antibiotics for group B streptococcus (GBS) prophylaxis.
283
Sheehan's syndrome (postpartum pituitary necrosis)
A patient fails to lactate after an emergency C-section with marked blood loss.
284
Inevitable abortion
Uterine bleeding at 18 weeks' gestation; no products expelled; membranes ruptured; cervical os open.
285
Threatened abortion
Uterine bleeding at 18 weeks' gestation; no products expelled; cervical os closed.
286
β-hCG; the most common cause of amenorrhea is pregnancy
The first test to perform when a woman presents with amenorrhea.
287
Menometrorrhagia
Term for heavy bleeding during and between menstrual periods.
288
Asherman's syndrome
Cause of amenorrhea with normal prolactin, no response to estrogen-progesterone challenge, and a history of D&C.
289
Weight loss and OCPs
Therapy for polycystic ovarian syndrome.
290
Clomiphene citrate
Medication used to induce ovulation.
291
Endometrial biopsy
Diagnostic step required in a postmenopausal woman who presents with vaginal bleeding.
292
Stable, unruptured ectopic pregnancy of
Indications for medical treatment of ectopic pregnancy.
293
OCPs, danazol, GnRH agonists
Medical options for endometriosis.
294
Chocolate cysts, powder burns
Laparoscopic findings in endometriosis.
295
Ampulla of the oviduct
The most common location for an ectopic pregnancy.
296
Ultrasound
How to diagnose and follow a leiomyoma.
297
Regresses after menopause
Natural history of a leiomyoma.
298
Trichomonas vaginitis
A patient has ↑ vaginal discharge and petechial patches in the upper vagina and cervix.
299
Oral or topical metronidazole
Treatment for bacterial vaginosis.
300
Intraductal papilloma
The most common cause of bloody nipple discharge.
301
OCP and barrier contraception
Contraceptive methods that protect against PID.
302
Endometrial or estrogen receptor- breast cancer
Unopposed estrogen is contraindicated in which cancers?
303
Consider Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome
A patient presents with recent PID with RUQ pain.
304
Paget's disease
Breast malignancy presenting as itching, burning, and erosion of the nipple.
305
CA-125 and transvaginal ultrasound
Annual screening for women with a strong family history of ovarian cancer.
306
Kegel exercises, estrogen, pessaries for stress incontinence
A 50-year-old woman leaks urine when laughing or coughing. Nonsurgical options?
307
Anticholinergics (oxybutynin) or β-adrenergics (metaproterenol) for urge incontinence.
A 30-year-old woman has unpredictable urine loss. Examination is normal. Medical options?
308
↑ serum FSH
Lab values suggestive of menopause.
309
Endometriosis
The most common cause of female infertility.
310
Colposcopy and endocervical curettage
Two consecutive findings of atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance (ASCUS) on Pap smear. Follow-up evaluation?
311
Lobular carcinoma in situ
Breast cancer type that ↑ the future risk of invasive carcinoma in both breasts.
312
Neuroblastoma
Nontender abdominal mass associated with elevated VMA and HVA.
313
Esophageal atresia with distal TEF (85%). Unable to pass NG tube
The most common type of tracheoesophageal fistula (TEF). Diagnosis?
314
Mild illness and/or low-grade fever, current antibiotic therapy, and prematurity
Not contraindications to vaccination.
315
Ophthalmologic exam, CT, and MRI
Tests to rule out shaken baby syndrome.
316
CF or Hirschsprung's disease
A neonate has meconium ileus.
317
Duodenal atresia
Bilious emesis within hours after the first feeding.
318
Correct metabolic abnormalities. Then correct pyloric stenosis with pyloromyotomy
A two-month-old presents with nonbilious projectile emesis. What are the appropriate steps in management?
319
Selective IgA deficiency
The most common 1° immunodeficiency.
320
Febrile seizures (roseola infantum)
An infant has a high fever and onset of rash as fever breaks. What is he at risk for?
321
High-dose aspirin for inflammation and fever; IVIG to prevent coronary artery aneurysms
Acute-phase treatment for Kawasaki disease.
322
Phototherapy (mild) or exchange transfusion (severe)
Treatment for mild and severe unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia.
323
Reye's syndrome
Sudden onset of mental status changes, emesis, and liver dysfunction after taking aspirin.
324
Suspect retinoblastoma
A child has loss of red light reflex. Diagnosis?
325
HBV, DTaP, Hib, IPV, PCV
Vaccinations at a six-month well-child visit.
326
Precocious puberty
Tanner stage 3 in a six-year-old female.
