RBC AND WBC

Question 1

2. After 20 years of age red cell production is abundant in… except ..
   Long bones
   Sternum
   Pelvis
   Vertebra

Answer 1

Vertebra

Question 2

6. What stage of red blood cells that passes into the blood capillaries by diapedesis? A. Basophil erythroblast B. Reticulocyte C. Proerythroblast D. Erythrocyte *Leukocytes

Answer 2

D. erythrocytes
**leukocytes

Question 3

10. Which of these does not cause hypoxia? A. Pneumonia B. Anemia C. Hypercapnia D. Obstructive respiratory disease

Answer 3

C. Hypercapnia

Hypercapnia, also called hypercarbia, iswhen you have too much carbon dioxide (CO2) in your blood

Hypoxia
a state in which oxygen is not available in sufficient amounts at the tissue level to maintain adequate homeostasis

Question 4

12. Process of neutrophils sticking to damaged capillary walls
    A. Margination B. Chemotaxis C. Diapedesis

Answer 4

A. Margination

Question 5

.Most important test to check that anemia is caused by blood loss?

Answer 5

Hemoglobin concentration

Question 6

17. Which of the following condition is not considered a porphyria? *
    A. X-linked sideroblastic anemia
    B. ALA dehydratase deficiency
    C. acute intermittent porphyria
    D. porphyria cutanea tarda

Answer 6

A. X-linked sideroblastic anemia

Question 7

20. A person with type A blood has
    A. A agglutinogen
    B. B agglutinogen
    C. Anti-A agglutinin
    D. Anti-B agglutinin

Answer 7

C. Anti-A agglutinin

Question 8

24. What is the major protein in the
    cytoskeleton of red blood cells? *
    A. Actin
    B. Ankyrin
    C. Spectrin
    D. Glycophorin

Answer 8

C. Spectrin

Question 9

26. A woman has been suffering from heavy menstrual cycles for years. She is on a vegan diet. What is she at most risk of?
    A. Anemia B. Leukopenia C. Thrombocytopenia D. polycythemia vera

Answer 9

A. Anemia

Question 10

29. What type of anemia is caused by poor absorption of vitamin B12 and often seen in patients after removal of the intestines?

A. Sickle cell anemia
B. Megaloblastic Anemia
C. Iron deficiency anemia
D. Pernicious Anemia

Answer 10

D. Pernicioud Anemia

Question 11

33. The role of basophils in acute inflammatory response, EXCEPT

a. release effectors that activates platelets b. release histamine that facilitate edema formation
c. secretes chemokines that attract lymphocytes
d. release chemokines that facilitates vascular constriction

Answer 11

a. release effectors that activates platelets

Question 12

34. Which among the white blood cells has a tendency to live for many years? A. Lymphocytes (memory lymphocyte) B. EosinophilsC. Neutrophils D. Monocytes

Answer 12

A. Lymphocytes

Question 13

36. Which of the following best defines diapedesis?
    A. Migration of leukocytes in response to signals produced in sites of infection

B. Locomotion of leukocytes to migrate in response to stimuli

C. Leukocytes encapsulate invading bacteria within membrane vesicles

D. Process of traversing the capillary wall in response to chemical signals

Answer 13

D. Process of traversing the capillary wall in response to chemical signals *mechanism of movement for leukocytesameboid

Question 14

38. What is the direct role of G-protein in chemotaxis? * A. Hydrolyzes diacylglycerol to increase the cytoplasmic Ca2+

B. Stimulates protein kinase C to induce translocation

C. Activates phospholipase C to produce diacylglycerol and IP3

D. Activates IP3 which then catalyzes phosphorylation of various proteins

Answer 14

C. Activates phospholipase C to produce diacylglycerol and IP3

Question 15

42. Which of these cells is also commonly known as polymorphonuclears?

A. Monocyte
B. Lymphocyte
C. Basophil
D. Neutrophil

Answer 15

D. Neutrophil

Question 16

53.Not a macrophage?

