Rating Exam Flashcards
(113 cards)
1
Q
For the AD/PF VOR-A Approach which of the following statements is correct?
A. Maximum IAS on the approach is 150kts
B. Holding at the VOR is a left pattern
C. Minimum descent altitude is 1120ft
D. Missed Approach is H270 degrees A040
A
A. No - 140kts
B. Yes
C. Yes
D. No - A030
2
Q
Who is responsible for providing ATS within R279 when required for military activity?
A
AAW must provide ATS.
Note: R279 may be used for supersonic flights.
3
Q
When Australian Helicopters are conducting police operations which of the following apply?
A. Pilots must advise Adelaide TCU of any special requirements
B. Adelaide TCU will not accept details over the radio
C. Australian Helicopters have a CAR147 exemption
A
A. Yes
B. No - ATC will accept details over the radio
C. Yes
4
Q
What three conditions must be met before re-clearing an outbound aircraft direct to points outside Adelaide TCU?
A
- Cleared direct to a navigation aid, turning point or reporting point on the cleared route within 55 NM Adelaide or direct to ALBUT or NATYA;
- Separated from aircraft on inbound non-coordination routes, or previously coordinated traffic from Barossa; and
- Crosses the AD – Barossa boundary within 3 NM of the original route for non-jets or the nominal procedural SID track for jets.
5
Q
When sequencing two aircraft to crossing runways, what distance must a jet be when the first aircraft crosses the threshold?
A
A runway standard
6
Q
Where could a pilot find information relating to the VITAA and its use?
A
ERSA FAC A
7
Q
For IFR/SVFR arrivals into Parafield what is the mandated acceptance rate by PF TWR?
When VMC exists in the whole Parafield CTR, what can this be reduced to?
A
Not less than seven minutes apart based on the estimate at the transfer points.
a) no less than 5 NM in trail; or
b) by the application of ‘Sight and Follow’ visual separation (by pilot).
8
Q
List two of the three conditions that must be met before clearing an aircraft direct to a destination within 90NM Adelaide.
A
- The aircraft is initially cleared via an approved outbound route;
- The aircraft is established outbound and clear of conflicting TCU traffic and opposite direction Barossa traffic; and
- Appropriate coordination and approval is issued by Barossa.
9
Q
What airspace would you release to the tower to accommodate an aircraft who wishes to conduct circuits at Adelaide airport?
How is this release indicated?
A
CIRA
Display the appropriate RMAP
10
Q
YTV a TOBA 20NM west of Adelaide at A035, reports that the engine has failed. Would you divert any aircraft to the area, and if so, for what purpose?
A
Yes
For possible intercept/sighting and/or escort
11
Q
AAW is authorised to operate up to the boundary with AAE. List the three exceptions to this rule.
A
AAW is authorised to operate up to the boundary except for aircraft:
a) overflying within 3 NM of YPAD;
b) in possible conflict with AAE traffic established below the bar in the Adelaide arrival sequence; or
c) in possible conflict with AAE traffic departing from duty RWY 05/23.
12
Q
Two SF340B aircraft are on final for RWY 12 with less than 3NM separation.
Which of the following conditions must have been met before Adelaide tower automatically accepts separation responsibility?
A
Visual separation is applied when:
- The weather conditions are at or greater than 8.1 Minima for VFR operations (See note).
2) ADC provides visual separation:
i) between arriving aircraft within 5 NM of Adelaide and on final for the same or a crossing runway, providing the aircraft have been sequenced by Adelaide TCU for the applicable runway or wake turbulence separation standard.
Note: Minima for VFR operations - The following minima apply to the AD CTR for VFR operations:
a) Visibility 5000 m; and
b) Ceiling:
i) 1500 FT in the CIRA and coastal offshore; and
ii) 2000 FT elsewhere.
13
Q
If RXA4693 is followed by RXA4695, both to YPLC off runway 23, what separation must the ADC provide?
A
3NM
Except when visual separation is applied, or as specified in the paragraph below, the ADC provides at least 3 NM separation or the appropriate radar wake turbulence separation if greater, between aircraft of similar performance on tracks/headings that diverge by less than 35 degrees.
14
Q
Because of very strong north-westerly winds QFA738 for Sydney is departing RWY 30. What altitude requirements apply?
A
5000 FT before crossing the coastline east bound.
15
Q
What type of departure will Adelaide Clearance Delivery issue to IFR aircraft departing Adelaide?