327
RSV bronchiolitis
Infection of small airways with epidemics in winter and spring.
328
Surfactant deficiency
Cause of neonatal RDS.
329
Chronic granulomatous disease
What is the immunodeficiency? ■ A boy has chronic respiratory infections. Nitroblue tetrazolium test is +.
330
Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
What is the immunodeficiency? ■ A child has eczema, thrombocytopenia, and high levels of IgA.
331
Bruton's X-linked agammaglobulinemia
What is the immunodeficiency? ■ A four-month-old boy has life-threatening Pseudomonas infection.
332
Intussusception
A condition associated with red "currant-jelly" stools.
333
Coarctation of the aorta
A congenital heart disease that cause 2° hypertension.
334
Amoxicillin × 10 days
First-line treatment for otitis media.
335
Parainfluenza virus type 1
The most common pathogen causing croup.
336
Kwashiorkor (protein malnutrition)
A homeless child is small for his age and has peeling skin and a swollen belly.
337
Lesch-Nyhan syndrome (purine salvage problem with
Defect in an X-linked syndrome with mental retardation,
338
HGPRTase deficiency)
gout, self-mutilation, and choreoathetosis.
339
Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)
A newborn female has continuous "machinery murmur."
340
SSRIs
First-line pharmacotherapy for depression.
341
MAOIs
Antidepressants associated with hypertensive crisis.
342
Patient on dopamine antagonist
Galactorrhea, impotence, menstrual dysfunction, and ↓ libido.
343
Conversion disorder
A 17-year-old female has left arm paralysis after her boyfriend dies in a car crash. No medical cause is found.
344
Displacement
Name the defense mechanism: ■ A mother who is angry at her husband yells at her child.
345
Reaction formation
Name the defense mechanism: ■ A pedophile enters a monastery.
346
Isolation
Name the defense mechanism: ■ A woman calmly describes a grisly murder.
347
Regression
Name the defense mechanism: ■ A hospitalized 10-year-old begins to wet his bed.
348
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Life-threatening muscle rigidity, fever, and rhabdomyolysis.
349
Anorexia
Amenorrhea, bradycardia, and abnormal body image in a young female.
350
Panic disorder
A 35-year-old male has recurrent episodes of palpitations, diaphoresis, and fear of going crazy.
351
Agranulocytosis
The most serious side effect of clozapine.
352
Schizophreniform disorder (diagnosis of schizophrenia requires ≥ 6 months of symptoms)
A 21-year-old male has three months of social withdrawal, worsening grades, flattened affect, and concrete thinking.
353
Weight gain, type 2 DM, QT prolongation
Key side effects of atypical antipsychotics.
354
Acute dystonia (oculogyric crisis). Treat with benztropine or diphenhydramine
A young weight lifter receives IV haloperidol and complains that his eyes are deviated sideways. Diagnosis? Treatment?
355
Neuroleptics
Medication to avoid in patients with a history of alcohol withdrawal seizures.
356
Conduct disorder
A 13-year-old male has a history of theft, vandalism, and violence toward family pets.
357
Rett's disorder
A five-month-old girl has ↓ head growth, truncal dyscoordination, and ↓ social interaction.
358
Acute mania. Start a mood stabilizer (e.g., lithium)
A patient hasn't slept for days, lost $20,000 gambling, is agitated, and has pressured speech. Diagnosis? Treatment?
359
Malingering
After a minor fender bender, a man wears a neck brace and requests permanent disability.
360
Factitious disorder (Munchausen syndrome)
A nurse presents with severe hypoglycemia; blood analysis reveals no elevation in C peptide.
361
Substance abuse
A patient continues to use cocaine after being in jail, losing his job, and not paying child support.
362
Phencyclidine hydrochloride (PCP) intoxication
A violent patient has vertical and horizontal nystagmus.
363
Depersonalization disorder
A woman who was abused as a child frequently feels outside of or detached from her body.
364
Frotteurism (a paraphilia)
A man has repeated, intense urges to rub his body against unsuspecting passengers on a bus.
365
Tardive dyskinesia. ↓ or discontinue haloperidol and consider another antipsychotic (e.g., risperidone, clozapine)
A schizophrenic patient takes haloperidol for one year and develops uncontrollable tongue movements. Diagnosis? Treatment?
366
Dissociative fugue
A man unexpectedly flies across the country, takes a new name, and has no memory of his prior life.
367
Stasis, endothelial injury and hypercoagulability (Virchow's triad)
Risk factors for DVT.
368
Pleural/serum protein > 0.5; pleural/serum LDH > 0.6
Criteria for exudative effusion.