Answer 16

Histiocytes-Skin

Question 17

50. Which does not describe polycythemia vera?
    A. High altitude
    B. Elevated hematocrit
    C. Elevated rbc mass
    D. Tumor in the bone marrow

Answer 17

D. Tumor in the bone marrow

Question 18

58. Production of too many immature cells called blast

Answer 18

C. Myelodysplastic anemia

Question 19

Which of the following statements about mature circulating erythrocytes is true? *

A.Able to use ketones for ATP production

B. They are packed with mitochondria

C. They have no nucleus

D. They survive for an average of four days

Answer 19

C. They have no nucleus

Question 20

Which is true about a molecule of hemoglobin? *
A. Can carry up to 120 molecules of oxygen

B. Consist of four globin proteins, each bound to a molecule of heme

C. Contains four glycoprotein units studded with oxygen

D. Shaped like a biconcave disk packed almost entirely with iron

Answer 20

B. Consist of four globin proteins, each bound to a molecule of heme

Question 21

The production of healthy erythrocytes depends upon the availability of what molecules?
A. Oxygen

B. Vitamin C
C. Zinc
D. Carbon dioxide

Answer 21

C. Zinc

Question 22

Aging and damaged erythrocytes are removed from the circulation by _________? * A. Myeloblast
B.Macrophages
C. Mast cells
D. Monocytes

Answer 22

B. Macrophage

Question 23

A patient has been suffering for 2 months with a chronic, watery diarrhea. A blood test would likely to reveal what blood problem? *

A. Hypoxemia
B. Hematocrit below 30%
C. Polycythemia vera
D.Anemia

Answer 23

C. Polycythemia vera

a condition where the bone marrow goes into “overdrive” and makes too many red blood cells, along with too many white blood cells and platelets

Question 24

A young woman has been experiencing unusually heavy menstrual bleeding for several years. She follows a strict vegan diet (no animal foods). She is at risk for what condition *

A. Anemia
B. Leukopenia
C. Polycythemia vera
D. Thrombocytopenia

Answer 24

A. Anemia

Question 25

Mario has thalassemia, a genetic disorder characterized by abnormal synthesis of globin proteins and excessive destruction of erythrocytes. What substance might be increased in these cases that can be detected by blood chemistry? * A. Albumin B. Bilirubin C. Iron D. Hemoglobin

Answer 25

B. Bilirubin

Question 26

Plasma protein that binds reversibly to iron and distributes it throughout the body. * Transferrin Apoferritin Ferritin Hemosiderin

Answer 26

Transferrin

Question 27

How many oxygen molecule can one hemoglobin carry? *

Answer 27

4

Question 28

Differentiation of a common myeloid progenitor cell to an erythrocyte would require what cytokine and hormone? * A. interleukin 3, granulocyte macrophage-colony stimulating factor, FT3 ligand and erythropoietin B.interleukin 3, interleukin 5, granulocyte macrophage-colony stimulating factor and erythropoietin C. interleukin 1, interleukin 3, interleukin 6, granulocyte macrophage-colony stimulating factor D. interleukin 3, granulocyte macrophage-colony stimulating factor, stem cell factor and erythropoietin

Answer 28

D. interleukin 3, granulocyte macrophage-colony stimulating factor, stem cell factor and erythropoietin

Question 29

A mature red blood cell is devoid of what organelle? * A. mitochondria B. Golgi apparatus C. Nucleus D. all of the above

Answer 29

D. all of the above

Question 30

Glucose enters the red blood cell for ATP production through what transport mechanism? * facilitated diffusion primary active transport simple diffusion D. secondary active transport

Answer 30

Facilitated diffusion

Question 31

How does red blood cell generate its energy/ATP? *

Answer 31

Glycolysis

Question 32

Which enzyme has a physiologic importance in reducing methemoglobin in the body? *

Answer 32

cytochrome b5 reductase

Question 33

Hereditary spherocytosis and hereditary elliptocytosis is caused by an abnormality of what cytoskeletal protein in the cell membrane of RBCs? * anion exchange protein actin spectrin Band 3

Answer 33

Spectrin

Question 34

Which is the plasma protein that binds reversibly to iron and distribute it throughout the body? *

Answer 34

Transferrin

Question 35

What type of anemia is caused by poor absorption of Vitamin B12 and often seen in patients after removal of the intestines? *

Answer 35

Pernicious anemia

Question 36

What triggers the release of erythropoietin from the kidneys? * hypotension. hypoxia low iron stores in the body blood loss

Answer 36

Hypoxia

Question 37

What are immature red blood cells? *

Answer 37

Reticulocytes

Question 38

Which is a major integral protein of the RBC membrane? *

Answer 38

Anion exchanged protein (Band 3)