A
ACD issues in order of priority:
1) Procedural SID to jet aircraft where the procedure is available for their planned route, except:
i) F100 aircraft; or
ii) aircraft that are unable to comply with the procedural SID requirements; or
iii) where aircraft are departing RWY 05 when reciprocal runway mode is in operation.
2) SID (Radar); and
3) VSD by day in VMC to:
i) helicopters;
ii) other aircraft unable to fly a SID; and
iii) priority flights (e.g. MEDEVAC) on pilot request.
16
Q
When is it permissible to vector a SVFR flight?
A
When warranted by emergency conditions
Do not vector:
c) special VFR aircraft, except when warranted by emergency conditions
17
Q
Are you required to display the scale marker on the Main Display when using the standard TCU set up? What conditions must be met?
A
Scale marker not required
A scale marker is not required when operating a TWR/TCU position:
a) on a range scale not exceeding 100 NM; and
b) a map showing detailed distance information is displayed.
18
Q
Use a diagram to describe the following elements of the Adelaide/Parafield NDB-Z RWY 21 approach holding pattern, basic pattern (do not include specific bearings), missed approach track.
A
Track in 036 deg, left hand holding pattern, 1 minute legs, missed approach at PF NDB turn right, H270 climb to A030.
19
Q
Does the HAWKY (X) SID provide systemic separation with:
- GULFS (X) ARRIVAL RWY 12
- RIKAB (X) ARRIVAL RWY 23
A
- Yes
2. No
20
Q
Is it a requirement to read back the runway when Parafield ADC includes it with the ‘NEXT’ call?
A
Yes
Read back the key elements of any received coordination, clearance or instruction from another ATSO.
Obtain a readback of the key elements of the following ATC clearances, instructions and information: d) an assigned runway or HLS
21
Q
What is the missed approach track for the sector A DME arrival?
A
044 degrees
TURN AS REQUIRED, INTERCEPT AND TRACK R-044°. CLIMB TO 3800FT OR AS DIRECTED BY ATC.
22
Q
To which aircraft is the coastal procedure applicable and at what altitude?
A
Flight category - VFR only
MTOW less than - 7000 kg
Not above 500 FT
23
Q
Once the ADC accepts responsibility for a coastal procedure southbound, what four actions are required by AAW?
A
AAW must:
a) insert ‘CPS’ in the LABEL_DATA;
b) advise AAE ‘COASTAL PROCEDURE [ABC] SOUTHBOUND’;
c) instruct the aircraft to contact Adelaide Tower at LARGS JETTY for onwards clearance; and
d) hand-off jurisdiction to AAE prior to crossing the TCU airspace boundary.
24
Q
Which of the following is the ADC responsible for providing the ATS to coastal traffic between Largs Jetty and MLIT?
A. Departures from Adelaide
B. Aircraft conducting a runway 12 VOR
C. Helicopters on a visual approach to PADW
D. Potential go around or missed approach path for Adelaide traffic
A
A, C and D
B - Coastal procedure not available when operations are conducted to runways other than 05 and 23
25
When is the ADC required to coordinate with Adelaide TCU for coastal traffic?
Coordination by ADC to TCU is not required except if the
AIRCRAFT NEEDS TO RE-CROSS THE RWY 05/23 CENTRELINE.
26
HVM, an IFR flight (tower closed) for YLLE, fails to depart after reporting 'ready' and receiving an airways clearance.
1. When would you declare a SAR phase, and
2. What would the phase be?
1. 15 min after taxiing call
| 2. Uncertainty phase (INCERFA)
27
When IMC exists in the Parafield CTR, what is the minimum distance between aircraft conducting a straight in instrument approach? Can this distance be used if the first aircraft intends to circle?
When IMC exists in the PF CTR, the TCU Executive Controllers must sequence aircraft conducting a straight-in instrument approach NO LESS THAN 5 NM APART.
TCU Executive Controllers MUST NOT PERMIT A FOLLOWING AIRCRAFT TO COMMENCE AN APPROACH if the PRECEDING AIRCRAFT is still airborne and INTENDS TO CIRCLE TO LAND.
28
What are the vertical limits of the Parafield CTR?
VERTICAL LIMITS: SFC - 1500
29
What does 2R in the GATE field of Parafield departure strip indicate?
2 - Parafield ADC number
R - SID (radar)
30
A VFR aircraft operating at night plans YPAD - PAL - YPPF.