369
Think of leaky capillaries. Malignancy, TB, bacterial or viral infection, pulmonary embolism with infarct, and pancreatitis
Causes of exudative effusion.
370
Think of intact capillaries. CHF, liver or kidney disease, and protein-losing enteropathy
Causes of transudative effusion.
371
Fatigue and impending respiratory failure
Normalizing PCO2 in a patient having an asthma exacerbation may indicate?
372
Sarcoidosis
Dyspnea, lateral hilar lymphodenopathy on CXR, noncaseating granulomas, increased ACE, and hypercalcemia.
373
Obstructive pulmonary disease (e.g., asthma)
PFT showing ↓ FEV1/FVC.
374
Restrictive pulmonary disease
PFT showing ↑ FEV1/FVC.
375
Diffuse interstitial pulmonary fibrosis. Supportive care. Steroids may help
Honeycomb pattern on CXR. Diagnosis? Treatment?
376
Radiation
Treatment for SVC syndrome.
377
Inhaled β-agonists and inhaled corticosteroids
Treatment for mild, persistent asthma.
378
Hypoxia and hypocarbia
Acid-base disorder in pulmonary embolism.
379
Squamous cell carcinoma
Non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC) associated with hypercalcemia.
380
Small cell lung cancer (SCLC)
Lung cancer associated with SIADH.
381
SCLC
Lung cancer highly related to cigarette exposure.
382
Spontaneous pneumothorax. Spontaneous regression. Supplemental O2 may be helpful
A tall white male presents with acute shortness of breath. Diagnosis? Treatment?
383
Immediate needle thoracostomy
Treatment of tension pneumothorax.
384
Age > 45-50 years; lesions new or larger in comparison to old films; absence of calcification or irregular calcification; size > 2 cm; irregular margins
Characteristics favoring carcinoma in an isolated pulmonary nodule.
385
ARDS
Hypoxemia and pulmonary edema with normal pulmonary capillary wedge pressure.
386
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
↑ risk of what infection with silicosis?
387
Right-to-left shunt, hypoventilation, low inspired O2 tension, diffusion defect, V/Q mismatch
Causes of hypoxemia.
388
Cardiomegaly, prominent pulmonary vessels, Kerley B lines, "bat's-wing" appearance of hilar shadows, and perivascular and peribronchial cuffing
Classic CXR findings for pulmonary edema.
389
Type I (distal) RTA
Renal tubular acidosis (RTA) associated with abnormal H+ secretion and nephrolithiasis.
390
Type II (proximal) RTA
RTA associated with abnormal HCO3 − and rickets.
391
Type IV (distal) RTA
RTA associated with aldosterone defect.
392
Hypernatremia
Doughy skin.
393
Cirrhosis, CHF, nephritic syndrome
Differential of hypervolemic hyponatremia.
394
Hypocalcemia
Chvostek's and Trousseau's signs.
395
Malignancy and hyperparathyroidism
The most common causes of hypercalcemia.
396
Hypokalemia
T-wave flattening and U waves.
397
Hyperkalemia
Peaked T waves and widened QRS.
398
IV hydration and loop diuretics (furosemide)
First-line treatment for moderate hypercalcemia.
399
Prerenal
Type of ARF in a patient with FeNa
400
Nephrolithiasis
A 49-year-old male presents with acute-onset flank pain and hematuria.
401
Calcium oxalate
The most common type of nephrolithiasis.
402
Cerebral berry aneurysms (AD PCKD)
A 20-year-old man presents with a palpable flank mass and hematuria. Ultrasound shows bilateral enlarged kidneys with cysts. Associated brain anomaly?
403
Nephritic syndrome
Hematuria, hypertension, and oliguria.
404
Nephrotic syndrome
Proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, hyperlipidemia, hyperlipiduria, edema.
405
Membranous glomerulonephritis
The most common form of nephritic syndrome.
406
IgA nephropathy (Berger's disease)
The most common form of glomerulonephritis.
407
Alport's syndrome
Glomerulonephritis with deafness.
408
Wegener's granulomatosis and Goodpasture's syndrome
Glomerulonephritis with hemoptysis.
409
Glomerulonephritis/nephritic syndrome
Presence of red cell casts in urine sediment.
410
Allergic interstitial nephritis
Eosinophils in urine sediment.
411
Nephrotic syndrome
Waxy casts in urine sediment and Maltese crosses (seen with lipiduria).
412
Uremic syndrome seen in patients with renal failure
Drowsiness, asterixis, nausea, and a pericardial friction rub.
413
Wait, surgical resection, radiation and/or androgen suppression
A 55-year-old man is diagnosed with prostate cancer. Treatment options?
