RCC Treatments Flashcards

(40 cards)

1
Q

What is the R.E.N.A.L. Nephrometry Score?

A

a nomogram to assess the complexity of a renal tumor, and is predictive of surgical outcomes.

acronym for Radius, Exophytic, Nearness to collecting system, Anterior/posterior, and Location

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the RENAL nephrometry scoring stratifications?

A

Low complexity: 4-6
Moderate complexity: 7-9
High complexity: 10-12 or has “h” suffix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

RENAL Nephrometry Score: Radius points?

A

1: <4 cm
2: 4-7 cm
3: > 7cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

RENAL Nephrometry Score: Exophytic points?

A

1: >50% exophytic
2: < 50% exophytic
3: completely endophytic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

RENAL Nephrometry Score: Nearness to collecting system points?

A

1: > 7mm
2: 4-7mm
3: < 4mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

RENAL Nephrometry Score: Anterior/posterior points?

A

No score given. Simply assign the tumor anterior, posterior, neither, or hilar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

RENAL Nephrometry Score: Location points?

A

1: above/below polar lines
2: crosses polar lines

3:
a) > 50% of mass crosses polar line
b) or mass crosses axial renal midline
c) or mass completely between polar lines

*suffix “h” if mass is touching a main renal artery or vein (for herniation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When is thermal ablation usually reserved for?

A

Masses < 4cm (T1a tumors)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Indications for partial nephrectomy:

A

Bilateral tumors
Tumors in solitary kidney
Small renal masses <4cm (T1a; lots of discrepancy here)
Decreased renal function or comorbidities that lead to poor renal function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are some of the important key steps in a partial nephrectomy?

A

Early and complete vascular control
Diuresis (mannitol)
Ischemia time (<30 minutes of warm ischemia)
Adequate renal reconstruction to avoid urine leak and/or post-operative bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When and why is mannitol used in partial nephrectomy?

A

Used prior to hilar clamping to reduce oxidative damage and free radicals and to induce diuresis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Treatment of stage 4 RCC with solitary metastasis?

A

Nephrectomy + metastasectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Treatment of stage 4 RCC and multiple mets?

A

Attempt cytoreductive nephrectomy and medical therapy

- if not medically cleared, surgically unresectable, or brain mets, then medical therapy only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When is regional lymph node dissection recommended?

A

If gross adenopathy seen, otherwise optional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Should adrenal gland be removed during radical nephrectomy?

A

Only if direct tumor extension (T4)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Post-surgery, recurrence is most likely within how long after surgery?

A

within 2 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

MC sites of recurrence?

A

Lung > bone > liver

18
Q

Recommended AUA Guidelines for post-op CT scan and further follow up imaging for a pT1, N0, Nx tumor?

A

Post-op CT scan 3-12 months, then annual abdominal CT and CXR x 3 years

19
Q

Recommended AUA Guidelines for post-op CT scan and further follow up imaging for a pT2-4, N-any tumor?

A

Post-op CT scan 3-6 months, semiannual abdominal CT and CXR x 3 years, then annual CT and CXR x 2 years

20
Q

Recommended AUA Guidelines for post-op CT scan and further follow up imaging after renal ablation?

A

Post-op CT scan 3-6 months, then annual abdominal CT and CXR x 5 years

21
Q

Recommended AUA Guidelines for post-biopsy or post-diagnosis CT scan and further follow up imaging for renal tumor Active Surveillance?

A

CT scan 6 months from diagnosis or biopspy, then annual CT and CXR indefinitely

22
Q

What is hyperfiltration injury?

How much loss of functional renal tissue is generally concerning for this?

A

When reduction of one renal unit leads to increased perfusion, thus hyperfiltration of the remaining renal unit(s).

> 75% loss of functional renal tissue is concerning for hyperfiltration injury

23
Q

What is the first indicator of hyperfiltration injury?

What specific nephropathy occurs with hyperfiltration injury?

A

Proteinuria is first indicator, which may then lead to hypertension.

Focal segemental sclerosis that progresses to renal failure

24
Q

How is a urine leak after partial nephrectomy managed?

A

maintain or establish drainage (e.g. Jackson-Pratt drain, Double-J ureteral stent)

25
What are the targets of the three specific pathways, involved with the RCC tumorigenesis pathway of HIF-1, that are inhibited for the medical treatment of RCC?
1. Tyrosine kinase inhibitors 2. mTOR inhibitors 3. VEGF inhibitors
26
What are the tyrosine kinase inhibitors for treating RCC?
Sunitinib (1st line therapy) Sorafenib Pazopanib Axitinib ** TKI's always end in -nib
27
Classic side effects of the tyrosine kinase inhibitors?
1. Hand-foot syndrome (desquamation) 2. Hepatotoxicity 3. LV dysfunction, heart failure - also diarrhea, fatigue
28
What is the mTOR inhibitor? Drug schedule?
Temsirolimus 25mg IV weekly
29
What is the indicaiton/who gets temsirolimus?
indicated for poor risk patients with advanced RCC
30
What are the criteria that make a patient poor risk?
1. LDH > 1.5x normal (bulky disease) 2. Anemia 3. Hypercalcemia 4. Interval < 1 year from original diagnosis to the start of systemic therapy 5. Karnofsky performance status < 70 6. >1 sites of metastasis
31
Classic SE of temisirolimus?
Mucositis, rashes, fatigue
32
What are the 2 cytokine therapies?
Interleukin-2 Interferon-alpha
33
Which cytokine therapy has 5% durable complete remissions, but has harsh side effects and is recommended in patients with excellent performance status (i.e. only pulmonary mets)
Interleukin-2
34
Interferon-alpha is always used in conjunction with what other drug?
Bevacizumab
35
What is the VEGF inhibitor?
Bevacizumab (Avastin)
36
What are the worrisome SE's of bevacizumab?
hemorrhage **wound healing complications fatigue, proteinuria, HTN
37
How often is bevacizumb + IFN-a given?
10mg/kg IV infusion every 2 weeks until disease progression
38
What is the half-life of bevacizumab? Why must this be considered?
T 1/2 ~ 20 days Drug MUST be stopped or helt at least 28 days (1 month) prior and after surgery. - consider 80-100 days (3 months) to allow for 4-5 half-lives * *must discontinue in patient with Fournier's gangrene
39
Second line RCC medical therapies?
``` Everolimus (mTOR) Axitinib Sorafenib Pazopanib Temsirolimus (mTOR) Bevacizumab + IFNa IL-2 ```
40
Drug schedule for Sunitinib?
50mg oral daily; 4 weeks on, 2 weeks off May reduce dosing for side effects