1. Is it permissible to amend the clearance so that the aircraft tracks via ACTY?
2. Is it permissible to issue a radar heading with the departure instruction?
1. Yes - If the pilot specifically requests the route, otherwise - NO.
2. No
MATS - Issue airways clearances to aircraft operating VFR at night IAW FPR except:
a) when the pilot specifically requests another route;
b) when an amended route is deemed satisfactory in relation to the planned route (e.g. coastline flying); or
c) for short-term route variations:
i) by vectoring; or
ii) within 30 miles of a controlled aerodrome, by visual tracking.
AIP - Before takeoff, ATC may assign a heading for a departing aircraft to assume after takeoff, followed by frequency change instructions if appropriate. Headings, other than those assigned for a radar SID, will only be issued for a visual departure by day in VMC.
31
What altitude do aircraft turn to their assigned heading when tracking via the Parafield 9 departure RWY 21?
1600FT
32
With the assistance of a diagram, draw the Parafield 9 departure including levels and tracking.
RWY 21
1. At DER, turn RIGHT track 215°
2. At 800FT turn RIGHT track 240°
3. At 1600FT turn to assigned heading
RWY 03
1. Track 020°
2. At 3000FT turn to assigned heading
33
Does the track PAL direct to Parafield NDB provide separate assurance with the ECA?
Yes
Whilst an arriving IFR/SVFR aircraft is in Class D, visual and tracking from PAL direct PF(HJ) or PAL direct to PF NDB (all hours) until established in the Parafield circuit, it is laterally separated from aircraft which are: a) operating within the EDN CTR/R265A; or b) in Class C that is radar monitored on or east of the RWY 05/23 centreline.
34
What code do aircraft squawk in class D airspace?
3000 - Civil
5000 - Military
a. Civil flights in classes A, C and D airspace, or IFR flights in Class E airspace 3000
d. Military flights in classes A, C, D or E airspace 5000
35
An aircraft conducts an Adelaide ILS and then has planned for HAWKY, A040. Is there any voice coordination required between AAW and AAR?
No
Apply voiceless coordination procedures:
a) provided that the: i) posting conditions of announced position symbols and the PCLs are correct; ii) FDR reflects the current clearance/pilot intentions; and iii) ASD range complies with the requirements in 6.1.5.1.1 Airspace display requirements for laterally adjoining sectors; b) to or from Class G airspace; and c) in other classes of airspace where specified in LIs or LoA.
36
An aircraft planned to enter class C/restricted areas via class G will call what frequency at SUB/SKI?
For entry into Edinburgh Restricted Airspace - 128.6
For entry into East airspace from SUB - 118.2
For entry into West airspace from SKI - 124.2
Flights intending to enter ADJ Class C airspace, R255 or R265A via SUB or SKI REQ SSR code from Parafield Ground on 119.9.
Monitor Adelaide Centre on 130.45 passing SUB or SKI.
Squawk assigned SSR code and REQ AWY CLR from Adelaide Approach on frequency:
a. 128.6 approaching Edinburgh Restricted Areas.
b. 118.2 approaching Class C airspace east of YPAD SFL.
c. 124.2 approaching Class C airspace on or west of YPAD SFL
37
1. What strip and TM windows should you display when you are doing AAW?
2. How does this change when all the executive positions are combined?
1. Strip (ADEP Beacon) AAW - YPAD/YPPF/YPED
TM Windows AAW - A:YPAD/A:YPPF
2. Strip (ADEP Beacon) Combined - Add YADG
TM Windows Combined - Add YPED
38
Twinstar YBT calls 124.2 at SKI requesting airways clearance to YARS. A clearence is not available due to traffic. What is the correct phraseology to use when advising YBT of this?
CLEARANCE NOT AVAILABLE, REMAIN OUTSIDE CLASS C AIRSPACE
CLEARANCE NOT AVAILABLE, REMAIN OUTSIDE CLASS (airspace class) (or RESTRICTED) [AND CLASS (airspace class)] AIRSPACE
39
When R279 is activated by NOTAM and is not required for military activity, what portion of airspace may be released from AAW to Barossa and AAR?
AAW may release the airspace:
a) beyond 36 NM AD to AUG; and
b) between 20 NM and 36 NM, A045 and below, to AAR.
40
Within what distance of LLT should parachutes remain for PJE at YLLT?