Question 39

In ABO blood type system, which blood type has a Gene that encodes for the enzyme galactosamine transferase? *

Answer 39

Type B

Question 40

The Rho antigen is what type of protein? *

Answer 40

Integral membrane

Question 41

It is defined as abnormal variation in sizes of RBCs. * . anisocytosis poikilocytosis polymorphonuclear aplasia

Answer 41

Anisocytosis -microcyte -normocyte -megalocyte -macrocyte

Question 42

Which is an example of RBC with poikilocytosis? *

Answer 42

Stomatocyte Acantocyte Target cell Ovalocyte Sickle cell

Question 43

Which of the following leukocyte is an agranulocyte? * Basophils Eosinophils Monocytes Mast cells

Answer 43

Monocyte And Lymphocyte Granulocytes -neutrophil -eosinophil -Basophil

Question 44

The following are principal steps of an inflammatory response, except: * A.Vascular constriction to hold invading microorganisms in one place *increased vascular permeability B.Spontaneous resolution after invading microorganisms have been exterminated C. Activation of platelets to release chemokines D. Activated leukocytes enter the affected tissues

Answer 44

A.Vascular constriction to hold invading microorganisms in one place -should be increased permeability PRINCIPAL STEPS IN AN INFLAMMATORY RESPONSE 1) INCREASE IN VASCULAR PERMEABILITY 2) ENTRY OF ACTIVATED LEUKOCYTES INTO THE TISSUE 3) ACTIVATION OF PLATELETS 4) SPONTANEOUS SUBSIDENCE (RESOLUTION) IF THE INVADING MICROORGANISM HAVE BEEN DEALT WITH SUCCESSFULLY

Question 45

Which of the following white blood cell has a tendency to live for many years? *

Answer 45

Lymphocytes Specifically, Memory lymphocytes

Question 46

What is the MECHANISM OF MOVEMENT of leukocytes to migrate in response to chemical signals: *

Answer 46

Ameboid movement

Question 47

Which best defines diapedesis? * A.Locomotion of leukocytes to migrate in response to stimuli B. Process of traversing the capillary wall in response to chemical signals C. Leukocytes encapsulate invading bacteria within membrane vesicles D. Migration of leukocytes in response to signals produced in sites of infection

Answer 47

B. Process of traversing the capillary wall in response to chemical signals

Question 48

What is the G in G-protein which has a function in leukocyte chemotaxis? * Guanidine Guanine Granulocyte Guanosine

Answer 48

Guanosine

Question 49

What is the direct role of G-protein in chemotaxis? *

Answer 49

Activates phospholipase C to produce diacylglycerol and IP3

Question 50

Which is the correct description of the chemokine types? * Type C chemokine contains 2 intrachains disulfide bonds Type CC has a pair of conserved cysteine residues forming a disulfide bond Type CXC is the largest of the four types Type CX3C have cysteine residues separated by 3 intervening amino acid residues

Answer 50

Type CX3C have cysteine residues separated by 3 intervening amino acid residues Four Subclasses of Chemokines: 1. Type C chemokines - are characterized by an intrachain disulfide bond formed by a pair of conserved cysteine residues. In addition to the conserved disulfide bond present in type C, the other three recognized chemokine groups possess a second disulfide bond. 2. Type CC chemokines - one of the additional cysteine residues lies adjacent to the first of the first pair of universally conserved residues. 3. Type CXC - these cysteines are separated by one intervening amino acid residue. 4. CX3C chemokines - are separated by three intervening amino acid residues. It’s the largest of the four types of cytokines, and has a longer C-terminus that includes sites of covalent modification by glycosylation.

Question 51

This bactericidal enzyme is responsible for the green color of pus? *

Answer 51

Myeloperoxidase

Question 52

What is the process where C3 binds to specific receptors on the neutrophil membrane to initiate phagocytosis? *

Answer 52

Opsonization

Question 53

Which WBC commonly known as a polymorphonuclear cell? *

Answer 53

Neutrophil

Question 54

Which white blood cell contains the receptor for IgM? *

Answer 54

Eosinophil

Question 55

Which white blood cell (WBC) secretes histamine that facilitates accumulation of fluid within infected tissues? *

Answer 55

Basophil Histamine and heparin

Question 56

Which WBC is the first line of defense against infection? *

Answer 56

Neutrophil

Question 57

Which WBC that has a nucleus consisting of 2-5 lobes? *

Answer 57

Neutrophil 2-5 lobes Basophil 2-3 lobes

Question 58

Which WBC protect the body against parasitic infections? *

Answer 58

Eosinophil

Question 59

Which WBC synthesize and liberate heparin into the circulation to prevent blood coagulation?