414
DI
Low urine specific gravity in the presence of high serum osmolality.
415
Fluid restriction, demeclocycline
Treatment of SIADH?
416
Renal cell carcinoma (RCC)
Hematuria, flank pain, and palpable flank mass.
417
Choriocarcinoma
Testicular cancer associated with β-hCG, AFP.
418
Seminoma—a type of germ cell tumor
The most common type of testicular cancer.
419
Transitional cell carcinoma
The most common histology of bladder cancer.
420
Central pontine myelinolysis
Complication of overly rapid correction of hyponatremia.
421
Anion gap acidosis and 1° respiratory alkalosis due to central respiratory stimulation
Salicylate ingestion → in what type of acid-base disorder?
422
Respiratory alkalosis
Acid-base disturbance commonly seen in pregnant women.
423
DM, SLE, and amyloidosis
Three systemic diseases → nephrotic syndrome.
424
RCC or other erythropoietin-producing tumor; evaluate with CT scan
Elevated erythropoietin level, elevated hematocrit, and normal O2 saturation suggest?
425
Likely BPH. Options include no treatment, terazosin, finasteride, or surgical intervention (TURP)
A 55-year-old man presents with irritative and obstructive urinary symptoms. Treatment options?
426
Antipsychotics (neuroleptic malignant syndrome)
Class of drugs that may cause syndrome of muscle rigidity, hyperthermia, autonomic instability, and extrapyramidal symptoms.
427
Acute mania, immunosuppression, thin skin, osteoporosis, easy bruising, myopathies
Side effects of corticosteroids.
428
Benzodiazepines
Treatment for DTs.
429
N-acetylcysteine
Treatment for acetaminophen overdose.
430
Naloxone
Treatment for opioid overdose.
431
Flumazenil
Treatment for benzodiazepine overdose.
432
Dantrolene or bromocriptine
Treatment for neuroleptic malignant syndrome.
433
Nitroprusside
Treatment for malignant hypertension.
434
Rate control, rhythm conversion, and anticoagulation
Treatment of AF.
435
Rate control with carotid massasge or other vagal stimulation
Treatment of supraventricular tachycardia (SVT).
436
INH, penicillamine, hydralazine, procainamide
Causes of drug-induced SLE.
437
B12 deficiency
Macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia with neurologic symptoms.
438
Folate deficiency
Macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia without neurologic symptoms.
439
Treat CO poisoning with 100% O2 or with hyperbaric O2 if severe poisoning or pregnant
A burn patient presents with cherry-red flushed skin and coma. SaO2 is normal, but carboxyhemoglobin is elevated. Treatment?
440
Bladder rupture or urethral injury
Blood in the urethral meatus or high-riding prostate.
441
Retrograde cystourethrogram
Test to rule out urethral injury.
442
Widened mediastinum (> 8 cm), loss of aortic knob, pleural cap, tracheal deviation to the right, depression of left main stem bronchus
Radiographic evidence of aortic disruption or dissection.
443
Free air under the diaphragm, extravasation of contrast, severe bowl distention, space-occupying lesion (CT), mesenteric occlusion (angiography)
Radiographic indications for surgery in patients with acute abdomen.
444
Pseudomonas
The most common organism in burn-related infections.
445
Parkland formula
Method of calculating fluid repletion in burn patients.
446
50 cc/hour
Acceptable urine output in a trauma patient.
447
30 cc/hour
Acceptable urine output in a stable patient.
448
Third-degree heart block
Cannon "a" waves.
449
Hypotension and bradycardia
Signs of neurogenic shock.
450
Hypertension, bradycardia, and abnormal respirations
Signs of ↑ ICP (Cushing's triad).
451
Hypovolemic shock
↓ CO, ↓ pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP), ↑ peripheral vascular resistance (PVR).
452
Cardiogenic shock
↓ CO, ↑ PCWP, ↑ PVR.
453
Septic or anaphylactic shock
↑ CO, ↓ PCWP, ↓ PVR.
454
Fluids and antibiotics
Treatment of septic shock.
455
Identify cause; pressors (e.g., dobutamine)
Treatment of cardiogenic shock.
456
Identify cause; fluid and blood repletion
Treatment of hypovolemic shock.
457
Diphenhydramine or epinephrine 1:1000
Treatment of anaphylactic shock.
458
Continuous positive airway pressure
Supportive treatment for ARDS.
459
A patient with chest trauma who was previously stable suddenly dies
Signs of air embolism.
460
AP chest, AP/lateral C-spine, AP pelvis
Trauma series.