1NM
Parachutists must remain within 1 NM radius centred on Lower Light (34 31 04.76S 138 25 25.29E) during the drop. If an extension of the area is necessary, the pilot must advise ATC of the distance and direction required.
41
What are the two types of departure procedures Australian Helicopters will utilise from YPAD at night or in IMC?
1. Helipad West IFR departure
2. SID (RADAR) departure
Non-published IFR departure:
Pilot request to 'DEPART FROM HELIPAD WEST' and advise set course requirements
Airways Clearance will not include a SID (RADAR) or VSD.
Whilst under own navigation, the Pilot is responsible for terrain/obstacle clearance until reaching the LSALT/MVA.
SID (RADAR) Departure RWY 23/05/30/12:
Pilot requests 'ADELAIDE (X) DEPARTURE' and the preferred runway
The pilot may request clearance to enter HELIPAD WEST in preparation for departure or report READY from the apron area.
When able to do so, ATC will issue the following instruction 'AIRTRANSIT TO RWYXX, ASSIGNED HEADING XXX, CLEARED FOR TAKE-OFF'.
The Pilot is responsible for terrain/obstacle clearance during the Air Transit.
42
What tracking restrictions apply to jets departing RWY 05 between 2100-0700 local?
Unless operationally required:
a) Do not cancel Jet procedural SIDs below A050; and
b) Vector Jet aircraft issued a Radar SID on routes which have an applicable procedural SID, on a flight path which approximates the procedural SID track below A050.
Note: Aircraft subject to MEDEVAC, SAR or FFR priority are excluded from these restrictions.
43
What requirements/limitations must be applied when utilising Hillsface fire bombing areas for separation?
Requirements/limitations:
1) By DAY ONLY;
2) VFR aircraft operating A100 or below;
3) VFR aircraft are established within the designated Hills Face Containment Area; and
4) Apply surveillance separation to the system map boundary to other non-participating aircraft.
44
Parachutist must remain within how many miles of the Semaphore surf lifesaving club building during the drop?
1NM
Parachutists must remain within 1 NM radius centred on Semaphore Beach drop zone during the drop. If an extension of the area is necessary, the pilot must advise ATC of the distance and direction required.
45
What is the vertical limit of the Aviation Museum airspace?
The vertical limits of the 'Aviation Museum Airspace' and the 'Marina Adelaide Airspace' are SFC – 700 FT AMSL (based on Adelaide QNH).
46
What will the operator provide Adelaide TCU prior to commencing operations in the Aviation Museum/Marina Adelaide airspace?
As a contingency, the Operator will provide Adelaide TCU with THE PHONE NUMBER OF A GROUND STAFF MEMBER sited at the Aviation Museum/Marina Adelaide.
47
What phraseology should be used for a possible contravention of a curfew or to remind the pilot of curfew requirements?
'CURFEW RESTRICTIONS EXIST, PENALTIES APPLY, ADVISE INTENTIONS'
48
List your actions upon receipt of a PAN call due to a medical condition other than crew.
On receipt of a PAN call due to a medical condition of a person other than crew:
a) acknowledge the PAN call;
b) obtain relevant details as per Medical Emergency Details (ATS-FORM-0048);
c) confirm the services or assistance required at the destination;
d) enter PANM in the LABEL_DATA field;
e) coordinate to other units in accordance with MATS 6.4.6.1 'Aircraft in emergency'; and
f) advise your supervisor.
49
Is it permissible to maintain a jet aircraft departing from RWY 05 at A040 with the right turn heading 110?
No
Do not maintain jet aircraft on a RWY 05 departure to the east at a level below 5000 FT between the Adelaide 070 and 120 VOR radials.
Note: Due to problems associated with GPW alerts.
50
What is the minimum descent altitude in the following cases:
A. B747 carrying out a RNAV-Z RWY 23 approach?
B. PA31 carrying out a VOR RWY 12 approach?
C. C402 carrying out a VOR RWY 05 approach circling to RWY 12?
A. 430
B. 450
C. 900
51
What is the standard assignable level assignment for inbound aircraft between ENR and AD TCU?
A090
52
How do you indicate on the FDR label that inbound coordination has been passed to ED or PF TWR?
Display the C Prompt
Display the C Prompt when:
a) all coordination for an aircraft is complete; or
b) voice coordination is not required for an aircraft.
53
What are the altitude requirements on the RWY 23 SEDAN departure?