Answer 59

Basophil

Question 60

Which is the correctly paired tissue-resident macrophages and their locations? (3 correct answers only) * Kuppfer cells=brain ( liver ) osteoblasts=bone mesangial cells=liver (kidney) alveolar macrophages=lungs microglial cells=kidney (brain) histiocytes=skin

Question 61

Which of the following are characteristics of an acquired immunity? (3 correct answers) * involves phagocytes antibody-mediated includes lymphocytes non specific very high diversity no memory involved

Answer 61

antibody-mediated Very high diversity Includes lymphocytes

Question 62

What type of anemia are hereditary spherocytosis? * A. RBC membrane disorder B. megaloblastic anemia C. anemia of chronic disease D. hypoproliferative anemia

Answer 62

RBC membrane disorder

Question 63

2. A process where C3 binds to specific receptors on the neutrophil membrane to initiate phagocytosis: * A. chemotaxis B. oxidation C. opsonization D. trapping

Answer 63

C. Opsonization

Question 64

What is diapedesis? * A. Migration of leukocytes in response to signals produced in sites of infection B. Locomotion of leukocytes to migrate in response to stimuli C. Leukocytes encapsulate invading bacteria within membrane vesicles D. Process of traversing the capillary wall in response to chemical signals

Answer 64

D. Process of traversing the capillary wall in response to chemical signals

Question 65

macrophage system * A. phagocytosis of dead tissues B. formation of hemoglobin C. production of erythropoietin D. release tissue growth factor to repair damaged tissues

Answer 65

B. formation of hemoglobin

Question 66

5. Correct name of tissue macrophage and their tissue location * A. mesangial cells of the lungs - kidney B. histiocytes of skin C. reticular cells of the liver - lymph node, D. Kuppfer cells of the spleen sinusoids of the liver

Answer 66

Histocystes of skin

Question 67

6. Which of the following white blood cell has a tendency to live for many years * A. lymphocytes B. eosinophils C. neutrophils D. monocytes

Answer 67

A. Lymphocytes

Question 68

What is the role of basophils in acute inflammatory response * A. Secretes chemokines that attract lymphocytes B. Release chemokines that facilitate vascular constriction C. Release histamine that facilitate edema formation D. Release effectors that activates platelets

Answer 68

C. Release histamine that facilitate edema formation

Question 69

8. Differentiation and maturation of lymphoid cells usually happen in these tissue organs, except: * A. spleen B. lymph nodes C. thymus D. bone marrow

Answer 69

Bone marrow Like all blood cells, they arise from common precursor cells (stem cells) in the bone marrow. Unlike other blood cells, however, they can leave the blood vessels and circulate in the lymphatic system. Lymphoid tissues (such as lymph nodes, the spleen, and, above all, the thymus gland) play important roles in the workings of the immune system Campbell

Question 70

9. The following are causes of anemia, except: * A. Increased blood loss B. Increased RBC production C. Impaired RBC production D. Increased RBC destruction

Answer 70

B. Increased RBC

Question 71

10. What are the possible blood type of the offsprings if the mother's blood type is A and the father is B? * A. A, B, AB and O B. A and B only C. A, B and AB only D. A, B and O only

Answer 71

A. A, B, AB and O

Question 72

Defined as the mechanism of movement of leukocytes to migrate in response to chemical signals: * A. ameboid movement B. diapedesis C. phagocytosis D. chemotaxis

Answer 72

Ameboid movement

Question 73

What is the major component of red cell skeleton? * A. glycophorin B. ankyrin C. spectrin D. actin

Answer 73

Spectrin

Question 74

This bactericidal enzyme is responsible for the green color of pus. * A. myeloperoxidase B. gelatinase C. lysozymes D. NADPH exidase

Answer 74

A. myeloperoxidase

Question 75

The purpose of RBC metabolism for the cell, except: * A. Defend mineral balance B. Maintain fluid balance C. Keep proteins reduced D. Maintain cell shape

Answer 75

B. Maintain fluid balance

Question 76

15. What are the two minerals that RBCs need to balance? * A. calcium and sodium B. sodium and potassium C. potassium and calcium D. magnesium and potassium

