RCES Flashcards

Pass the RCES exam (82 cards)

1
Q

What is the ion responsible for cardiac depolarization?

A

Soidium (Na+)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the ion responsible for SA node and AV node depolarization?

A

Calcium (Ca+)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What Xray position shows halo catheter in clock face view?

A

LAO 30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What step is the sterile package flap opened towards you?

A

Last

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Name 3 important handoff details.

A

History and physical
complications
patient mental status and procedure results

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The doctor puts in RV lead which he suspects went through an ASD. What indications will appear on the EKG and what angle should the C-arm be in to check the lead?

A

RBBB, verified in LAO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Quinidine is part of what antiarrhythmic drug class?

A

Class Ia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Lidocaine is part of what antiarrhythmic drug class?

A

Class IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Flacanide is part of what antiarrhythmic drug class?

A

Class Ic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What should the mapping person set the voltage for scar on the mapping system?

A

0.5 mV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What complication at the access site causes pain, swelling and bruit sounds?

A

Pseudoaneurysm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What complication at the access site causes pain, swelling and bruit sounds?

A

Pseudoaneurysm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What arrhythmia is induced by exercise and post exercise?

A

Brugadas syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the best view for RV catheter?

A

RAO 30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What reverses benzodiazepines?

A

flumazil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What should we educate our patients’ about when they are discharged on coumadin?

A

INR needs to be checked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the range for the intraprocedure ACT ?

A

300 - 400 sec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When would we difibrillate a patient?

A

unstable polymorphic VT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When would we defibrillate a patient?

A

unstable polymorphic VT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What would cause an increase in lead impedence?

A

Conductor fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What would cause an increase in lead impedence?

A

Conductor fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What does ACT stand for?

A

Activated clotting time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What changes to the frames per second will reduce radiation dosage?

A

15 f/s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the optimal cryoablation temperature?

A

-65 degrees VS 4 min freeze

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What should you look for when pulling an arterial sheath?
a faint distal pulse
26
Where would the transseptal needle be placed for transseptal access?
fossa ovalis
27
What is a contraindication to a transseptal puncture?
dilated ascending aorta
28
What kind of ventilation is it when you have pCO2=20 and a respiratory rate = 24?
hyperventilation
29
if H increases, what happens to the pH?
Increases
30
How would you convert BPM to msec?
60 000 / BPM
31
Define: ERP
longest coupling interval that fails to conduct
32
What kind of pathway is it if the VA interval increases with LBBB ?
Left sided accessory pathway
33
What would you use if the patient is allergic to iodine?
Chlorahexadine
34
What lab values would be checked if the patient is allergic to iodine?
Check BUN, creatinine and GFR, BUN/creatinine ratio
35
What type of access is non-pulsatile?
venous access
36
Where do you find the correct information of a patient's device?
Physician's orders
37
When should time out begin?
beginning of the procedure
38
What is Ohm's law?
V(volts) = I(Amps) R(ohms)
39
What is a MSDS and what is it used for?
Material Safety Data sheet for chemical information in lab
40
What is the angioplasty term for stretch?
compliance
41
What balloon would be used for a rigid coronary sinus lesion?
non-compliant balloon
42
During timeout the joint commission requires we mention what three things?
verify patient procedure surgical site
43
What medication is given for SVT?
Adenosine
44
What medication is given for TTT?
Isoproternol
45
Other than pain what can morphine be given for?
vasodilation
46
What does flacainide do to cardiac thresholds?
increases
47
What is the most anterior chamber?
right ventricle
48
What location would be prepped for pericardiocentesis?
subxyphoid
49
What would be set the threshold for a pacemaker?
pacing threshold x2
50
To reduce the risk of retroparitoneal bleed getting arterial access should be below what ligament?
inguinal
51
What allows for RA to LA conduction?
Bachmann's bundle
52
Who can sign consent if the patient is sedated?
family
53
If the LA pressure waveform is dampened, what do you do?
aspirate and flush the sheath
54
What electrode is positive?
Anode
55
What is the best defense against infection?
Handwashing
56
What trial established that a patient should consider an ICD post MI with an EF <30%?
MADIT II
57
When would we use DFT ?
patient taking amiodarone for new-onset AFib
58
When the P wave of a PAC is upright in II,III and AVF where is the focus located?
close to the SA node
59
What is the highest cSNRT?
550 msec
60
How long should an exchange guidewire be?
long enough to fit the length of the catheter
61
A woman with paroxysmal atrial fibrillation, chronotropic incompetence, 1:1 AV conduction @100BPM. What would you program her device to?
DDDR
62
What is the Wedensky effect?
lowered threshold of excitability induced | by a strong stimulus
63
What is the Wedensky effect when you increase the voltage of a pacing stimulus?
lowers the threshold of the myocardium
64
What equipment is used for a pericardiocentesis?
sterile table and echo tech
65
Where would you prep for a pericardiocentesis?
subxyphoid
66
When pacing in the HRA, a QRS of 210ms results indicate what?
high mA output
67
What would you do physically for the patient when the patient has pulmonary edema?
Raise PT's head
68
What is the equation for pulse pressure?
pulse pressure = systolic-diastolic
69
ETCO2 measure what?
COs expelled
70
30 mins after removal of a right femoral venous and arterial sheath, patient complains of back pain. What should you do?
turn patient to side
71
After a PM is removed from the pocket with a bifurcated V. lead, 1 pin capped and 1 pin in the header; What should you look for?
Intrinsic Activity/Rhythm
72
What device would be implanted in a patient with an EF of 58%, Hx of VT and ischemia?
Dual chamber ICD
73
What view is used during an A. flutter ablation to view clock faced valves?
LAO 30
74
What returns oxygenated blood to the LA?
PV
75
Where does the CS return deoxygenated blood?
RA
76
What is the antagonist to heparin?
Protamine
77
What is the therapeutic INR?
2.1-4
78
What is the body's normal pH?
7.35
79
What is the ACT range for a transseptal puncture?
250-350 sec
80
How tall in cm is a patient who is 6 feet tall?
6'= 72'' * 2.54 = 189 cm
81
What is the length of an exchange wire?
300 cm
82
A holter monitor is used to assess what?
frequency and severity of arrhythmias