COLPY: AT OR ABV 2,500FT
SULLY: AT OR ABV 5,000FT
MORPH: AT OR ABV 6,000FT
URADA: AT OR ABV FL120
54
What abbreviation would the TWR enter into the Global OPS field for a helicopter cleared to the Royal Adelaide hospital via Route 1?
RTE1
'RTE1' - Helicopter YPAD to YXAA cleared via Route 1;
55
What runway shall be selected as the system arrival runway for YPAD?
RWY 00
56
What is the correct phraseology when issuing a visual approach to and IFR aircraft at night, when the aircraft will join final MOPRI?
WHEN ESTABLISHED ON THE GLIDEPATH CLEARED VISUAL APPROACH
When aircraft are vectored for VASIS/Glidepath WHEN ESTABLISHED ON THE VASIS (or PAPI) (or GLIDEPATH) CLEARED VISUAL APPROACH
57
Describe Route 1 from Adelaide airport to the Royal Adelaide hospital for Australian Helicopter operations?
YPAD
Keswick Bridge
West Parklands
YXAA
58
What phraseology must be used after a pilot reports 'visual' at night to assign a level below the LSALT to a specified altitude?
WHEN ESTABLISHED IN THE CIRCLING AREA, DESCEND TO (level) VISUAL
You may assign a pilot a level below the applicable LSALT provided that:
a) by day, the IFR pilot has reported 'VISUAL' and 'VISUAL' is appended to the level assigned; or
b) by night:
i) for VFR aircraft the clearance is issued by use of the phrase 'WHEN ESTABLISHED WITHIN THREE MILES, DESCEND TO (level)'; or
ii) for IFR aircraft, the pilot has reported 'VISUAL', and the clearance is issued by use of the phrase 'WHEN ESTABLISHED IN THE CIRCLING AREA, DESCEND TO (level) VISUAL'.
59
In the event of a go around from a VSA by day, what tracking and level restrictions will AD TWR normally apply to aircraft sequenced for:
A. RWY 05 or 12
B. RWY 23 or 30
RWY 05 or 12 – go around on runway heading/track or applicable missed approach procedure climb to A038
RWY 23 or 30 – go around on runway heading/track or applicable missed approach procedure climb to A030.
60
What distance must Adelaide Tower provide between jet departures cleared on BENDO SIDs?
5NM
61
Use a diagram to describe the following elements of the AD VOR RWY 30 approach:
A. Inbound radial
B. Missed Approach Point
C. Missed Approach Track
A. 290 degrees
B. At AD VOR
C. 290 degrees
62
Is the ADC required to coordinate with AAE for coastal procedure traffic southbound?
No
Coordination by ADC to TCU is not required except if the aircraft needs to re-cross the RWY 05/23 centreline.
63
What is the base of Class C airspace between LUNGA and the coast at PNL?
A025
64
What phrase would AAE use to notify the ADC about coastal procedure traffic?
'COASTAL PROCEDURE [ABC] NORTHBOUND'
65
What is the applicable clearance limit to be imposed by AAE for a coastal procedure northbound?
BRIGHTON JETTY
'TRACK COASTAL OFFSHORE NORTHBOUND NOT ABOVE 500 FT, CLEARANCE LIMIT BRIGHTON JETTY'
66
What assigned heading must Adelaide ATC issue to an aircraft departing RWY 12 on an AD(x) departure (RADAR)?
180 degrees
The assigned heading for RWY 12 AD(x) SID (RADAR) is 180 degrees.
67
What is the height requirement at SULLY for the BENDO (xx) Departure RWY 23?
At or ABV 5000ft.
68
List the actions required upon receipt of a pilot report of a laser event.
On receipt of a pilot report of a laser event:
a) commence hazard alerting procedures and continue until such time as a warning is transmitted on ATIS;
b) transmit the ATIS warning for one hour or continue hazard alerting as per MATS Chapter 9.1 Provision of FIS; and
c) complete notification (see NAAM 1.6).
69
When shall approach controllers instruct arriving aircraft to transfer to Adelaide Tower frequency?
Transfer aircraft from approach to the tower:
VSA - 5 NM
IAL - MOPRI, otherwise 7 NM
70
When will POLAIR instigate POLAIR RED priority?
In situations where life is threatened.
Give police aircraft priority when they are engaged in situations where life is threatened. In such cases the police will use the POLAIR RED (or FEDPOL RED) callsign.