Answer 76

Potassium and calcium

Question 77

Where does hematopoiesis take place? * A. bone marrow B. lungs C. liver D. kidney

Answer 77

Bone marrow

Question 78

The following are crucial to normal RBC survival & function, except: * A. RBC metabolic pathways B. RBC membrane C. Hemoglobin structure & function D. Presence of antigens

Answer 78

D. Presence of antigens

Question 79

Which of the following is NOT primarily a function of blood plasma? * A. Transport of antibodies B. Maintenance of red cell size C. Transport of hormones D. Transport of O2

Answer 79

D. Transport O2

Question 80

Which is the correct chemokine type? * A. Type CXC is the largest of the four types B. Type C contains 2 intrachains disulfide bonds C. Type CC has a pair of conserved cysteine residues forming a disulfide bond D. Type CX3C are separated by 3 intervening amino acid residues

Answer 80

D. Type CX3C are separated by 3 intervening amino acid residues

Question 81

20. Why do RBCs unable to utilized fat as energy source? * A. absence of enzymes for fats B. lack of nucleus C. no protein synthesis D. absence of mitochondria

Answer 81

absence of mitochondria

Question 82

An integral protein of the red cell membrane * A. anion exchange protein B. ankyrin C. actin D. spectrin

Answer 82

anion exchange protein

Question 83

In which condition will eosinophils be elevated? * A. bacterial infection B. parasitic infection C. viral infection D. anaphylaxis

Answer 83

B. Parasitic infection

Question 84

Where does red cell maturation occur? * A. kidney B. bone marrow C. heartD. spleen

Answer 84

Bone marrow

Question 85

24. What is the direct role of G-proteins in chemotaxis? * A. hydrolyzes diacylglycerol to increase the cytoplasmic Ca2+ B. stimulates protein kinase C to induce translocation C. activates phospholipase C to produce diacylglycerol and IP3 D. activates IP3 which then catalyze phosphorylation and various proteins

Answer 85

C. activates phospholipase C to produce diacylglycerol and IP3

Question 86

5. In ABO blood group, B gene encodes for what sugar? * A. fructose B. galactose C. N-acetylgalactosamine D. phosphogluconate

Answer 86

B. Galactose A substance contains an additional GalNAc, while B substance contains an additional Gal, linked as indicated. ● The A gene encodes a UDP-GalNAc-specific GalNAc transferase that adds the terminal GalNAc to H substance. The B gene encodes a UDP-Galspecific Gal transferase that adds the Gal residue to H substance. ● Individuals of type AB possess both enzymes, and thus have two oligosaccharide chains, one terminated by GalNAc and the other by Gal Harpers Illustrated Biochemistry 30th Ed p698

Question 87

26. It is a condition manifesting as decreased production of white blood cells * A. Leukopenia B. Lymphoma C. Leukemia

Answer 87

A. Leukopenia

Question 88

The following are principal steps of an inflammatory response, except: * A. Vascular constriction to hold invading microorganisms in one place B. Activated leukocytes enter the affected tissues C. Activation of platelets to release chemokines D. Spontaneous resolution after invading microorganisms have been exterminated

Answer 88

Vascular constriction to hold invading microorganisms in one place

Question 89

28. What is the ratio of myeloid cell precursors to erythroid cell precursors? * A. 1:1 B. 2:1 C. 4:1 D. 3:1

Answer 89

C. 4: 1 4 myeloid to 1 erythroid

Question 90

A glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency will affect what pathway? * A. Hexose mono-phosphate shunt *pentose phosphate pathway B. Beta oxidation pathway C. Luebering Rapaport pathway D. Methemoglobin reductase pathway

Answer 90

Hexose mono-phosphate shunt *pentose phosphate pathway

Question 91

30. *Best description of lymphocytes * A. All originate and mature from the bone marrow B. Convert to monocytes in response to antigens C. Part of the body’s defense against cancer D. Interact with eosinophils to produce platelets

Answer 91

Part of the body’s defense against cancer

Question 92

31. What is the direct cause of the limited life span of RBCs? * A. lack of mitochondria B. easily phagocytosed C. not capable to reproduce D. no protein synthesis