71
What two actions should be taken when an aircraft is authorised to divert from the cleared route and the actual route is not known or cannot be approximated (for example when diverting around weather)?
When the actual route is unknown or cannot be approximated, and deviations from the cleared or nominal route are approved:
a) record the deviation in the:
i) OTD on FPSNA enabled sectors; or
ii) OTD or LABEL_DATA field on other sectors; and
b) update the FDR once positive tracking advice is received from the pilot.
72
The airspace belonging to Adelaide Radar (AAR) consists of all Class (?) airspace contained within DAH Section 9 YMML/ADELAIDE TMA.
Class G airspace
73
Coordinate aircraft:
a) That will operate within (?) NM of the sector boundary, unless:
Coordinate aircraft displayed as a flight plan position symbol that:
i) a track is displayed on the ASD; and
ii) the FDR and position symbol label displays the pilot's intentions; or
b) may operate within (?) of the sector boundary due to lateral deviations.
a) will operate within 7.5 NM of the sector boundary
may operate within 7.5 NM of the sector boundary due to lateral deviations.
74
What criteria are applicable to use the coastal procedure?
Criteria Condition
Cloud base 2000 FT or above
Visibility 8 km or more
Flight category VFR only
MTOW Less than 7000 kg
75
A P3 taxies at EDN when EDN TWR is closed.
A. When should you issue a transponder code?
B. When should you issue the airways clearance?
A. On taxi
B. When “Ready” at the holding point and prior to RWY entry.
ACFT departing EDN into adjoining Class C airspace must contact Adelaide Centre (130.45) on taxi for transponder code; and request airways clearance when “Ready” at the holding point and prior to RWY entry.
76
1. If an aircraft is sequenced for a VOR RWY 05 or a VOR RWY 23 approach can AAW put them on the radial without coordination to AAE?
2. Are there any limitations/ requirements?
1. Yes
2. Limitations/Requirements:
a. Aircraft established below the bar in the Adelaide arrival sequence and
b. Is within 20NM Adelaide.
For aircraft sequenced for a VOR RWY 05 or VOR RWY 23 approach and established below the bar in the Adelaide arrival sequence, AAW is authorised to operate up to the AD215R and the AD047R respectively, within 20 NM Adelaide.
77
Which Hillsface containment areas do aircraft established on the LOC RWY 23 within 25NM (ILS or LOC RWY 23, or tracking via the LOC on a VSA), or established on RNAV-Z (GNSS) RWY 23 joining via GULLY or PADNI separate with?
Black Hill
Hills Northeast
Hills Southeast
78
Does the Hillsface Containment area 'Black Hill' separate with departures maintaining RWY track 042 from RWY 05?
No
05 Departure
On or north of runway track 042°:
Hills Northeast
Hills Southeast
79
Which of the following is 'Hills Northeast' separated from?
Separated from:
05/12 Departures
23/30 Arrivals
80
Which instrument approaches for RWY 30 are separated from Hills Northeast and Black Hill fire bombing areas?
Established on AD R-110° (VOR RWY 30).
Established on RNAV-Z (GNSS) RWY 30 joining via PADEL or PADEI.
81
What are the three Hillsface containment areas?
Black Hill
Hills Northeast
Hills Southeast
Black Hill Area – that area within 11 DME Adelaide bounded by Gorge Road in the north, thence from where Gorge Road meets the suburbs, south along the suburbs/hillsface intercept to the Magill to Para substation power line. Thence back to the northeast following this power line to Montacute Road, thence east along Montacute Road
Hills Northeast – that area south of Montacute Road and southeast of the Magill to Para substation power line to the commencement of the suburbs at Magill, thence south along the suburbs/hillsface intercept to Greenhill Road, thence east along Greenhill Road
Hills Southeast – the area bounded by Greenhill Road to the north, the suburbs/hillsface intercept to the west as far south as Chandlers Hill and Grants Gully Road to the south.
82
HVM (YBEV - YPPF, arriving after PF TWR closes into the CTAF) fails to cancel SAR upon arrival with AD CEN. The aural SAR alarm on the FDR activates after the required time. Should you 'cancel' the SAR timer or only acknowledge it?
Why?
1. Acknowledge it
2. The FDR will finish
Unreported arrival
Do not cancel the expired SARTIMER of an aircraft that has failed to report arrival at an uncontrolled aerodrome. Acknowledge the aural alarm or extend the SARTIMER.
Note: Cancellation of the SARTIMER of an aircraft that has reached its destination will allow the FDR to automatically finish.
83
What tracking instructions and level would TWR issue to the following go arounds?
a) Aircraft sequencing to RWY 05 or 12 – go around on runway heading/track or applicable missed approach procedure climb to A038; or
b) Aircraft sequenced to RWY 23 or 30 – go around on runway heading/track or applicable missed approach procedure climb to A030.
84
Inside what distance must AD TCU advise AD TWR of any changes TO THE A:YPAD TMW arrival sequence?
15NM
TCU notifies the ADC of any changes made to aircraft within 15 NM of Adelaide, except landing times.
85
At Adelaide, is there a requirement to specify the ILS-Y or ILS-Z when both approaches are available?
When does this change?
1. No
2. When one of the approaches is not available.
ILS-Y and ILS-Z RWY 23 approaches available
Issue 'CLEARED ILS RWY 23 APPROACH' when both the ILS-Y RWY 23 and the ILS-Z RWY 23 approaches are available. There is no requirement to specify the individual approach types.
86
List in order from highest to lowest priority for operations in the ED CTR
1) Traffic priorities listed in MATS 2.3;
2) Military test schedule operations;
3) Other military operations; and
4) All other flights.
EDN CTR/R233/R234/R255/R265 A/B/C
When EDN CTR, R233, R234, R255 and R265 A/B/C are active, prioritise aircraft operations as follows:
1) Traffic priorities listed in MATS 2.3;
2) Military test schedule operations;
3) Other military operations; and
4) All other flights.
87
For civil aircraft wishing to carry out ILS and NDB training at Edinburgh which of the following statements is correct?
NAVAID TRAINING - CIVIL ACFT
ILS and NDB AVBL for TRNG SUBJ MIL TFC.
The following limitations apply;
a. An IFR FPL must be submitted for NAVAID TRNG AT YPED.
b. Pilots to display LDG LGTs on FNA.
c. ACFT are REQ to MNTN MNM 110KT on FNA.
d. ACFT must not use the SFC of YPED without prior approval.
88
What tracking restrictions apply to IFR/SVFR aircraft inbound to Parafield that ensures lateral separation from the ED CTR/R265A and the adjoining Class C airspace?
From PAL direct PF(HJ) or PAL direct to PF NDB (all hours) until established in the Parafield circuit.
Lateral separation Class D to Class C/EDCTR/R265A
Whilst an arriving IFR/SVFR aircraft is in Class D, visual and tracking from PAL direct PF(HJ) or PAL direct to PF NDB (all hours) until established in the Parafield circuit, it is laterally separated from aircraft which are:
a) operating within the EDN CTR/R265A; or
b) in Class C that is radar monitored on or east of the RWY 05/23 centreline.
89
If a civil aircraft is inbound for landing at YPED after EDN Tower has closed, are you required to check if the pilot has approval to use Edinburgh airfield?
YES?
Can't find it in MATS SUPP
90
May R279 be used for supersonic flights?
Yes
AAW must provide ATS.
Note: R279 may be used for supersonic flights.
91
When R282 is required for military activity, is AAN responsible for the ATS?
No
KSC must provide ATS.
92
Does the EDTA include the airspace above the lateral limits of the ECA?
No
Edinburgh Training Area (EDTA)
The combination of:
1) EDN CTR north of the lateral limits of the ECA;
2) R234 north of the lateral limits of the ECA;
3) R265A north of the lateral limits of the ECA;
4) R265B-D;
5) R233A-B (when active); and
6) R255 (when active).
Excluding airspace subject to NOTAM activation for glider operations.
93
What is the definition of the ECA?
Edinburgh Circuit Area (ECA)
That portion of the EDN CTR bounded by the Gawler River to the north and the powerline running from the Gawler River (1.5 NM south of the Gawler Township) to the south eastern boundary of the EDN CTR.
SFC-1500 FT
94
What is the purpose of R231?
Military flying
95
Where should premeditated ejection take place at EDN?
The general area around, but inland from the mouth of Light River (295EDN015) and no further south than the Gawler River
96
When EDN is CTAF, what type of departure should be issued?
A procedural SID
When EDN is a CTAF, you should issue a procedural SID to IFR departures.
97
When R265 is not required for military operations, which airspace should be released to AUG?
Airspace release - no military operations AAN may release to AUG:
a) R265 A and B from FL250 and above; and
b) R265 C and D.