Answer 92

A. Lack of mitochondria D. No protein synthesis

Question 93

32. A polymorphonuclear white blood cell * A. lymphocyte B. neutrophil C. eosinophil D. monocyte

Answer 93

Neutrophil

Question 94

33. What cell do blood cells originate from? *

Answer 94

Myeloid stem cell

Question 95

34. Which is not a metabolic pathway of RBC? * A. Beta oxidation pathway B. Luebering Rapaport pathway C. Hexose mono-phosphate shunt D. Methemoglobin reductase pathway

Answer 95

A. Beta oxidation pathway

Question 96

35. In normal human blood * A. The eosinophil is the most common type of white blood cells B. There are more lymphocytes than neutrophils C. There are more platelets than red blood cells D. The iron is mostly in hemoglobin

Answer 96

The iron is mostly in hemoglobin

Question 97

What is the intermediate that is formed between bisphosphoglycerate mutase and DPG phosphatase? * A. 3-phosphoglycerate B. 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate C. 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate D. glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate

Answer 97

C. 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate

Question 98

Which of the following best describes innate immunity? * A. composed of cells with multiple different surface molecules B. commonly composed of lymphocytes C. recognize identity of invaders D. fights invaders by complement system

Answer 98

D. fights invaders by complement system

Question 99

Which of the following best describes acquired immunity? * A. commonly composed of natural killer cells B. limited types of cells C. identifies microbes through immunization D. not specific to any invader A defense system that produces immunity through medication

Answer 99

C. identifies microbes through immunization

Question 100

What are major proteins of RBCs? * A. Spectrin and ankyrin B. Glycophorin and actin C. Glycophorin and spectrin D. Actin and ankyrin

Answer 100

Glycophorin and spectrin

Question 101

Marcus was diagnosed with anemia and was tested positive for osmotic fragility test. What could be the cause of his anemia? * A. hereditary spherocytosis B. aplastic anemia C. iron-deficiency anemia D. thalassemia

Answer 101

hereditary spherocytosis E. No correct answer Osmotic fragility is a blood test to detect whether red blood cells are more likely to break down

Question 102

Which factor regulates RBC glycolysis? * A. osmolality B. pH C. temperature D. altitude

Answer 102

B. pH

Question 103

43. Which of the following leukocyte is an agranulocyte? * A. Eosinophils B. Monocytes C. Mast cells D. Basophils

Answer 103

Monocyte

Question 104

What does the network of microfilaments on the inner surface of the RBC do? * A. control biconcave shape & deformability of the cell B. maintain RBC ionic composition C. has Antigenic properties D. anchor the membrane bilayer to the cytoskeleton

Answer 104

A. control biconcave shape & deformability of the cell

Question 105

45. White blood cell containing receptors for IgM * A. monocyte B. neutrophil C. basophil D. eosinophil

Answer 105

D. eosinophil the cell membrane of eosinophil contains receptors for IgE, IgG, IgM Source: Dra. Laraya, PPT

Question 106

46. A hematocrit of 41% means that in a sample of blood analyzed: * A. 41% of the total blood volume is made up of red and white blood cells and platelets B. 41% of the total blood volume is made up of blood plasma C. 41% of the hemoglobin is in red blood cells D. 41% of the hemoglobin is in the plasma

Answer 106

A. 41% of the total blood volume is made up of red and white blood cells and platelets

Question 107

Analyn was suffering from prolonged menses for three consecutive months and she was noted to be pale with occasional dizziness thus consulted the emergency department. Laboratory showed anemia and what blood cell type would likely increase? * A. platelet B. lymphocyte C. reticulocyte- Increased release of nascent RBCs to try to compensate for the RBC loss. D. neutrophils

Answer 107

C. reticulocyte- Increased release of nascent RBCs to try to compensate for the RBC loss.

Question 108

What functions does the red blood cell membrane control? A. Glycolysis B. Durability/strength C. Exchange of gases

Answer 108

Durability/strength

Question 109

What does the Hexose monophosphate shunt produce? * A. ATP B. ADP C. NADPH D. NADH

Answer 109

C.NADPH The pentose phosphate pathway of the RBC metabolizes about 5%-10% of the total flux of glucose) and produces NADPH. Hemolytic anemia due to a deficiency of the activity of glucose6-phosphate dehydrogenase is common. (Harpers 31st ed p 648)

Question 110

50. What is the G in G-protein? * A. granulocyte B. guanidine C. guanine D. guanosine

Answer 110

D. Guanosine