98
Do military aircraft have higher priority for use of the supersonic area other than the normal priorities as per in MATS Traffic Priorities?
No
No priority
Military aircraft do not have any higher priority for operations within the supersonic area than other airspace users.
99
Which area is the first preference for jettisoning stores/fuel tanks?
Port Wakefield Restricted Areas
Jettison stores/fuel tanks in the following areas, in order of preference, when required: 1) Port Wakefield Restricted Areas; 2) Gulf of St. Vincent, on a westerly heading; 3) RWY 04/22 at EDN, heading northeast and beyond taxiway Delta; and 4) The remainder of EDN airfield avoiding personnel and fixed installations.
100
What noise abatement procedure is required for an aircraft departing runway 18 at EDN for tracks between 360 and 179 magnetic?
Turn RIGHT and set course overhead not BLW 3,000FT.
101
What must be included in the flight plan of an aircraft intending to operate in R279?
'OPS APPROVED IN R279'.
102
Can a P3 plan an ILS at YPAD? Does the P3 need to have a booking?
Yes
Yes
103
Is it permissible to instruct an IFR pilot to change to CTAF thereby negating the need to provide traffic information?
No
104
Which of the following reverse procedures are depicted on the YPED RWY18 NDB approach?
80/260 degree turn
105
Use a diagram to describe the following elements of the TACAN RWY 18 approach. Inbound radial, missed approach track.
Inbound track 007 degrees
Missed Approach 340 degrees
106
Use a diagram to describe the following elements of the Edinburgh NDB-Z approach:
Holding pattern
Basic tracking (include an outbound bearing)
Missed approach track.
Holding pattern
Right pattern, 1 minute legs
Outbound radial
138 degrees
Missed Approach Track
340°
107
What is the difference between a NOCOM cancellation time and a SARTIME?
NOCOM Cancellation Time
The time at which a military NOCOM aircraft will resume normal radio procedures and reporting. Note: This time is considered to be a scheduled report time for SAR purposes, not a SARTIME.
SARTIME
The time nominated by a pilot for the initiation of SAR action if a report has not been received by the nominated unit.
108
When and aircraft requires departure from Parafield on the RWY 03 SID (RADAR), AAN may request the..........?
Circuit East procedure
When an IFR aircraft requires departure from Parafield on the RWY 03 SID (RADAR), AAN may request the Circuit East procedure.
109
What frequency do IFR aircraft cancel Sarwatch on when arriving at ED when ED TWR is closed?
130.45
ACFT arriving EDN must cancel SARWATCH with Adelaide Centre (130.45) when on ground.
110
Is KLAVA on an approved non-coordination route for OUTBOUND aircraft?
No
The outbound non-coordination routes are:
a) via a Procedural SID:
i) from RWY 23 during RRM; or
ii) from the duty runway nominated on the ATIS.
b) H246 (ORBUN);
c) W426 (VILAD);
d) V361 (SEDAN);
e) H247 (PANKI);
f) V255 (BENDO);
g) W519 (ALBUT);
h) V504 (EEMUE);
i) Q12 (GILES);
j) J15 (YORKE);
k) A585 (HAWKY); and
l) W238 (WAKEN).
111
AAN is authorised to operate up to the boundary coincident with the lateral limits of what area?
ED CTR
AAN is authorised to operate up to the boundary coincident with the lateral limits of the ED CTR.
112
Is ORBUN an approved INBOUND non-coordination route?
No
The inbound non-coordination routes are:
a) via a STAR to:
i) RWY 23 during non-curfew RRM; or
ii) a duty runway nominated on the Adelaide ATIS; or
iii) Edinburgh.
b) W325 (RUSSL);
c) V454 (BLACK);
d) H345 (DRINA);
e) V259 (ALEXI);
f) V175 (ELROX);
g) N640 (RIKAB);
h) T20 (AGROS);
i) H84 (MARGO); and
j) H135 (KLAVA).
113
Use a diagram to describe the following elements of the Edinburgh SID RWY 18/36 (North (X) Departure):
1. Tracking
2. Turn altitudes
Tracking RWY 18
180 degrees, turn right 340 degrees, turn right track direct EDN NDB or TACAN, intercept cleared route
Tracking RWY 36
360 degrees, turn left 340 degrees, turn right track direct EDN NDB or TACAN, intercept cleared route
Turn altitudes
AT 600 feet and AT 4000 feet
